Class 9 Geography and Environment

Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface Short Questions With Answers:

Question 1. What is the zenith distance of the sun?
Answer: The sun’s zenith distance is its distance from the vertical.

Question 2. What angle does each meridian make on the Equator?
Answer: 90°.

Question 3. What is the highest meridian of longitude?
Answer: 180°.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography and Environment

Question 4. How could (by which star) we calculate the latitude in the southern hemisphere?
Answer: The angle that Hadley’s octart makes at any place on Earth in the southern hemisphere is the latitude of the place.

Question 5. What is the latitude of the Arctic Circle?
Answer: 66 (½)°N.

Class ix Geography Book WBBSE

Question 6. From which degree Prime Meridian pass?
Answer: 0°.

Question 7. Which longitude is considered to be the International date line?
Answer: 180°.

Question 8. 0° longitude passes through which place?
Answer: Greenwich near London.

Question 9. What is the time difference at 1° interval of longitude?
Answer: 4 minutes.

Question 10. Which parallel is known as great circle?
Answer: Equator.

Question 11. What is the difference in longitude between a place and its antipode?
Answer: 180°.

Question 12. What is the time difference between a place and its antipode?
Answer: 12 hours.

Question 13. Which degree is considered to be the standard meridian in India?
Answer: 82°30°E.

Question 14. How many hours Indian Standard Time is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time?
Answer: 5 ½

Question15. Which instrument is used to measure time at Greenwich?
Answer: Chronometer.

Question 16. Name two great circles in the Earth.
Answer:
(1) Equatorial Great Circle,
(2) Great Circle of Prime Meridian and International Dateline.

Question 17. What is the average distance between latitudes?
Answer: 111 km.

Question 18. What is the latitude of Tropic of Capricorn?
Answer: 23 (½)°s.

Class ix Geography Book WBBSE

Question 19. How many parallels of latitudes are there?
Answer: 181.

Question 20. What is the latitude of Kolkata?
Answer: 22°34’N.

Question 21. What is the antipode of kolkata (22°21″N)?
Answer: 22°34’S.

Question 22. Who invented Sextant?
Answer: John Hadley.

wbbse class 9 geography chapter 3 questions and answers True Or False Type

Question 1. The number of Latitude is 180.
Answer: True

Question 2. Number of Longitude is 361.
Answer: False

Question 3. IDL is following 180° meridian of Longitude.
Answer: True

Question 4. Equator is the Great Circle.
Answer: True

Question 5. Standard Meridian of Pakistan is 75°E.
Answer: True

Question 6. Standard Meridian of Bangladesh is 90°E.
Answer: True

Question 7. Prime Meridian is a Full Circle.
Answer: Flase

Question 8. 82°30’ E Longitude is taken as IST.
Answer: True

Question 9. Standard Meridian of Pakistan is 75°E.
Answer: True

Question 10. Standard Meridian of Bangladesh is 90°E.
Answer: True

Question 11. Standard Meridian of India is 82°30°E.
Answer: True

Class ix Geography Book WBBSE

Question 12. Antipodes are two places on the earth’s surface situated just opposite to each other.
Answer: True

Question 13. The highest possible latitude is 360°.
Answer: Flash

Question 14. Longitudes are two places of the earth’s surface located just opposite to each other.
Answer: False

Question 15. Lines of latitudes are purely circular.
Answer: True

west bengal board Class 9 Geography Question 16. The antipode of Kolkata is 22°34°S and 91°30’W.
Answer: True

Question 17. Places lying on the same latitude have the same local time.
Answer: True

Question 18. The biggest possible longitude is 90°.
Answer: False

Question 19. Prime Meridian is the starting line and it is 0°.
Answer: True

Class ix Geography Book WBBSE Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Latitude of the Tropic of Cancer is_______.
Answer: 23 (½)°N.

Question 2. Latitude of the Tropic of Capicorn is __________.
Answer: 23 (½)°S.

Question 3. Modern air routes follow the________.
Answer: Great Circle Route.

Question 4. Number of Latitude is________.
Answer: 181.

Question 5. Number of Longitude is________.
Answer: 360.

Question 6. Value of Prime Meridian is__________.
Answer: 0°.

Question 7. The latitude of Kolkata is ________ North.
Answer: 22°34.

Question 8. The line which lies on the halfway between the north pole and south pole is called____________.
Answer: Equator.

Class ix Geography Book WBBSE

Question 9. The parallels of latitude are___________ circles.
Answer: full.

Question 10. The meridians of longitudes are________.
Answer: semi-circle.

Question 11. The longitude of London is____________.
Answer: 0°.

Question 12. The highest possible latitude is_________.
Answer: 90°.

west bengal board Class 9 Geography Question 13. The International Date Line follows the ___________degree longitude.
Answer: 180°.

Question 14. The line which joins the two poles through the centre of the earth is called_____.
Answer: earth’s axis.

 

Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface 2 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. What is Prime Meridian?
Answer:

Prime Meridian

The longitude line which passes through Greenwich near London is called prime meridian. Its position is 0°.

Question 2. What are the characteristics of latitude?
Answer:

The characteristics of latitude are:-

(1) All latitudes are whole circles.
(2)They are parallel to each other.
(3) They run in east-west direction.
(4) They gradually become smaller towards the poles from the equator.

Question 3. What is local time?
Answer:

Local time

Local time is apparent at noon time. It is mainly determined by the position of the overhead Sun.

West Bengal board Class 9 Geography

Question 4. What is apparent time?
Answer:

Apparent time

The time of the day indicated by the apparent movement of the sun ona sundial is called apparent time.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 WBBSE

Question 5. What is the time difference between a place and its antipode?
Answer:

12 hrs. is the time difference between a place and its antipode.

Question 6. By which instrument GMT can be measured?
Answer: By chronometers, GMT can be measured which is mainly used by the mariners of ships.

Question 7. What is Earth’s Grid?
Answer:

Earth’s Grid

Earth’s Grid is a network of certain imaginary but fixed intersecting lines drawn from the two poles and the equator.

Question 8. What is standard time?
Answer:

Standard time

When the local time of a place is taken as the time for the whole country, it is called the standard time of that country.

Question 9. Why are the lines of longitudes also known as ‘Meridians’?
Answer: The lines of longitude are also known as Meridians of longitude because Meridian is derived from the Greek word ‘Meridianum’ means noon. The sun crosses a meridian at noon so it will be noon at the same time all the places on a particular meridian.

Question 10. Which line of longitude is used to fix the world standard time? State its value in degrees.
Answer: The time at Greenwich has been selected for fixing the world standard time. It is longitude.

Question 11. When it is noon in England, it is 5:30 p.m. in India. Explain.
Answer: The local time of India is B24 =330 mins = 5hrs. 30 mins ahead of Green- which time. This means, when it is noon in England (12:00 hrs) it is 5:30 pm. in India.

west bengal board Class 9 Geography Question 12. Where on earth there is no local time?
Answer: At poles there is no local time.

Question 13. Find the antipode of a place having 10°N (Latitude) and 60°E(longitude).
Answer: The antipode of the place is at 10°S and 120°W (180°-60° = 120°).

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 WBBSE

wbbse class 9 geography chapter 3 

Question 14. What is Great Circle?
Answer:

Great Circle

Equator is known as the Great Circle for its maximum diameter. The line which lies on halfway between the north pole and the south pole, is called the equator (0° latitude). The Great circle route between two points represents the shortest line between two points.

Question 15. What is Latitude?
Answer:

Latitude

Latitudes are the East-West extending imaginary lines, to the north and south of the equator lying parallel to each other on the earth’s surface.

Question 16. What is Sextant?
Answer:

Sextant

Sextant is an instrument that helps to find out the latitude of a place by following the highest elevation of the sun in the sky. Thus, the latitude of a place is determined by this instrument.

Question 17. Mention two ways how the latitude of a place can be determined.
Answer:

(1) With the help of the ascension of the pole star :
Pole star can be seen from anywhere in the Northern hemisphere but not from Southern hemisphere. Its altitude varies with the change in place. At the equator, it can be seen at the horizon. So, moving 1° from the equator to the North pole the pole star also rises by 1°in the sky. In this way, at the North pole, the pole star is seen right overhead making an angle at 90°.

(2) By observing the ascent of the sun :
As the pole star cannot be seen during the daytime, the ascent of the sun is observed to find out the latitude of the place. In this case, also two poles of the sextant instrument is used to observe the ascent of the sun.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 WBBSE

wbbse class 9 geography chapter 3 

Question 18. Give five characteristics of werigierade
Answer:

Characteristics of werigierade

(1) Each longitude or meridian is a half-circle.
(2) The length of each longitude is the same.
(3) The degree of the meridians increase from Prime Meridian (0°) to the East or West up to 180° only.
(4) Meridians are not parallel to each other and all meet at the poles.
(5) The centre of the earth is also the centre of all meridians.

Question 19. Mention three ways how the Longitude of a place can be determined.
Answer:
(1) According to the time difference between two places their longitudes can be determined.
(2) If the longitude at one place is known, the time difference
between the two places will help to determine the longitude of the other place.
(3) The difference between GMT & the local time of any place will help to determine the longitude of the other places.

west bengal board Class 9 Geography Question 20. What are the meridians of Longitude?
Answer:
The semi-circular imaginary lines joining north & south and extending in a north-south direction over the earth’s surface are called meridians of longitude.

Question 21. How long is 1° Latitude?
Answer: As the earth is slightly flattened at the poles, the linear distance of one degree of latitude at the pole is slightly longer than that at the equator. However, at the equator, 1° of latitude is equal to 40,000 (km)/360 (degree) approx. 111 km.

Question 22. How long is 1° Longitude?
Answer: The linear distance between two longitudes of 1° difference is not the same everywhere. It is the longest at the equator and it decreases towards the poles. At the equator, 1° equals 111 km, but it is zero at the poles. At 30° north or south it s 96.5km., at 60° north or south is 55.4 km and at 80° north or south it is 19.3 km.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 WBBSE

Question 23. What do you mean by A.M. and P.M.?
Answer:

A.M. and P.M

A.M. is abbreviated from ‘Ante Meridian’. It indicates the time of a day before (ante) midday (meridian), i.e., the time from midnight (i.e., 12 O’clock midnight or, 00.00 hours) to midday (i.e. up to 12 noon). P.M. is abbreviated from ‘Post Meridian’, and it indicates the time after (post) midday (meridian), i.e., the time from 12 noon to midnight.

Question 24. Why do we not refer to longitude as distance in km east or west of the 0° meridian ?
Answer: As one approaches from the equator to the poles the distance between a meridian of longitude and the 0° meridian goes on decreasing. It is not possible to state so many varying lengths to identify one longitude. So lines of longitude are always identified by their angular distances.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 WBBSE

wbbse class 9 geography chapter 3 

Question 25. Why do some countries have several time zones?
Answer: Large countries like the U.S.A., Canada, C..S., which have a great east-west stretch adopt several time zones for practical purposes. C.1.S. which extends through 165° to longitude is divided into eleven time zones. When it is 10.00 p.m. on a Monday night in Leningrad, Travelers on the Trans-Siberian Railway adjust their watches a dozen time before they reach their destination.

Question 26. What are the four properties of Great Circle?
Answer:

Properties of Great Circle

(1) Great circles divide a globe into hemispheres.
(2) A plane passing through the centre of a sphere only can produce a great circle.
(3) It is the largest possible circle on a sphere.
(4) An arc of a great circle is the shortest surface distance between any two points on a sphere.

Question 27. Distinguish between the noon meridian and the midnight meridian.
Answer:

Difference between the noon meridian and the midnight meridian

The 0° prime meridian is the noon meridian. Directly opposite of the noon meridian, on the other side of the globe, is the midnight meridian at the |.D.L. The noon meridian separates forenoon and afternoon by a split of second. The midnight meridian separate one calendar day and the next by 24 hours.

Question 28. Is it ever possible for the same day to exist simultaneously on both sides of the International Date Line?
Answer:

Yes, theoretically, at the 0 (zero) hour it is possible for the same day to exist on both sides of the 1.D.L.

At the exact instant when the noon meridian of a particular day (12 hours fast) coincides with the 0° prime meridian the midnight hours meridian of the same day (12 hours slow) must also coincide with the 180 meridians. At this instant, the same
calendar day exists on both sides of the meridian. At all other times the calendar day on the west (Asiatic) of the I.D.L. is a day ahead of that on the east (Pacific American) side.

WBBSE Class 9th Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer

Question 29. What is a statute mile?
Answer:

Statute mile

A statute mile is a ‘Over-land’ linear measurement of 1760 yds = 5280 ft. = 63.360 ins. = 1609.3 meters. Originally, the miles was the Roman measurement of 1000 paces (Room milia).

Question 30. What is a nautical mile?
Answer:

Nautical mile

A nautical mile is the ‘Over-water’ length of 1 minute of arc or 1,21,600 of a great circle. On any great circle 1 minute = 1 nautical mile. 1 degree = 60 nautical miles. 1 nautical mile = 6,080 feet = 1,1516 statute mile = 1852 m.

wbbse class 9 geography chapter 3 

Question 31. What is a geographical mile?
Answer:

Geographical mile

A geographical mile is strictly the length of 1 minute is measured along the equator = 6,087.2 ft.; in practice, it is, however, taken as 6,080 ft.

Question 32. Where on earth is there no local time? Why?
Answer: At the poles, all the meridians converge to a point at the pole. That is why we cannot refer the time to any local meridian.

Question 33. What are the periods of the sun’s north declination and south declination?
Answer: From 21st March to 23rd September the sun has a north declination and from 23rd September to 21st March, it has a south declination.

WBBSE Class 9th Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface 2 Marks Questions And Answers (Short Notes)

Question 1. Local Time.
Answer:

Local Time

At any place when the sun is at the zenith (i.e. overhead) it is noon at that time and place. Thus at that place, it is 12 noon and accordingly the time is calculated. This is the local time of that place.

The sun’s position changes according to the change in longitude. Thus the local time of all the places on the same longitude of the meridian will be the same.

Question 2. G.MT.
Answer:

G.MT

It is the local time of the Prime Meridian (0°) at the Royal Astronomical Observatory, Greenwich near London. It is the standard time of U.K. Local time in all meridians to the east of Prime Meridians are ahead to G.M.T. and the local time of the meridians to the west of Prime Meridian are behind G.M.T.

In order to maintain international uniformity, one uniform time, corresponding to the Prime Meridian, is adopted by all countries. This is called Greenwich Mean Time. (G.M.1.) Indian standard time is 5½hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 3. Land of Midnight Sun.
Answer:

Land of Midnight Sun

The Midnight Sun is a phenomenon in which the sun is seen shining above the horizon at midnight in latitudes higher than 66(½)°North or South. Between 21st March to 23rd September for 6 months, there is continuous day at the North Pole.

From Hamerfest port in the Northern border of Norway, even late in the night, the sun can be seen far away in the sky above the North Pole. Thus, the region around the Hammerfest port of Norway is called the land of Midnight Sun.

wbbse class 9 geography chapter 3 

Question 4. Standard time.
Answer:

Standard time

Standard time is an uniform time selected for all places in a country without any regard to their local times. It is generally taken from the central meridian of that country. The local time of that particular meridian is made the standard time of the entire country.

Standard time is taken in order to avoid a host of inconveniences that may occur if every town or village had its own local time. For example-Indian Standard Time is taken from 82°30’E.

Question 5. International Dateline.
Answer:

International Dateline

The International Date Line (IDL) is of great use in traveling around the world, particularly in keeping time of the world in a fixed framework. If there is no IDL and Prime Meridian there would occur an error of a day in other regions to make confusion of time as weil. The fixation of IDL mends this error and confusion. The IDL runs along the 180° meridian. It lies along the Mid-Pacific Ocean which changes where a landmark or a country prevails. On crossing this line, ships and

Question 6. Chronometer.
Answer:

Chronometer

A Chronometer is an accurate time-keeper, which shows the Greenwich Mean Time or the local time of a place and helps us to determine the longitude of a place with reference to the difference in the local time of two places.

Question 7. Great Circles.
Answer:

Great Circles

A great circle is a section of a sphere and the plane of the section passes through the centre of the sphere. The circle that cuts the Earth into two equal halves is called the Great Circle. The equator is about 40,000 Km long and is the largest possible circle on the Earth’s surface hence called Great Circle. it divides the Earth into two equal halves, the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere.

The Prime Meridian (0°) and its antimeridian (180°) together form a full circle that divides the Earth also into two halves (The Eastern and the Western Hemisphere). These two longitudes therefore, together form a Great Circle.

wbbse class 9 geography chapter 3 

Question 8. Antipodes.
Answer:

Antipodes

Antipodes are two places on the Earth’s surface, situated diametrically opposite to each other. If a straight line is drawn through the centre of the Earth, it will reach just the opposite side (the antipodal position).It should be noted that the latitudes of antipodes always interchange their positions in two hemisphere north and south and the difference of longitude between the two places of antipodes will always be 180° and they will be situated on the two hemisphere, viz. eastern and western.

Example: The latitude and longitude of Kolkata are 22°30°N. and 88°30 E respectively. Therefore, the antipodes of Kolkata lies at 22°34°S and 91°30’W (180° — 88°30° = 91°30°). This point is situated in the Pacific Ocean in the west of Chile (South America).

Question 9. Indian Standard Time.
Answer:

Indian Standard Time

Indian Standard Time: In India, the local time of 82°30° East meridian, which passes through the central part of the country (near Allahabad), has been taken as the standard time for the whole country. It is known as Indian Standard Time or I.S.T. It is ahead from Greenwich Mean Time (G.M.T.) by 5 hours and 30

minutes [ 82 1/2° -0°= 82 1/2° x 4÷60=5 hours and 30 minutes.]

 

Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface 3 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. Differentiate between local time & standard time.
Answer:

Differentiate between local time & standard time

Local Time	Standard Time
(1)    It is measured by the sun’s mid-day altitude. (2)    A time zone can have many local times. (3)    It differs from place to place.	(1)    It is measured by the central longitude’s local time. (2)    A time zone can have only one standard time. (3)    It is constant in a particular area.

Question 2. What is a great circle route? Why do modern air routes follow the great circle routes?
Answer:

Great circle route

Air or sea routes that follow great circle paths are known as great circle routes.

The modern air routes follow great circle routes because –

(1) They represent the shortest distance between any two points on the globe along with its circumference.
(2) On speedy long-distance flights, they save flying time.
(3) Great circle polar routes provide the quickest link between Europe and North America.

wbbse class 9 geography chapter 3 

Question 3. What are the uses of latitudes & longitudes?
Answer:
(1) Uses of latitudes :-

(1)The tudes determine the location of a place.
(2) The latitudes determine the heat zones.
(3) It also determines the location of the pressure belt.
(4) The latitude can give an idea about the temperature and natural vegetation of a place.

(2) Uses of longitudes:-

(1) The point of intersection of longitude and latitudes determines the location of a place.
(2) The longitudes determine the local time of a place.

Question 4. What is the standard longitude of India and what is the need of it?
Answer:

Standard longitude of India

82°30′ is the standard longitude of India.

If there is no standard time of India different places have their different local times. India covers an area of 30 longitudes so railway system, airports, T.V., News etc. will have different time if a particular longitude is not followed
consistenly by all. So, to avoid these difficulties Indian standard time is used.

Question 5. Why International Date Line is not Straight?
Answer:

The International Date line passes through Pacific Ocean. It deviates from 180° longitude in some places in order to keep all the islands under one administration on one side of the Dateline.

The Date line goes zigzag in some places to avoid land and to leave island groups wholly. It deviates eastwards in the Bering strait between Alaska and Siberia. The line deviates westwards (7°) of 180° longitude to include the entire Aleutian islands to the east of the line. Further, South the Dateline deviates eastwards (11°) of 180° around Fiji, and Tonga islands.

(iv) In order to exclude Gilibert and phonex the line deviates 35° of 180°.

Question 6. State the differences between parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude.
Answer:

The differences between parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude

Parallels of Latitude	Meridians of Longitude
(1)    These are circular lines.	(1)    These are semi-circular lines.
(2)    Their size go on decreasing towards the poles.	(2)    Theire size remains the same.
(3)    The distance between them is uniform.	(3)    The distance between them is not uniform. It goes on decreasing towards the poles.
(4)    There are 179 lines of latitudes.	(4)    There are 360 lines of longitudes.
(5)    Sextant is used to measure latitude.	(5)    Chronometer is used to measure longitude.
(6)    They run in east, west direction.	(6)    They run in a north-south direction.
(7)    Equator is the most important parallel of latitude.	(7)    Prime meridian is the most important meridian of longitude.
(8)    They are located to the north and south of the equator.	(8)    They are located to the east and west of the prime meridian.

 

Question 7. What do you understand by antipodes?
Answer:

Antipodes

Antipodes are two places on the earth’s surface that are diametrically opposite to one another,in such a manner that a straight line joining them passes through the centre of the earth.

Example :

(1) (for Longitude) the antipode of 40° W is (180°-40°) = 140° E
(2) (for Latitude) = The antipode of 60° N = 60°S.
The antipode of any place on the equator will be on the equator.

 

Question 8. Distinguish between Greenwich Mean Time and Indian Standard Time.
Answer:

Difference between Greenwich Mean Time and Indian Standard Time

Greenwich Mean Time is the local time of the Prime Meridian (0°) at the Royal Astronomical Observatory, Greenwich near London. It is also known as universal time. On the other hand, Indian standard time is the standard time of India as a whole. ISI is reckoned from the times of the central meridian of the country and it is 82°30’E. It is ahead of GMT by 5 hours and 30 minutes.

Question 9. Explain the Statements:- For Longitudinal difference of 1° time varies for 4 minutes.
Answer:

For Longitudinal difference of 1° time varies for 4 minutes

Earth takes almost 24 hours for a complete rotation. Thus earth completes 360° in 24 hours. So, in one hour the earth moves 15° (360° = 24 hrs. = 15°) and naturally, 1° of longitude will take 4 minutes (60 minutes + 15 = 4 minutes) to rotate. So for a longitude difference of 1° time varies for 4 minutes.
(1) For Longitudinal difference of 1° time varies for 4 seconds. As a difference of 1° longitude has a time difference of 4 minutes or 240 seconds, then for longitudinal difference of 1′ time varies for (240 + 60 seconds) 4 seconds.

Question 10. The variation of time between a place and its antipode is twelve hours — why?
Answer:

The variation of time between a place and its antipode is twelve hours

The difference of the longitudes of a place and its antipode is of 180°. Since 1° longitudinal difference causes 4 minutes time difference. therefore, 180° longitudinal difference causes 180 x 4 mins. or 720 mins. or 12 hrs. time difference. That’s the reason why the variation of time between a place and its antipode is twelve hours.

WBBSE Class 9th Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer

Question 11. Relation between the line of longitude and time.
Answer:

Relation between the line of longitude and time

There is a definite relation between longitude and time. The earth rotates on its axis and completes one rotation in 24 hours; therefore, 360° meridians of longitude take 24 hours to pass under the sun.

Thus, 15 degrees [360° + 24 = 15°] pass under the sun each hour and 1 degree in 4 minutes [60 minutes = 15° = 4 mins.].

We know that it is noon at a place when the sun is seen just on overhead of the meridian of longitude of that place. Thus, all places on the same meridian have their noon at the same time.

As the earth rotates from West to East, places on the East of the meridian 0° pass under the sun before places which are in the West of this meridian.

Question 12. Why does International Date Line follow 180° Longitude?
Answer: The reason for the choice of the 180th-degree meridian as the International Date Line, is that it passes through the mid-Pacific Ocean where there are a few landmasses and islands. Hence, there is almost no need for changing the time frequently. In this meridian, there are only few places where bendings are made to maintain the time zones.

Question 13. Find the antipode of a place having 10°N (Latitude) and 60°E(Longitude).
Answer:

10°S latitude and 120° W longitude.

Latitudes in Antipodes interchange the hemispheres. Therefore 10°N latitude becomes 10°S. But, the longitudinal difference between antipodes is 180° and in the opposite hemisphere.

Therefore 180° — 60° E = 120° W.

Question 14. What is meant by local time and standard time?
Answer:

Local Time :

At any place when the sun is at its zenith (i.e. overhead) it is noon at that time and place. Thus at that place, it is 12 noon, and accordingly the time is calculated. This is local time of that place. The sun’s position changes according to the change in longitude. Thus the local time of all the places on the same longitude of the meridian willbe the same.

Standard time :

Standard time is an uniform time selected for all.places in a country without any regard to their local times. It is generally taken from the central meridian of that country. The local time of that particular meridian is made the standard time of the entire country. Standard time is taken in order to avoid a host of inconveniences that may occur if every town or village has its own local time.

Question 15. How can location of a place on the globe be determined?
Answer: With the help of parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude, the location of a place on the globe is determined. But for the exact location, both the parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude are necessary. Either of them cannot determine the exact location. For example, if we say that a place is situated at 30° North latitude. Now, on this latitude so many places are situated. In the same way if we say that place is on 100°E longitude. Again along this longitude many places are located. But when we say that the place is situated on 30° N latitudes and 100°E longitude, that is the intersecting point of a particular parallel of latitude and meridian of longitude, then the exact position of the place is found out. Thus, to locate the exact position of a place on the globe, the meeting point of a parallel of latitude and the meridian of longitude should be must.

Question 16. What is International Date Line? :
Answer:

International Date Line

The 180° meridian of longitude is regarded as the International Dateline. In the past the circumnavigators always felt the loss or gain of time while traveling around the world. Those travelling towards east always felt that they bad reached anead of their schedule, while thone travelling west felt that they reached their destination late.

If was by an International agreement in 1884, the 1800 meridian of longitude was Relected as the place where circumnavigators would adjost the time of their watches it one crosses this line (180°) from East to west; one day, i.e 24 hrs will be added and one day or 24 hrs will be deducted while crossing from West to East.

This 180° longitude is not drawn as a completely straight line, it turns wherever there is land mass.

Question 17. Define the following: Great circle, Equator, Meridian, Prime meridian.
Answer:

Great circle

A great circle is any circle on the earth’s surface whose centre is the earth’s centre.

Equator

The equator is a great circle midway between the north and south poles.

Meridian

Meridian means ‘mid-day’ The lines of longitude are called meridians as mid- day occurs at the same time at all placer located on the meridian.

Prime meridian

The (0°) meridian which passes through Greenwich, England, is called the prime meridian.

Question 18. How is the time calculated in hours, minutes, and seconds?
Answer:

We specify exact time in the following manner :

(1) It takes 24 hours to make a complete rotation or 360°.
∴In 1 hour the earth rotates 360 ÷ 24 = 15°

(2). 15° longitudinal difference        = 1 hour or 60 minutes
∴ 1° longitude difference                = 20/15 = 4 minutes

(3) : .. 1° or 60° longitudinal difference
= 4 minutes or 4 x 60 = 240 seconds

∴ 1  longitudinal difference          =264/60 on 4 seconds ”

Question 19. What are the Standard Meridians of Pakistan, India and Bangladesh?
Answer: Pakistan = 75°E, India = 82 1/2° E, Bangladesh = 90°E.

Question 20. What are the uses of parallels of latitude?
Answer:

Uses of Parallels :

(1) A place on the earth’s surface cannot be determined only by parallels, it indicates its location either north of the equator or south of it.

(2)The parallel of latitude together with the meridian of longitude yield the exact position of a place.

(3) They enable us to know the distance of a place from the equator and from one latitude to another and they can be used to determine the scale of a map.

(4) They help us to guess what type of climate would prevail in a particular place.

(5)They also give us an idea about the type of natural vegetation in a particular place.

Question 21. What necessitates the International Dateline?
Answer:

Necessitates the International Dateline

International Date Line, generally follows 180° east and west longitude line. It is so located that it is halfway around the world from the Greenwich or Prime Meridian. A peculiar position arises at the meridian 180° east and west.

This meridian is reckoned both as 180°E and 180°W. if the time at any place on the Greenwich Meridian is 8 a.m. on Monday, then calculating eastwards the time at 180°E will be 8 p.m. on Monday, and calculating westward the time at 180°W will be 8 p.m on Sunday.

This means that a man standing west of 180° meridian records his time as Monday, 8 p.m., while his friend standing east of 180° meridian claims Sunday, 8 p.m. Such confusion of one day must be corrected.

Iit was at the initiative of W.M Davis, the 180° meridian was adopted as the International Dateline in 1884 at as International conference. When a man crosses the International Date Line going east, he has to turn his calendar a full day Peak, and going west over tHe State Line, he moves the calendar one day forward.

Thus traveling west from Alaska to Siberia it is 8 p.m. Monday at the International Date Line but it will be 8 p.m. Sunday at the International Date Line when we travel from Siberia to Alaska. In order to avoid dividing nations or islands into two different days the International Date Line is made somewhat irregular.

Question 22. Differentiate between Longitude & Meridians of Longitude.
Answer:

Difference between Longitude & Meridians of Longitude

Longitude	Meridians of Longitude
(1)    It is the angular distance on the earth.	(1)    It is the linear distance.
(2)    This is the point of location.	(2)    This is the imaginary lines joining all the points on the longitude.
(3)    This is just a point.	(3)    This is a semi-circle.
(4)    A longitude bisects only one latitude.	(4)    There are total 1st latitude bisected by the meridians of longitude.

Question 23. What are latitudes? What are the characteristics of Latitude?
Answer:

Latitudes:

Latitudes are angular distance lines running in an east-west direction to the north and south of the equator.

Characteristics of latitudes :

(1) All latitudes are whole circles and are parallel to each other
(2) All latitudes are not equal in length and
(3) Latitudes become gradually smaller from the equator to the poles and at the poles, the latitude is only a dot.

Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface 5 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. What is the necessity of determination of the location of a place on the earth’s surface?
Answer:

(1) To know the Concept of Climate :
With the latitudinal location of a place, one can easily derive an idea of the climatic types of the place. For example, if the place is at higher latitude is 60-90°N/S then the place must be in a colder region. Similarly, In the lower latitudes i.e., between 0°-30° N/S the climate is hot summer type.

(2) Concept of time from location :
Time can be early identified by the location of a place. From the longitude, we can find whether the place is in the right or in the left. Eastward location of a place implies its local time advanced and westward location implies its local time behind.

WBBSE Class 9th Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer

(3) For navigation :
For air and water transport it is easier to reach the exact destination by knowing the accurate location of the place.

(4) Throwing missiles etc :
Pointing out and hitting the object in case of war the exact location of the place must be focussed.

(5) Business transaction :
The perfect location of the place helps in business transactions.

(6) Reading Atlas :
If we know the latitude and longitude of a place it becomes easier to find out the location of a place in the Atlas.

(7) To locate the hemisphere :
Location of a place to helps us to generate an idea about the hemisphere. Where the place is located.

(8) Sunset and Sunrise :
Exact location of the place helps us to generate an idea about the timing of sunrise and sunset.

(9) Season length of day and night :
It is easier to develop the idea of season the length of day and night if we know the exact location.

(10) Reading globe :
To study the globe perfect location help us to mark the area.

Question 2. Give an account of some important parallels of latitude.
Answer:

Important parallels of latitude

Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn, Arctic Circle, Antarctic Circle, Norht Pole and South Pole are the important parallels of latitude. Parallels of latitude are all circles. The Equator forms the great circle and all other circles are small.

(1)Equator (0°) :

Equator is an imaginary great circle, 40,077 km round. Its plane is called Equatorial Plane. Equatorial Plane is at right angles to the earth’s axis of rotation. All points on it are by definition at latitude 0° and equidistant form North Pole as well as from South Pole. Equator divides the earth’s surface into the Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere since it is a great circle. Equator is called a great circle because it has the following characteristics :
(1) Its plane passes through the centre of the earth. Circles whose planes do not through the centre of the earth are called small circles.
(2) The Equator is the circumference of the earth. A smail circle is not the circumference of the earth.
(3) The centre of the Equator coincides withthe centre of the Earth.
(4) Equator cuts the earth in halfi.e. in the northern hemisphere and in the southern hemisphere. Every great circle cuts the earth in half and vice-versa. At all places on the Equator, the Sun remains approximately overhead twice a year, once at March Equinox and the other at September Equinox and the Sun of mid-day is never more than 23 4 * from the vertical. It is quite natural that places on or near the Equator are very hot unless they are at high altitudes.

(2)Tropic of Cancer (23 4° N) :

At June solstice occuring on June 21 the subsolar point lies on the tropic of cancer (latitude 234°N). The Tropic of Cancer is the northern extreme parallel of latitude reached by the vertical rays of the Sun.

(3)Tropic of Capricorn (23 4° S):

At December solstice occurring of December 22, the subsolar point lies on the Tropic of Capricorn (latitude 23 4°S.). The Tropic of Capricorn is the southern extreme parallel of latitude reached by the vertical rays of the Sun.

(4)Arctic Circle (664° N) :

At June solstice occurring on June 21 the circle of illumination (or shadow circle) forms tangent to both the Arctic Circles (latitude 66% N) and Antarctic Circle (latitude 66 °S.) having 24 hours sunlight in the entire area inside the Antarctic Circle.

WBBSE Class 9th Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer

(5)North Pole (90°N) :

The North Pole is the smallest parallel of latitude in the northern hemisphere. It is in the form of a point. The shadow circle formed on both the Equinoxes i.e., March and September Equinoxes touch the North Pole.

(6)South Pole (90°S) :

The South Pole is the smallest parallel of latitude in the southern hemisphere. It is in the form of a point. The shadow circle formed on both the Equinoxes i.e., March Equinox and September Equinox touches the South Pole.

Question 3. What are the features of parallels of latitude.
Answer:

Features of Parallels of Latitude :

(1) All places on a parallel of latitude in either hemisphere have similar latitude. Although we say Calcutta is at 22°34 north of Equator, there are, however, infinite number of points that are 22°34″ north of the Equator.
(2) Parallels are always parallel to one another.
(3) Parallels except North Pole and South Pole are circular lines.
(4) All parallels except the equator are small circles. Those small circles are getting smaller as they approach both the poles. In fact, at both the a small circles are reduced into points.
(5) As the latitude increases, the circumference of the parallel Becreascl
(6) There cannot be two or more equal parallels in the northern hemisphere or southern hemisphere.
(7) Parallels of two hemispheres may be equal in degree, minute or second.
(8) The linear distance between two parallels of 1° difference is not identical always.
(9) Different places on a parallel are situated east or west of one another.
(10) All places on a parallel do not find sunrise, noon or sunset at a time.
(11) Parallels represent east-west lines.
(12) Every point on the earth, except the North Pole or South Pole, lies on a parallel.
(13) All parallels except North Pole and South Pole intersect Tiere at right angles.
(14) A large number of parallels may by drawn on the earth’s surface.

Ch 3 Geography Class 9 WBBSE

 

 

Question 4. What do you mean by antisocial? Give its features.
Answer:

Definition Of antisocial: Antipodes are two places on the earth’s surface that are diametrically opposite to one another, in such manner that a straight line joining them passes through the centre of the earth.

Features of Antipodes :

(1) The latitudes of antipodes are always equal [in degree (°) minute (‘), second (“)] and opposite [one north; the other south] hemispheres.

(2) The longitudes of antipodes add up to 180°, one being east, the other west generally. The longitude of Calcutta is 88°24’E. So longitude of its antipodes is 91°36′ W. Because 88°24′ west of Calcutta lies prime meridian (0°) and 91°36’ west of Prime Meridian (0°) will be the antipodes of Calcutta. The difference of longitude between an place and its antipodes will always be 180°.

(3) In case of antipodes,midnight at one place will occur simultaneously with midday at the other or vice versa.

(4) Antipodes of any piace on the equator lie on the equator.

(5) The latitudes of a place and of its antipodes (except on the equator) generally interchange their positions in two hemispheres, north and south. For example, the latitude of Calcutta is 22°34’N. So its antipodes will lie on 22°34’S.

Ch 3 Geography Class 9 WBBSE

(6) Antipodes of any place of the Prime Meridian will lie on 180° longitude or vice versa.

(7) Antipodes of a meridian always lie on its antimeridian Obviously the difference of time between a place and its antipodes will always be 12 hours.

Question 5. If the local time at Haldia (80°E) is 11 a.m. what is the time at its antipode?
Answer:

Local time at

Halidia 11 a.m. i.e                   11 hours

Plus                                         12 hours

∴ Local time at the antipode of Haldia 23 hours i.e. 11 p.m. on the same day. 11 p.m. on the same day.

Question 6. Define Meridian of longitude. What are its features?
Answer:

Definition of Meridian of Longitude: The semi-circular line drawn on a map to link all points on the earth’s surface with the same angular distance east or west of the Prime Meridian is defined as Meridian of Longitude.

Ch 3 Geography Class 9 WBBSE

Features of Meridians of Longitude :

Meridians of Longitude are halves of great circles, whose ends coincide with the earth’s north and south poles. Although
a meridian and its antimeridian together comprise a complete great circle, a single meridian is only half of a great circle and contains 180° of arc.

Additional features of meridians of longitude are as follows :

(1) All meridians run in a true north-south direction.
(2) An infinite number of meridians may be drawn on a globe. Thus a meridian exists for any point chosen on the globe. For
representation on maps and globes, however, chosen, meridians are spaced at equal distances apart.
(3) All the meridians are equal in length, but not parallel to one another.
(4) The linear distance between two meridians is not uniform
everywhere. It shortens with increasing distance from the equator ranging from 111 kilometers at the equator to nil at the poles per degree.
(5) All places on the same meridian are either at the north or the south of one another
(6) All places on the same meridians have sunrise, noon or sunset at the same time.
(7) All places on the same meridian have the same local time: In the matter of calculation of time, the meridian of longitude plays a significant role.
(8) Each meridian cuts the equator at right angle.

Class 9 Ch 3 Geography WBBSE

Question 7. How you can measure the latitude of Kolkata on Earth?
Answer:

The latitude of a place indicates the angular distance north or south of the Equator. The point that stands for Kolkata on the earth’s surface may be either north or south of the Equator. in order to determine the extent of its northward or southward placement that Calcutta point is connected with the (center) of the earth by an imaginary straight line is drawn from the point of intersection between meridian of the longitude of kolkata and the Equator.

These two imaginary lines (in fact two radii) form an ole angle at the centre of the earth. Such an angle measured in degrees, minutes and seconds is called Latitude. The measurement of such an angle for Kolkata is 22°34’. As kokata stands north of the Equator, the latitude of kolkata is called 22°34’N

An instrument known as Sextant invented by John Hadley is used to determine the latitude of a place. This instrument measures the angle between the horizon and a celestial body such as at daytime noonday sur or at night the North Star (Polaris) in Northern hemisphere and the Hadley’s Octant in Southern Hemisphere.

However, no matter how accurately we pinpoint the latitude of a place like Calcutta, we have given only half the story. For we have only described the location of Calcutta as being 22°34’ north of the Equator. There are, however, an infinite number of points that are 22°34’ north of the Equator.

Class 9 Ch 3 Geography WBBSE

Question 8. Explain the heat zones of the Earth.
Answer:

Heat zones of the Earth

The sun rays fall vertically on the lower latitudes and the Sun never goes overhead beyond23 (½)°N latitude (Tropic of Cancer) and 23 (½)°S (Tropic of Capricorn). So, in between the two Tropics, the temperature remains high throughout the year. This area between the two tropics is known as the Torrid zone of the Earth

The region between the Tropic of Cancer [ 23(½)°N]  and the Arctic Circle (66(½)°N] in the Northern Hemisphere and that between the Tropic of Capricorn [ 23(½)°S] and the Antarctic Circle [ 66(½)°S] receive the oblique rays of the Sun. These two regions on either hemisphere have moderate temperatures and are known as the Temperate zones of the Earth.

The region between Arctic Circle (66(½)°N]   and the North Pole (90°N) and that between the Antarctic Circle [ 66(½)°S] and the South Pole receive tangential rays of the Sun. These two regions have extremely low temperature and are known asthe Frigid zones of the Earth

The parallels of latitudes; therefore, divide the Earth into different temperature belts or heat zones. Thus we get an idea about the climate of any place lying within these zones.

 

Question 9. Give a comparison between parallels of latitude & meridians of longitude.
Answer:

Comparison between Parallels of Latitude and Meridians of Longitude :

Parallels of Latitude_	_Meridians of Longitude_
1.    The imaginary lines drawn by joining places having the same latitude are called Parallels of latitude.	1.    The imaginary lines drawn by joining places having the same longitude are called Meridian of Longitude.
2.    Latitudes encircle the earth in east-west lines.	2.    Longitudes extend in a north-south direction on the earth.
3.    Each latitude forms a whole circle and they. But each latitude has different lengths.	3.    Each of them form half-circles but all of them have the same length.
4.    The latitudes are nearly equidistant from each other. The earth being an oblate spheroid this distance is more near the polar region than at the equator.	4.    The longitudes are not at equidistance everywhere, as the intervening distance decreases from the equator to the poles where they merge to a point.
5.    Except the two poles all other latitudes are whole circles each forming an angle of360°.	5.    Every longitude forms a half-circle, thus each forms an angle of 180°.
6.    Because oftheearth’sshapeonlythe equator forms a Great Circle and not the other latitudes. From either side of the equator the length of the latitude gradually diminish towards the poles.	6.    Every longitude forms a great circle with the longitude on the opposite side of the earth. But each longitude is independent or has a certain value so no longitude can be said to be a whole circle or a Great Circle. They are half circles.
7.    The latitudes are measured from the Equator.	7.    The longitudes are measured from the Prime Meridian.
8.    Latitudes are measured form 0°( Equator) to 90° N and S (North and South Pole).	8.    Longitudes are measured from 0°(Prime Meridian) to 180°E and 180°W longitudes.
9.    With latitudes one get an idea about how for a place is located to the north or south of the equator.	9.    In this way it can be understood how far a place is located to the east or west of the Prime Meridian.
10. Except the equator all parallels of latitude have their center on the earth’s axis, the equator and the of the earth are the same.	10.    The center of all longitudes is the same as the center of the earth.
11.    The length of all parallels of latitude gradually lessens from the equator to the poles.	11.    All longitudes have the same length.
12.    The latitudes are divided into North Latitudes and South Latitudes.	12.    Longitudes are divided into East Longitudes and West Longitudes.
13.    In the same parallel of latitude sunrise, noon and sunset occurs at the different times at all places.	13.    In the same meridian of longitude at all places sunrise, noon and sunset occur at the same time.
14.    In the same latitude at different regions the local time is different. Thus in determining the local time latitudes have no role to play.	14.    The same meridian has the same local time at all regions along it. Thus longitudes determine the local time of place.
15.    The same latitude has very little different places along the latitude.	15.    The same longitude has great differences in climate at variable places along the longitude.

 

Class 9 Ch 3 Geography WBBSE

Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface 5 Marks Questions And Answers [Numricals]

Question 1. Calculate the longitude of the position of a ship whose captain observes that it is 7:30 p.m. in the chronometer when the local time in mid-ocean is 1:00 p.m.
Answer:

The difference between the two places is 7.30 p.m. — 1.00 p.m
= 6 hrs. 30 mints. = 390 minutes.
∴ 4 mins. time difference causes the difference of 1° longitude
∴ 390 mins……………………………………………………………..390 ÷ 4
=97°30′      [∴ 1°=60′. ∴ (2/4)°=30°]
We know the time of the place is behind that of Greenwich, the place is 97°30′ West of Greenwich.
∴the longitude of the place = 0° — 97°30′ = 97°30′ W. Answer:

Question 2. An e-mail was sent from Sydney (151°30’E) to Allahabad (82°30’E) on Saturday, the 1st March 2008 at 4 a.m. Find out the time, day, and date of its arrival an Allahabad. op Allahabad

 

 

Answer:

The longitudinal difference between Sydney and Allahabad is 151°30” E — 82°30’E = 69°.
We know,  1° longitudinal difference makes a time difference of 4 minutes
∴                  69°       ”            ”         ”           ”              ”          ”         4x 69 = 276 mins
= 4 hrs 36 mins.
As Allahabad is in the West of Sydney, 4 hrs. 36 mins. should be subtracted from the time of Sydney (West-lose-Subtract). Therefore, local time, day, and date of the arrival of e-mail at Allahabad = the Saturday, the ist March 2008 at 4 a.m. — 4 hrs 36 mins = the Friday, the 29th February 2008, 11: 24 p.m

 

Question 3. The news broadcasted at 8-00 a.m. from Greenwich was heard in a place at 2.30 p.m. What would be the longitude of that place?

 

 

Answer: The difference in time between the two places is 2.30 p.m. — 8.00 a.m.
= 6 hrs. 30 min. = 390 minutes.
∴4 minutes time difference causes the difference of 1° longitude
∴ 390°    ”         ”        ”            ”       ”         ”     ”       “390 ÷ 4 =97°30′
We know, the time of the place is ahead than that of Greenwich.
∴The place is 97°30° East of Greenwich.
∴The longitude of the place is 0° + 97.30 = 97°30′ E.

Question 4. When the local time at Kolkata (88°30’E /22°30’N) was 10.00 am. on Sunday, 1st January 2006, then what would be the local time, day and date of its antipode?
Answer:

Kolkata is 88°30′ E and the longitude of its antipode will be = 180° — 88°30′ = 91°30’W

∴The longitudinal difference between the two places= 88°30′ + 91°30′ = 180°
We know that, 1° longitudinal difference makes a time difference of 4 minutes
∴180°         ”         ”          ”          ”    =180×4
= 720mins
= 720+ 60 = 12 hrs.
∴The time of the antipodal place of Kolkata will be behind as it is in the West.
Hence time =10-12
= (10+ 12)-12
=10PM
Day = Saturday, and
Date = 31st Dec. 2005

Question 5. The longitudes of P and Q are 100°E and 80°W respectively. Find out the local time of Q when it is 11 p.m. on Sunday at P.
Answer:

The longitudinal difference between P and Qis (100° + 80) = 180°
For1 longitudinal difference, the time difference is 4 minutes.
∴ For 180 longitudinal difference, the time difference is 4×180 minutes = 720 minutes = 12 hours.
Q is situated to the West of P. Therefore, the time of Q will be backward.
∴ When it is 11 P.M. on Sunday at P then the time at Q will be (11 PM Sunday – 12 hours.)=11A.M. Sunday.
The time of Q will be 11 A. Mon the same day i.e., Sunday.

Question 6. A time alarm has been sent from Greenwich to X at 12 noon and the receiving end i.e. X got the alarm at 4.28 p.m. of the local time of X. The alarm took only 2 minutes to reach the destination. Determine the longitude of X.
Answer:

An alarm has been sent from Greenwich at 12 noon to X. The alarm took 2 minutes to reach X. The alarm reach X at 4.28 P.M. of its local time. Thus the actual time difference between Greenwich and X is {(4.28 P.M. — 2 m) – 12 noon}
= (4.26 P.M. – 12 noon) = 4 hour 26 minutes time difference,
∴For every 4′ time different the longitudinal difference is 1°
∴For every 1 minutes time difference, the longitudinal difference is (¼)°
∴For every 266 minutes time difference the longitudinal difference
¼ x 266 = 66(½)°= 66°30.
As the time of X is ahead of Greenwich, the location of X will be at (0° + 66°30) = 66°30′ E.

Question 7. What would be the local time at New York (75°W) and Mumbai (73°E) when it is noon at Greenwich?
Answer:

75° W	0°	73° E
(New York)	(Greenwich)	(Mumbai)
Time?	12 noon	Time?

 

The longitudinal difference between Greenwich and New York is (75°- 0°) = 75°
For 1° longitudinal difference, the time difference is 4 minutes.
∴ 75° longitudinal difference, the time difference 4×75 = 300 min. = 5 hours.
As New York is to the West of Greenwich, so the time of New York will be behind that of Greenwich. When it is 12 noon at 0° (Greenwich), the time of New York will be (12 noon – 5 hrs.) = 7.00 A.M. the same day.
The longitudinal difference between Greenwich and Mumbai is (73°-0°)=73°
For 1° longitudinal difference, the time difference is 4 min.
∴73° longitudinal difference, the time difference 4 x 73
= 292 min.
= 4 hrs. 52 min.
As Mumbai is situated to the East of Greenwich, the time of Mumbai will be ahead of Greenwich. When it is 12 noon at 0° (Greenwich), then the time of Mumbai will be (12 noon +4 hours 52 min.) = 4.52 P.M. the same day.

Question 8. When it is 3 p.m. in Kolkata, it is 10.40 a.m. at X. The longitude of Kolkata is 88°30′ E. What is the longitude of X?
Answer:

The time difference between Kolkata and X is (3 P.M.—10: 40 A.M) =4 hrs. 20 min. = 260 min.
∴For 4 minutes time difference, the longitudinal difference is 1°
∴ 1         ”            ”                ”              ”     (¼)°
∴260       ”            ”               ”               ”   =¼ × 260 =65°
As the time of X is behind of Kolkata, so X will be situated to the West of Kolkata.
The longitude of X will be (88° 30′ E – 65°) = 23° 30’E.

Question 9. If the inaugural ceremony of Olympic games at Athens (24°E) commences at 8.30 p.m., when will it be live telecast at Allahabad (82°30’E)?
Answer:

Difference in longitude of the two places = 82°30’— 24° = 58°30’
1° longitudinal difference makes a time difference of 4 minutes
∴ 58°      ”          ”           ”         ”              ”        = 58 x 4 minutes = 232 minutes
Again 1′ longitudinal diffenrence makes a time difference of 4 seonds

∴ 30′       ”                ”                ”                  ”     30 x 4 seonds
= 120 seconds or 2 minutes
Total time = 232 minutes + minutes = 234 minutes or 3 hours 54 minutes. Since, Allahabad is situated to the East of Athens, so time of Allahabad will be forward.
∴ required time = 8.30 + 3 hrs. 54 mins. = 12.24 hrs. = 00:24 A.M.

Question 10. A special radio news bulletin was broadcast at 12 noon from New York (74°W) and it was heard at 8 O’ clock at night in a place. What would be the longitude of that place ?
Answer:

The difference of time between New York and other place is 8 hours or 480 minutes.
∴4 minutes difference occurs in 1° longitude.
∴480 minutes difference will occur in 480 ÷ 4 longitude = 120°
As the time of the place is ahead than that of New York, hence the place is situated East of New York and in Eastern hemisphere.
∴The longitude of the place is 120° — 74° = 46°E.

Question 11. If a cricket match is started at 10.00 a.m. at London (0°) at what Indian Standard Time (I.S.T.) it will be telecast in India ?
Answer:

Difference in longitude of the two places = 82 ½°= 165/2°
∴To cross 1° longitude 4 minutes is required
∴ ,,    ,,    ,,   ,,      165/2° ,,     ,,   ,,     ,,   165/2×4=330’minutes=5 hrs. 30 minutes.
India is situated to the east of London, so required Indian standard time will be forward.
∴required time = 10+5 hrs.30 minutes
= 15 hrs.30 minutes.
= 3 hrs. 30 minutes or 3:30 P.M.

Question 12. A hockey match held at Sydney (151°30’ East) Olympic at 6 P.M. was telecast directly when was it visible at Calcutta (88°30’ East) ?
Answer:

Longitudinal difference between Sydney and Calcutta is 151°30’ — 88°30’ = 63°
For 1° longitudinal difference, time difference is 4 minutes.
For 63°”         ”         ”          ”           ”         4×63 = 252 minutes.
Total time difference between Sydney, and calcutta  = 4hrs 12 minutes.
Since, Calcutta is located to the West of Sydney, therefore, its time will be behind by 4hrs. 12 minutes.
The time, when the match will be visible in India = 6 A.M.—4 hrs 12 minutes = 1.48 A.M.

Question 13. Local time of the two places “A” and “B”‘ are 6.a.m.and6 p.m. respectively, when it is 12 noon at Greenwich. Find out the longitude of the above two places “A” and “B” (mention East or West).
Answer:

The time difference between Greenwich and place “A” and “B” is (6 a.m. to 12.00 noon and 12.00 to 6 p.m.) or 6 hours or 360 minutes.
4 minutes time difference is for 1° longitude.
360 minutes time difference is for (360 ÷ 4) = 90°
So, the longitudinal difference between Greenwich and the place “A” and”B” is 90°.
We know Greenwich lies on 0° longitude.
As the time of place “A” is behind that of Greenwich therefore it must lie to the West of Greenwich.
So, the longitude of the place “A” is 90° West. Similarly as the time of place ‘B’ is ahead of Greenwich therefore it must lie to the East of Greenwich. So, the longitude of the place “B” is 90° East. Longitude of place “A” and “B” are 90° W and 90° E.

Question 14. 99, A telegram was sent from Washington (77° W) to Allahabad (82°30′ E) on 31st December 1998 at 8.30 P.M. It took 15 minutes to reach Allahabad. Find out the exact time and date of its arrival there.
Answer:

Longitudinal difference between Washington and Allahabad is 77° + 82°30f= 159°30′
For 1° longitudinal difference, time difference is 4 minutes

∴ 159°  ………………………………………………    4×159 minutes
=  636 minutes
= 10 hrs. 36 minutes
Again for 1’ longitudinal Siocneaat time difference is 4 cerns
∴ 30′ ……………………………………………………    4×30 seconds
=  120 seconds
=  2 minutes
∴Total time difference between Washington and Allahabad is 10 hrs. 36 mins. +2 mins. = 10 hrs 38 mins.
∴When it was 20:30 hrs. on 31st December, 1998 at Washington then the local time of Allahabad would be more (as it is located to the East).
i.e., 20:30 + 10 hrs. 38 mins. = 31:08
∴31:08 — 24.00 (31st Dec, 1998)
= 7:08 A.M. ist January, 1999.
As the telegram took 15 minutes to reach Allahabad, so the telegram actually reached Allahabad at 7:08 + 0:15 = 7:23 A.M. on 1st January 1999.

Question 15. A hockey match held at Atlanta (85°W) Olympic at 6 a.m. was telecast directly. When it was visible at Calcutta (88°30’E) ? [M.E.’97]
Answer:

The longitudinal difference between Atlanta and Calcutta = 85°+ 88°30′ =173°30)
For 1° longitudinal difference, time difference is 4 minutes.
∴ 173°         ”          ”         ”          ”       ”       “173 x 4 minutes = 692 minutes
Again for 1′ longitudinal difference, time difference is 4 seconds
∴   30′  ”        ”           ”             ”      ” 30 x 4 seconds
= 120 seconds or 2 minutes
Total time 692 minutes + 2 minutes = 694 minutes or 11 hrs 34 minutes.
As Calcutta is situated East of Atlanta (where it is 6 a.m.), the time of Calcutta will be ahead of Atlanta by 11 hrs. 34 minutes.
Therefore, the time of Calcutta
=6a.m.+ 11 hrs. 34 minutes
= 17 hrs. 34 minutes or 5.34 p.m.
Thus, the telecast will be visible at Calcutta at 5.34 p.m.

Question 16. 96, When it is 6.30 a.m. in Madras, the time in New York is 8.13 p.m. in the previous evening. The longitude of Madras is 80°15′ East. What is the longitude of New York ?
Answer: As time of New York is 8.13 p.m. of the previous day, it is clear, it is situated West of Madras.

The difference of time between Madras and New York
= 6 hrs. 30 minutes + 3 hrs. 47 minutes (12 — 8 hrs. 13 m.)
= 10 hrs. 17 minutes = 617 minutes
The difference of 4 minutes occur in 1° of longitude.
Therefore, the difference of 617 minutes will be in (*7/,)° = 154° 15′
The longitude of Madras is 80° 15’E
The longitude of New York = 154°15′ — 80° 15′ = 74° W

Question 17. If it is 122 noon at Greenwich what is the local time at Calcutta (88°30’E)?
Answer:

We already know that the longitude of Greenwich is 0°
∴the difference in longitudes between Calcutta and Greenwich is 88°30′ — 0 = 88°30′
∴the time difference between Calcutta and Greenwich will be—
1° longitude difference causes a time difference of 4 minutes
∴for 88°”          ” the difference will be 88 x 4 minutes 352 minutes
Again 1′”           ” has a time difference of 4 seconds
∴30. ”                ” has a time difference of 30′ x 4 sec. = 120 sec. or 2 miunutes
∴the time difference between Calcutta and Greenwhich is (352 + 2 minutes = 354 minutes ÷ 60 minutes) 5 hours 54 minutes.
Since Calcutta lies to the east of Greenwich the time will be ahead compared to Greenwich time. So when it is noon at Greenwich the local time of Calcutta will be (12 noon ÷ 5 hours 54 minutes) 5-54 PM.

Question 18. When the 1.5.7. is 12 noon what is the G.M,T, ? (Central Meridian of
India 82°30′ E*).
Answer:

 

We already know that the standard meridian of India is 82°30′ E and Greenwich’s is O°.
∴the difference in the standard meridian of India and the longitude of Greenwich is 82°30’— 0 = 82°30′
∴ the time difference between them will be —
1° difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 minutes
∴for 82°”        ”     ”  the time difference is 82° x 4 minutes = 328 minutes or 5 hours 28 minutes
Again 1′         ”      ”   longitude has a time difference of 4 seconds
∴30′          ”    ”      ”   has atime difference of 30′ x 4 seconds = 120 seconds or, 2 minutes
Therefore their time difference is (5 hours 28 minutes +2 minutes) 5 hours minutes.
Since Greenwich is located to the west of India their time will be behind or less than that of India.
∴when the 1.S.T. is 12 noon the G.M.1T. is (12 noon÷5 hours 30 minutes) 6-30 AM.

Question 19. The longitudes of Calcutta and Seol are 88°30′ E and 127°06′ E respectively. When the local time in Calcutta is 12 noon what is the local time at Seoul.
Answer:

We know, the longitude of Calcutta is 88°30′ E and the longitude of Seoul is 127°06’E∴ their difference in longitude is 127°06′ — 88°30′ = 38°36′
∴their time difference will be—
1° difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 minutes
∴for 38°”       ”           ”      the time difference will be 38 x 4 minutes = 152 minutes or, 2 hours 32 minutes
Again 1′ difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 seconds
∴ for 36′ difference in longitude the time difference will be 36 x 4 = 144 secs.
=2 min. 24sec.
∴the time difference between Seoul and Calcutta is (2 hours 32 minutes + 2 minutes 24 seconds) 2 hours . 34 minutes 24 seconds.
As Seoul lies to the east of Calcutta is 12 noon the local time in Seoul is (12 noon ÷2 hours 34 minutes 24 seconds) 2.34.24 PM.

Question 20. When it is 12 noon by Chronometer what will be the Standard Time of India?
Answer: The Chronometer watch runs according to Greenwich Mean Time so by Chronometer when it is 12 noon, G.M.T. is also 12 noon.

On the other hand, we also know the Standard Meridian of India is 82°30′ E. Therefore the difference in longitude between India and Greenwich is (82°30′ — 0) = 82°30′.
∴ the time difference for 82°30′ is —
1° difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 minutes
∴82° difference in longitude has a time difference of = 82° x 4 minutes = 328 minutes or 5 hours 28 minutes.
Again 1′ difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 secs.
∴30′ difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 sec.
30′ x 4 sec. = 120 seconds or 2 minutes
Therefore for 82°30! of longitudes, the time difference is (5 hours 28 minutes ÷ 2 minutes) 5 hours 30 minutes. or 5:30 P.M

 

Question 21. When G.M.1. (0°) is 6-00 AM, what is the local time in the capital of Egypt, (Cairo 31°15′ E)?
Answer:

Longitudinal difference between Greenwich and Cairo is 31°15’— 0° = 31°15′
∴their time cirference is—
1° of longitude takes 4 minutes to rotate
∴ 31° of longitude takes 31° x 4 minutes = 124 minutes or, 2 hours 4 minutes to rotate
Again to rotate 1′ of longitudes will taken is 4 seconds
∴15′ of longitudes will take 15′ x 4 seconds = 60 seconds. or, 2 hours 4 minutes to rotate.
Therefore the time difference between Greenwich and Cairo is (2 hours 4 minutes +1 minutes) 2 hours 5 minutes.
Since Cairo is located to the east of Greenwich the local time at Cairo will be (600 AM + 2 hours 5 minutes) 8-05 AM.

Question 22. A place located at 108°15’30’ W longitude has a local time of Wednesday 10-00 PM. Then what is the time at Greenwich ?
Answer:

Between Greenwich and the place located at 108°15’30” W the difference in longitude is 108°15’30” — 0° = 108° 15’30”.
1° difference in longitude has a 4 minute difference in time
∴108° difference in longitude has a time difference of 108° x 4 minutes = 432 minutes or 7 hours 12 minutes
Again 1′ difference in longitude has a 4 second difference in time
∴15′ difference in longitude has a time difference of 15′ x 4 sec = 60 sec. or 1 minute
Again 1′ or 60″ or difference in longitude has 4 sec difference in time 30×4
∴30″ difference in longitude has \(\left(\frac{30 \times 4}{60}\right)\)  = 2 sec difference in time.
Thus the difference in time of Greenwich and the place located on 108°15’30” Wis (7 hours 12 minutes + 1 minute + 2 seconds) = 7 hours 13 minutes 2 seconds.
Since the place at longitude 108°15’30” W is located to the west of Greenwich the time at Greenwich will be far ahead of the other place.
So when it is Wednesday 10-00 PM at a place on the longitude 108°15’30” W at Greenwich it will be (Wednesday 10-00 PM + 7 hour 13 minutes 2 seconds) 5-13-02 AM the next day i.e. Thursday.

Question 23. When at Greenwich it is 4-00 AM at 80° longitudes what will be the local times.
Answer:

The difference in longitude between Greenwich and 80° longitude is 80° For 80° difference in longitude, the difference in time will be 80° x 4 minutes = 320 minutes or5 hours 20 minutes.
The question does not state in which hemisphere 80° longitude lies, eastern or western.
(1) If the place is located at 80°E, then at Greenwich when it is 4-00 AM, at 80°E it will be more, so (4-00 AM +5 hours 20 minutes / or 9-20 AM.)
(2) If the place is located at 80°W then there the time will be behind Greenwich. At Greenwich when it is 4-00 AM at 80°W it will be (4-00 10-40 PM of the previous day.

Question 24. When in India (Allahabad 82°30’ E) it is 29th June 11.30 PM what will be the time and date in Mexico City (99°05′ W), the capital of Mexico?

Answer: Longitudinal difference between Allahabad and Mexico city is 82°30′ + 99°05′ = 181°35′. .°. their time difference will be—
1° difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 minutes
181° difference in longitude has a time difference of 181° x 4 minutes = 724 minutes or 12 hours 4 minutes.
Again, 1′ difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 seconds.
∴ 35′ difference in longitude has a time difference of 35′ x 4 seconds = 140 seconds = 2 minutes 20 seconds.
Therefore, the time difference of Allahabad and Mexico city is (12 hours 4 minutes + minutes 20 seconds) 12 hours 6 minutes 20 seconds.
As Mexico city is located to the west of Allahabad .”. their time will lie behind that of Allahabad.
∴When on 29th June the 1.5.7 is 11-30 PM at Mexico city it is (11-30 PM — 12 hours 6 minutes 20 seconds) 11-23-40 AM on 29th June.

Question 25. In 1998 World Football Competition (FIFA Cup) will take place in different towns of France. If the final match (between France—Brazil or Argentina—Germany) takes place in the capital, Paris (2°20’E) at 7-00 PM Friday, when can ve see it live on the Indian Television ?

 

Answer: We know the Standard Meridian of India is 82°30’ E.
∴the difference in longitudes is 82°30′ -2°20′ = 80°10′
The time difference for 80°10′ will be—
1° longitude takes to rotate 4 minutes
∴ 80° of longitudes take to rotate 80° x 4 minutes = 320 minutes or 5 hours 20 minutes.
Again 1′ longitude takes to rotate 4 seconds
∴ 10′ of longitudes take 10 x 4 = 40 seconds
So the time difference between India and Paris is (5 hours 20 minutes + 40 seconds) 5 hours 20 minutes 40 seconds.
Paris and India are located in the eastern hemisphere but India lies further east
∴ Their time will be ahead of Paris.
So in 1998 if the finals of the World Football Competition is held in Paris on Friday at 7-00 PM local time, In India it can be seen at 7-00 PM + 5 hours 20 minutes 40 second = next day i.e. Saturday at 00 hours 20 minutes 40 seconds or 00-20-40 AM.

Question 26. To the South-west of Baghdad, (44°30′ E) at 1-00 AM on 11th February 1991, 2 Scud Missiles were launched. They were launched from two unknown moving missile launching stations to the capital of Israel, Jerusalem (35°13′ E) and capital of Saudi Arabia, Riyadh (46°50′ E) Then what was the local time at Jerusalem and Riyadh.

Answer:

(1) Difference in longitudes between Baghdad and Jerusalem is (44°30′ — 35°13′)9°17′. ∴their time difference is—
1° longitude takes to rotate 4 minutes
∴ 9° longitude takes to rotate 9° x 4 minutes = 36 minutes
Again 1° longitude takes to rotate 4 seconds
∴ 17° longitude takes to rotate 17 x 4 = 68 seconds or 1 min 8 sec.
∴Tthe time difference between Baghdad and Jerusalem is (36 min + 1 min 8 sec) 37 min 8 sec
As Jerusalem is located further west their time will be behind Baghbad, or less.
So when it is 1-00 AM local time at Baghdad when the Scud missiles were launched, at Jerusalem the local time was (1-00 AM — 37 Min 8 secs) 00-22-52 HRS or 12.22.52 A.M.

(2) The difference in longitude between Baghdad and Riyadh is (46°50′ — 44°30′) 2°20′. Therefore their time difference is—
   1° difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 minutes
∴ 2° difference in longitudes has a time difference 2° x 4 minutes = 8 minutes
Again 1′ in longitudinal has a time difference of 4 seconds
∴ 20′ in longitudinal has a time difference of 20′ x 4 seconds = 80 seconds or 1 minute 20 seconds
∴ The time difference between Baghdad and Riyadh is (8 min + 1 min 20 sec) 9 min 20 sec.
Since Riyadh is located further east of Baghdad
∴ The time at Riyadh will be ahead of Baghdad
So at 1.00 AM local time when the Scud missiles were launched from Baghdad at Riyadh the local time was (1-00 AM + 9 min 20 sec) 01-09-20 AM.

Question 27. India launched a space vehicle from Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh, to land at Mars in the year 2008 on 1st March at 10-00 AM 1.S.T. What will be the time and date then at Washington DC (74°04′ W), capital of U.S.A. ?

Answer: We know the Standard Meridian of India is 82°30′ E.
∴ The difference in longitudes between India and Washington is 74°04′ + 82°30′ = 156°34′. Their time difference will be—
1° difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 minutes
∴ 156° difference in longitude has a time difference of 156° x 4 = 624 min or 10 hours 24 minutes.
Again 1′ difference in longitude has a time difference of 4 seconds
∴ 34′ difference in longitude has a time of 34′ x 4 sec = 136 sec or 2 minutes 16 sec.
∴ 154°34′ difference in longitude has of (10 hrs 24 min + 2 min 16 sec) = 10 hrs 26 min 16 sec.
As Washington is located to the west of India’s central meridian, .’. their time will lie behind the time of India.
Thus in the year 2008 on ist March when a space vehicle is to land in Mars, in Washington D.C. the local time will be— 10-00 AM — 10 hours 26 min 16 seconds = the day before 11-33-44 PM.
As 2008 is a leap year the day before 1st March 2008, will be 29th February 11-33-44 PM 2008.

Class 9 Geography Solution WBBSE

Question 28. When it is 6-30 AM in Chennai (80°15′ E), it is 8-15 PM the day before at New York. What is the longitude of New York.

Answer: If the local time at Chennai is 6-30 AM and at New York it is 8-15 PM, of the previous day.
Their time difference is (previous day 8-15 PM—6-30 AM) 10 hours 15 minutes or 615 minutes.
4 minutes time is taken to rotate 1°
∴ 615 minutes time is taken to rotate \(\frac{615}{4}\) = 615 min ÷ 4′ = 153°45′
Thus the difference in longitude between Chennai and New is 153°45′
∴ The time at New York lies behind Chennai, it lies to the west of Chennai.
∴ The longitude of New York is (153°45′ — 80°15′) = 73°30’ W

Question 29. According to 4-30 PM G.M.T. if it is 12 noon at any place, what is the longitude of the place?

Answer: The time difference between G.MT. and the time of the other place is 12 noon — 4-30 = PM = 4 hours 30 minutes or 270 minutes.
If 4 minutes is taken to rotate 1° of longitude
∴ 270 minutes is taken to rotate 240 ÷ 4 = 67°30′
So their longitudinal difference is 67°30′
We know longitudinal difference is 0°.
Since the time of the other place is behind of G.M.T. So it lies to the west of Greenwich. So the longitude of the place is 0° — 67°30′ = 67°30′ W.

Class 9 Geography Solution WBBSE

Question 30. When it is 9-00 AM at Greenwich and 5-00 PM at another place, what is the longitude of that place?

Answer: The time difference between Greenwich and the other place is (9-00 AM —5 PM) 8 hours or 480 minutes.
If 4 minutes is taken to rotate 1° of longitude
480 minutes is taken to rotate 480 ÷ 4 = 120° of longitude
∴The difference in longitudes between Greenwich and the other place 120°.
As the longitude of Greenwich is 0° and the time of the other place lies ahead of G.M.T., ∴ its longitude is 120° E.

Question 31. The time difference between 2 places is 2 hours 15 minutes 40 seconds. The longitude of one place is 20°15’ E, so what is the longitude of the other place?

Answer: The time difference between the 2 places is 2 hours 15 minutes 40 seconds or 135 minutes 40 seconds
4 minutes is taken to rotate 1° of longitude
∴ 135 minutes is taken to rotate 135 ÷ 4 = 33°45′
Again 4 seconds is taken to rotate 1′ of longitude
∴ 40 seconds taken to rotate 40 = 4 = 10′ of longitude
Thus for 135 minutes 40 seconds the difference in longitudes (33°45′ + 10′) 33°55′
(1) If the time of the place is more than the time of the place whose longitude is known, the former place will lie to the east of the known longitude. .. its longitude will be (33°55′ — 20°15′) or 13°40′ W.
(2) If the time of the place is less than the time of the place whose longitude is known, then the former place will lie to the west of the place, whose longitude is known.So its longitude will be (33°55′ — 20°15′) or 13°40′ W.

Class 9 Geography Solution WBBSE

Question 32. At Karachi (67° E) a Pakistan-Srilanka cricket match started at 10-30 AM, The live telecast was heard in the capital of Srilanka, Colombo at 11-21-44 AM. What is the longitude of Colombo ?

Answer: The time difference between Karachi and Colombo is (11-21-44 AM — 10-30 AM) 51 minutes 44 seconds
4 minutes is taken for the earth to rotate 1° of longitude
∴ 51 minutes is taken for the earth to rotate 51 ÷ 4 =12°45′
Again 4 seconds is taken by the earth to rotate 1′ of longitude
∴ 44 seconds is taken by the earth to rotate 44 ÷ 4 =11′
So for a time difference of 51 minutes 44 seconds, the difference in longitude is (12°45 + 11′) 12°56′
As the time of Colombo is ahead of Karachi it lies to the east of Karachi.
∴ The longitude Colombo lies on is (67° + 12°56′) 79°56′ E

Question 33. A jumbo 747 airbus of Pan American Airways Corporation, was hijacked over the Atlantic Ocean while flying from New York to London. While being hijacked the pilot saw the local time was 5-30 PM and the G.M.T. was 6-30 PM. At which longitude was the airbus hijacked?

 

Answer: The time difference between that place and GMT is (6-30 PM — 5-30 PM) 1 hour or 60 minutes
4 minutes is taken by the earth to rotate 1° of longitude
∴ 60 minutes is taken by the earth to rotate 60 ÷ 4 = 15° longitude
Compared to Greenwich as the time is less in this place, it will lie to the west of Greenwich. At the time of hijack, the airbus was flying above 15° W longitude.

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography and Environment

• Chapter 1 Earth As A Planet
• Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation & Revolution
• Chapter 4 Geomorphic Processes And Land Forms Of The Earth
• Chapter 5 Weathering
• Chapter 6 Hazards And Disasters
• Chapter 7 Resources Of India
• Chapter 8 West Bengal
• Chapter 9 Map & Scale

 

Chapter 9 Map And Scale Multiple Choice Questions With Answers:

Question 1. 1: 4,00,000,000 — example of which scale?
(1) Statement
(2) R.F
(3) Linear scale
(4) None

Answer: (2) R.F

Question 2. In a map —
(1) Use of scale is not essential
(2) Use of scale is insignificant
(3) Use of scale is a must
(4) Use of scale is not necessary

Answer: (c) Use of scale is a must

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography and Environment

Question 3. For the preparation of map, an arrow sign is used to indicate north line the purpose is —
(1) To determine the height of map
(2) To indicate summit of map
(3) To indicate direction of map or North direction.
(4) None of these

Answer: (3) To indicate direction of map or North direction

Question 4. If there is no scale in map —
(1) It is surely signify a map
(2) It is not a map but a sketch map
(3) It part of whole of the map
(4) It will be nullified

Answer: (2) It is not a map but a sketch map

Question 5. An example of a large-scale map is —
(1) Atlast
(2) Map of a country
(3) Mouza map
(4) Map a landscape

Answer: (3) Mouza map

Question 6. Example of a small-scale map is —
(1) Map of a country or continent
(2) Mouza map
(3) Map of a village
(4) Map of a Landscape

Answer: (1) Map of a country or continent

Question 7. “4 em to 400km”— example of what type of scale?
(1) Linear scale
(2) R.F
(3) Statement scale
(4) None

Answer: (3) Statement scale

Question 8. The conventional representation of Earth’s surface pattern of part of it, drawn on a sheet of paper is called :
(1) A globe
(2) A map
(3) A compass
(4) A painting

Answer: (2) A map

Question 9. The Latin word ‘Mappa’ means :
(1) A paper
(2) A pencil
(3) A sheet of cloth
(4) A book

Answer: (3) A sheet of cloth

Question 10. The signs that show the features on map are called a :
(1) Labels
(2) Conventional signs
(3) Tags
(4) Index

Answer: (2) Conventional signs

Question 11. The ratio of map distance to ground distance is called a:
(1) compass
(2) scale
(3) tape
(4) sketch

Answer: (2) scale

Question 12. The color used to show waterbodies on a map is :
(1) Red
(2) Green
(3) Blue
(4) Yellow

Answer: (3) Blue

Question 13. The rough drawing of any area without a scale is called a:
(1) Sketch
(2) Plan
(3) Language
(4) Symbol

Answer: (1) Sketch

Question 14. The map that shows mountains, hills, plateaus, plains, rivers, seas, etc., is called a:
(1) Political map
(2) Physical map
(3) Cadastral map
(4) Wall map

Answer: (2) Physical map

Question 15. R.F. is the abbreviated form of :
(1) Relative fraction
(2) Representative fraction
(3) Reduced fraction
(4) Recurring fraction

Answer: (4) Representative fraction

Chapter 9 Map And Scale Short Questions With Answers:

Question 1. Give an example of a Statement Scale.
Answer: 1cm to 50 km.

Question 2. Give an example of Representative fraction.
Answer: 1: 1,00,000.

Question 3. From which word ‘map’ has been derived?
Answer: Mappa.

Question 4. What is the unit of measurement in Large Scale?
Answer: Mile or km.

Question 5. What is the unit of measurement in Small Scale?
Answer: Inch or cm.

Question 6. Give an example of Small Scale.
Answer: 1cm =5 km.

Chapter 9 Map And Scale True Or False Type

Question 1. A thematic map helps us to get an idea about a topic or a theme.
Answer: False

Question 2. The topographical map depicts the weather condition of a place.
Answer: False

Question 3. The direction in a map is shown with the help of a north line\(\left(\begin{array}{l}N \\\uparrow\end{array}\right)\).
Answer: True

Chapter 9 Map And Scale Fill In The Blank

Question 1. The maps prepared to show underlying rock features and structure is called __________ maps.
Answer: Geological.

Question 2. Cadastral maps or ______________ maps are used for demarcating the boundaries of landed properties, fields, gardens, etc.
Answer: Mouza.

Question 3. A’ ____________ scale is drawn as a straight line which is divided into certain lengths, each showing certain on the ground.
Answer: Linear, distance.

Question 4. The box at the corner of a map that shows the conventional signs is called the _______.
Answer: Index.

Chapter 9 Map And Scale 2 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. Define map.
Answer:

Map

The word ‘map’ has been derived from the Latin word ‘Mappa’ which means a napkin or cloth. This indicates that the earlier maps used to be drawn on cloth or on tree leaves. A map is defined as a representation of the earth’s surface or a part of it, showing natural or man-made features, drawn to scale on a flat surface.

Question 2. What do you mean by Cartography?
Answer:

Cartography

The earth is spherical in shape, making it difficult to represent it on a flat surface. The representation of three-dimensional features like mountains, valleys, rivers, and other geographical phenomena involves special techniques so that they are drawn on a uniform basis. This are and science of mapping is called cartography. The word ‘Cartography’ has been derived from two French words ‘carte’ and ‘graphic’ meaning ‘map’ and ‘drawing’ respectively.

Question 3. What do you mean by scale?
Answer:

Scale

The scale of a map denotes the proportion that the distance between any two points on a map bears to the distance between any two points on a map bears to the distance between the same two points on the surface of the earth. The scale is also defined as the ratio between the distance of any two points on the map and the actual distance of the same points on the ground. It can be expressed as :

 

\(\text { Scale }=\frac{\text { Map distance between two points }}{\text { Ground distance between the same points }}\)

 

Question 4. Define Physical maps. State its classification.
Answer:

Physical maps

The maps which describe physical features like relief, rivers, climate, natural vegetation, etc.

Classification Of Physical maps :

(1) Astronomical maps.
(2) Relief maps.
(3) Geological maps.

Question 5. Define Graphical Scale.
Answer:

Graphical Scale

When we draw a scale by using one or more straight lines it is called a graphical scale.

Question 6. Why graphical method of representing scale is preferred?
Answer:

The graphical method is preferred to represent scale of a map due to the following reasons :

(1) It combines both R.F. and verbal statements.
(2) This is valid if the map is reduced, enlarged or only a small portion of it is used.

Chapter 9 Map And Scale 3 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. What are the major elements of map?
Answer:

Elements of a Map: There are five basic elements of a map

(1) Title: It denotes what the map portrays, e.e., the distribution of natural vegetation.

(2) Scale: It denotes the relationship between map distances and actual ground distances.

(3) Key: It explains the meaning of the symbols that are used in the map.

(4) Direction: It refers to the cardinal directions, i.e., North, South, East, and West. Conventionally, a map is aligned with the North towards the top.

(5) Grid System: It is a network of lines that help in pinpointing the location of a place on a map. Usually, a grid is formed by lines of latitudes and longitudes.

Question 2. Classify maps on the basis of their purpose and content.
Answer:

Maps can also be classified on the basis of their purpose and content as:

(1) Physical Maps :
These maps provide details about the natural features of an area or a country.

(2) Political Maps :
These maps portray different countries of the world along with their states, national and international boundaries, political units and administrative divisions, etc.

(3) Thematic Maps :
These maps show a particular feature or theme of the area. All types of cultural maps, most of the atlas maps, industrial maps, agricultural maps, military maps, linguistic maps fall in this category.

Question 3. Explain the importance of scale.
Answer:

Importance of scale

(1) The use of scale in the map is very important. It indicates the distance of two points on the map according to the corresponding distance on the ground.
(2) The écale is used to determine the distance of the two points of the ground
on the map.
(3) Scale provides a very useful method of representing large areas within a convenient space. By means of scale, the entire earth’s surface can be mapped within a small space of paper.
(4) By enlarging and reducing the scale, special maps can be devised in accordance to the object and purpose, such as, topographical maps, cadastral maps (map which are used for demarcating the boundaries of landed properties) mouza maps, field map for planning or for a strategy of war.

Question 4. What are the uses of scale for the preparation of Map?
Answer:

Uses of Scale for the preparation of Map :

(1) To measure distances between two points on the map.
(2) To measure out a certain length from the scale.
(3) To show the actual shape of a country or a continent.
(4) To enlarge or reduce a map according to scale.

Question 5. State the advantages & disadvantages of using a Linear Scale.
Answer:

Advantages of using a Linear Scale:

(1) Distances can easily be measured with the help of a linear scale.
(2) If the map is photographically enlarged or reduced, the linear scale is also enlarged or reduced in the same ratio and remains true to the map.

Disadvantages of using a Linear Scale:

(1) Like the statement of scale, this scale can only be used by those who are familiar with the unit of measurement used in the scale.
(2) It requires time and proficiency in drawing a graphic scale.

Chapter 9 Map And Scale 5 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. State the uses and importance of maps.
Answer:

Maps are used in many ways :

(1) As a general reference :
When we want to know where a place is we need a map. They give us idea of the direction and distance of a place.

(2) As an effective tool for navigation, control, and route planning :

We rely greatly on maps, whether we move on land, at sea or in the air. We plan our routes and maintain our course with the help of maps. There are hiking and biking maps, maps for moving through caves, highway maps, aeronautical charts, etc. We use these maps to plan our routes and then to navigate when we are in motion.

(3) Maps provide a lot of information to the planners. Planning of roads, residential complexes, factories, parks, location of schools and public facilities, sewer and water networks, etc., can be done on the basis of information provided by a map.

(4) Maps are used as legal documents showing ownership of land and boundaries.

(5) Maps are useful to sailors, pilots, drivers, miners, surveyors, engineers, environmentalists, and many other people.

(6) The strategies of an army even depend on the information provided by a map.

(7) Maps can show continents, countries, states, districts, cities, and even a local area with all the details.

(8) Maps are useful for students and the common people alike. They are easy to handle and can be carried everywhere.

Question 2. Write a note on the Linear graphic method of representing scale.
Answer:

A linear graphic Scale:

This is another method of expressing a scale on a map. A linear scale represents the same relationship by means of straight line which is divided into certain lengths each of which represents a certain distance on the ground.

A linear scale is generally divided into two divisions; viz.,

(1) Primary divsions and
(2) Secondary divisions.
In such a scale there are as many number of primary divisions and secondary divisions as required [or as stated]

Merits :
(1) A linear scale helps to determine easily the idea of a distance between the two places on a map by visual observation or by a simple scale of measurement.
(2) Hence, the distance on the map is easily measurable.
(3) Enlargement or reduction does not change the measurement of the scale of the map as the scale also be reduced or enlarged thereby. This merit is not available in case of R.F. scale.

Demerits :
(1) Drawing of a linear scale requires much time; it may also involve drawing defects.
(2) The respective unit of scale may not be acceptable all over.
(3) Change in the unit of measurement (cm/inch) of the scale may involve loss of accuracy.

Question 3. Write the advantages and disadvantages of the statement of scale method of representing scale.
Answer:

Advantages :

(1) This is a very simple method which is understood even by a common man. For example, if we tell an ordinary man that the scale of a map is 1cm:1km, he would immediately understand that one centimeter on the map corresponds to the kilometer on the ground.
(2) It requires little time to express this scale.
(3) It gives correct idea about distances.

Disadvantages :

(1) It can be understood only by those who are familiar with the unit of measurement used. For example, if we say that the scale of a map is 41cm: 1km, he would be understood by only that person who is familiar with the metric system of measurements.
(2) When a map is reduced or enlarged from the original, the scale does not remain the same. This created problems in measurement.

Question 4. Write the advantages and disadvantages of the representative fraction method of representing scale.
Answer:

Advantages :

Since it is only a fraction and is independent of any particular unit of measurement, it can be used in all countries. Even if a person is not familiar with various units such as inch (British), verst (Russian), and centimeter (French), he can easily use this scale.

Suppose the R.F. of a map is 1,00,000. To a Britisher, it would mean that 1 inch on the map represents 1,00,000 inches on the ground. Similarly, to a Frenchmen, it would mean that 1 cm on the map represents 1,00,000 cm on the ground and to a Russian, 1 verst on the map represents 1,00,000 verbs on the ground.

Thus, this scale can be converted into any unit of measurement and has universal application. It is, therefore, also termed as International Scale or Natural Scale. It has become a very popular method of expressing the scale.

Disadvantages :

(1) It is only a fraction in which no system of units is used. Hence, distances cannot be directly measured from it.
(2) Whenever a map is photographically enlarged or reduced, the R.F. will no longer be true.
(3) This is not easily understood by a common man.

Question 5. Classify maps on the basis of their scales.
Answer:

Classification Of maps on the basis of their scales.

On the basis of scales, maps can be classified as large-scale maps and small-scale maps.

Large-Scale Maps :

(1) Topographical Maps: They are prepared after a careful and accurate survey of the area.

They show natural features (such as hills and rivers) and man-made features (such as buildings, and canals). These maps are very useful for planning, defense, tourism, etc.

(2) Cadastral Maps :

The term ‘Cadastral’ has been derived from the French word “Cadestre’ which means register or territorial property. Cadastral maps provide complete details of an area such as the boundaries of properties and individual buildings.

These maps are, therefore, used to register the ownership of landed property by demarcating the boundaries of fields, buildings, etc. They are specially prepared by the government for the administration and realization of taxes, management of estates, and identification of the property in legal documents. Examples of Cadastral maps are — Revenue maps, Settlement maps,
village maps and City plan maps.

Small Scale Maps :

(1) Wall Maps :

These maps are meant to represent large areas that could be viewed at a glance. They may show features like relief, temperature, population, industries, and vegetation. They are used for display purposes in classrooms and museums.

(2) Atlas Maps :

These maps are drawn on a smaller scale and are used to represent a whole country on a single sheet. Since these maps are drawn on a smaller scale, they give a condensed and generalized picture of different areas of the world.

The features generally shown by Atlas maps include relief, drainage, vegetation, soils, crops, minerals, industries, population, cities, etc. Despite lack of details, these maps are best suited for educational purposes.

Question 6. State the methods of representing scale.
Answer:

There are three main methods of representing the scale on the map.

(1) A Statement: In this method, scale is stated in words or we make a statement about it.

Example:1cm.to1km
1 inch to 5 miles.

The value on the left-hand side usually represents the map distance. This method is not suitable, as we require to know the units of measurement in different countries. Moreover, when the map is reduced or enlarged from the original, the scale does not remain the same. This creates problems in measurement.

(2) Linear or Graphic Scale :

In this method, the scale is represented by a straight line divided into equal parts (primary and secondary) to show what these markings represent on the actual ground.

The Primary Divisions are the major divisions on the scale that graduated from left to right. The Secondary Divisions are smaller units graduated from right to left on one primary division. Te total length of this linear scale represents a distance of 25 kilometers.

Each p.imary division denotes a distance of 5 kilometers. Each secondary division denotes a distance of one kilometer on the actual ground.

(3) Representative Fraction :

In this method, the scale is represented as the ratio of the length of a line on the map and the corresponding actual distance on earth’s surface. The numerator is always expressed as unity i.e., one unit map- distance is equivalent to a number of units of ground distance. This fraction is called Representative Fraction.

 

\(\text {Representative Fraction (R.F. })=\frac{\text { Distance on the map }}{\text { Distance on the ground in the same unit }}\)

 

The most important point in a Representative Fraction is that the unit of measurement of distances in the numerator and the denominator is the same. For example, if the R.F. of a map is 1/1,00,000 or 1: 1,00,000, it means that one unit on the map represents 100,000 units on the ground.

If the unit of measurement is centimeters, we will say that 1 centimeter on the map represents 1,00,000 centimeters on the ground. If, however, the unit of measurement is an inch, then we will say that 1 inch on the map represents 100,000 inches on the ground.

The main advantage of R.F. is that it is only a fraction and is independent of any particular unit of measurement. It can be converted into any unit of measurement and has universal application. It is, therefore, also known as International Scale or Natural Scale.

Question 7. What are the conventional signs & symbols used in maps and scales?

Answer:

Conventional signs & symbols used in maps and scales are

Topographical maps use symbols to represent certain relief features and human activities. These are called conventional signs and symbols. They are used on a map because they. give plenty of information in a small space and maps can be drawn easily.

They are simple to read. Many of the signs and symbols are standardized and used throughout the world. The key or legend of a map has the list of signs and symbols as well as their meanings.

Hindi Terms Used in Survey Maps

1. Nadi — rivers;
2. nala — small stream;
3. phar — hill;
4. Parbat — hill or mountain;
5. Piao — a place where drinking water is available generally along roads or at railway stations. This is found mostly in north and northwest India where it be- comes very hot and water is scarce.
6. Police chowki— police outpost;
7. Talab — tank or reservoir or pond;
8. khera — kiln for baking bricks;
9. Tahsil or taluk — part of a district under a tahsildar who collects revenue from the area;
10. Dak bungalow — a government-owned bungalow for travelers to stay for a night or two,

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography and Environment

• Chapter 1 Earth As A Planet
• Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation & Revolution
• Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface
• Chapter 4 Geomorphic Processes And Land Forms Of The Earth
• Chapter 5 Weathering
• Chapter 6 Hazards And Disasters
• Chapter 7 Resources Of India
• Chapter 8 West Bengal

Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation And Revolution MCQs

Question 1. 3rd January is called
(1)Aphelion
(2) Perihelion
(3) Equinox.
(4)Verinox

Answer: (2) Perihelion.

Question 2. The perihelion of the earth occurs on
(1)1st June
(2) 4th July
(3) 3rd January
(4) 2nd October

Answer: (3) 3rd January.

Question 3. Revolution of the Moon around Earth takes
(1)27 days
(2) 27\(\frac{1}{3}\) days
(3) 28 days
(4) 26 days

Answer: (2) 27\(\frac{1}{3}\) days

Question 4. The solar day is Sideral day.
(1)3 minutes 56 seconds less than
(2)3 minutes 56 seconds more than
(3)3 minutes 52 seconds less than
(4)3 minutes 54 seconds more than

Answer: (2) 3 minutes 56 seconds more.

Question 5. The speed of rotation of the earth at the equator is
(1)1580 km/hr
(2) 1630 km/hr
(3) 1700 km/hr
(4) 1500 km/hr

Answer: (2) 1630 km/hr

Question 6. The apparent annual movement of the Sun is restricted within
(1) 23 (½)° N to 66 (½)°S
(2) 23 (½)° N to 23 (½)° S
(3) 66 (½)° N to 23 (½)°  S
(4) Equator

Answer: (2) 23 (½)° N to 23 (½)° S

Question 7. The longest day in the Northern hemisphere is
(1) 21st June
(2) 22nd December
(3) 16th March
(4) 14th January

Answer: (1) 21st June.

Question 8. Days and nights are equal all over the world on
(1) 21st June
(2) 21 March
(3) 16th March
(4) 22nd December

Answer: (2) 21st March.

Question 9. The shortest night in the Southern hemisphere is
(1) 22nd December
(2) 21st June
(3) 1st May
(4) 21st December

Answer: (1) 22nd December.

Question 10. The shortest night in the Northern hemisphere is
(1) 22nd December
(2) 21st June
(3) 1st May
(4) 15th September

Answer: (2) 21st June.

Question 11. Which motion is called Revolution –
(1) Annual Motion
(2) Daily Motion
(3) Weekly
(4) Monthly Motion

Answer: (1) Annual Motion.

Question 12. The Midnight Sun can be seen from
(1) Norway
(2) the equator
(3) Poles
(4) anywhere on the Earth

Answer: (1) Norway.

Question 13. The 4th of July is called
(1) Perihelion
(2) Aphelion
(3) Solstice
(4) Equinox

Answer: (2) Aphelion.

Question 14. 21st March is called
(1) Summer Solstice
(2) Vernal Equinox
(3) Autumnal Equinox
(4) Winter Solstice

Answer: (2) Vernal Equinox.

Question 15. 23rd September called
(1) Autumnal Equinox
(2) Winter Solstice
(3) Summer Solstice
(4) None

Answer: (1) Autumnal Equinox.

Question 16. During Aphelion the distance between the earth and the sun becomes
(1) 15 core 20 lakh km
(2) 14 crores 70 lakh km
(3) 13 crore 40 lakh km
(4) 18 crores 50 lakh km

Answer: (1) 15 crore 20 lakh km.

Question 17. Faint light seen during winter months in the Arctic circle is called
(1) Aurora Borealis
(2) Arora Australis
(3) Midnight Sun
(4) Twilight

Answer: (1) Aurora Borealis.

Question 18. Ancient people believed that the _______________was at the centre of the Solar System.
(1) Sun
(2) Jupiter
(3) Mars
(4) Earth

Answer: (2) Earth

Question 19.____________ spin about their axes in a clockwise direction.
(1) Venus
(2) Mars and Earth
(3) Jupiter and Saturn
(4) Uranus and Neptune

 Answer. (1) Venus

Question 20. The speed of rotation at the equator is about ___________per hour. 
(1) 1650 Km.
(2) 1630 Km.
(3)1634 Km.
(4) 1790 Km.

Answer. (2) 1630 Km.

Question 21. Winds and ocean currents deflect to their ______________in the Southern Hemisphere.
(1) right
(2) left
(3) upside
(4) downside

Answer. (2) left

Question 22. The deflective effect of Earth’s rotation was discovered by
(1) Foucault
(2) Coriolis
(3) Galileo
(4) Copernicus

Answer. (2) Coriolis

Question 23. The Earth’s axis remains inclined at an angle of _______________to the plane of orbit.
(1)23 (½)°
(2) 45°
(3)66 (½)°
(4) 15°

Answer. (3) 66 (½)°

Question 24. The Earth takes  ______________to complete one revolution.   
(1) 24 hours
(2) 28 days
(3) 365 ¼
(4) 375 ¼days

Answer. (3) 365 ¼days

Question 25. On The Earth is the farthest from the Sun.
(1) July 4
(2) August 17
(3) January 3
(4) February 5

Answer: (1) July 4

Question 26. The imaginary line that separates the lighted half from the darkened half of the Earth is called the
(1) Twilight
(2) Dawn
(3) Shadow circle
(4) Dusk

Answer: (3) Shadow circle

Question 27. The summer solstice is experienced on
(1) 4th July
(2) 3rd January
(3) 21st June
(4) 4th January

Answer: (3) 21st June

Question 28. Winter solstice is an experience on
(1) 4th July
(2) 22nd December
(3) 3rd January
(4) 23rd September

Answer: (2) 22nd December.

Question 29. Northern hemisphere experiences the longest day and shortest night on
(1) 23rd September
(2) 21st June
(3) 22nd December
(4) 4th October

Answer: (2) 21st June

Question 30. The spinning of the earth on its own polar axis is termed as
(1) revolution
(2) rotation
(3) annual motion
(4) Shaking of Earth

Answer: (2) rotation

Question 31. The sun rises in the east and sets in the west due to
(1) Rotation of the earth
(2) Rotation of the sun
(3) Revolution of the earth
(4) Rotation of the Moon

Answer: (1) Rotation of the earth

Question 32. Deflection of wind on the earth’s surface is caused by :
(1) Revolution of the earth
(2) Rotation of the earth
(3) Attraction of the moon
(4) Movement of the Sun

Answer: (2) Rotation of the earth

Question 33. The rotation of the earth was proved on the basis of oscillation of a pendulum by :
(1) Galileo
(2) Ferrel
(3) Foucault
(4) Copernicus

Answer: (3) Foucault

Question 34. The average distance of the earth from the sun is about :
(1) 150 million km
(2) 300 million km
(3) 149 million km
(4) 500 million km

Answer: (1) 150 million km

Question 35. Antarctic region is illuminated by daylight for 24 hours on :
(1) 21st June
(2) 22nd December
(3) 23rd September
(4) 1st July

Answer: (2) 22nd December

 

Chapter 1 Earth As A Planet MCQs

Question 1. The round shape of the earth was first proved by
(1) Aristotle
(2) Galileo
(3) Ferdinand Magellan
(4) Kepler

Answer. (3) Ferdinand Magellan

Question 2. The shadow of the earth cast on the moon during eclipses is
(1) Square
(2) Rectangular
(3) Conical
(4) Round in shape

Answer. (4) Round in shape

Question 3. The difference between the equatorial diameter and the polar diameter is
(1) 62 Km
(2)43Km
(3) 56 Km
(4) 90 Km

Answer. (2) 43 Km

Question 4. The horizon of the earth seems to widen with
(1) Decreasing altitude
(2) Decreasing length
(3) Increasing altitude
(4) Increasing length

Answer. (3) Increasing altitude

Question 5. When we watch a ship approaching the harbour we first see
(1) The whole ship
(2) The bottom of the ship
(3) The top of the mast
(4) The hull

Answer. (3) The top of the mast

Question 6. At the equator the length of 1° of latitude is
(1) 110.58 Km
(2) 111.7 Km
(3) 150.18 Km
(4) 111.32 Km

Answer. (2) 111.7 Km

Question 7. The shape of the earth looks like that of
(1) An apple
(2) A pear
(3) A guava
(4) A pineapple

Answer. (2) A pear

Question 8. Jupiter is about times bigger than the earth.
(1) 9.444
(2) 11.209
(3) 3.883
(4) 2.032

Answer. (2) 11.209

Question 9. The English word ‘Eartha’ means
(1) Table
(2) Ground
(3) Book
(4) Ball

Answer. (2) Ground

Question 10. The circumference of the earth was first measured by
(1) Hadley
(2) Holmes
(3) Eratosthenes
(4) Ferrel

Answer. (3) Eratosthenes

Question 11. Who among the following ancient scholars first gives the idea of round shaped earth?
(1) Homer
(2) Hesiod
(3) Thales
(4) Zimmerman

Answer. (3) Thales

Question 12. The most unique feature of the earth is its —
(1) Atmosphere
(2) Biosphere
(3) Hydrosphere
(4) Lithosphere

Answer. (1) Atmosphere

Question 13. Which of the following is the largest planet in the solar system?
(1) Earth
(2) Mercury
(3) Saturn
(4) Jupiter

Answer. (4) Jupiter

Question 14. Which of the following planets is smaller that the Earth in size?
(1) Jupiter
(2) Mars
(3) Uranus
(4) Neptune

Answer. (2) Mars

Question 15. The circumference of the earth is
(1) About 40,000 km
(2) About 12,715 km
(3) About 6,400 km
(4) About 250,000 km

Answer. (1) About 40,000 km

Question 16. The equatorial diameter of the earth is
(1) About 12,714 km
(2) About 6,400 km
(3) About 12,757 km
(4) About 14,532 km

Answer. (3) About 12,757 km

Question 17. The number of Planets in the Solar System is –
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11

Answer. (1) 8

Question 18. Saturn has_______ satellites.
(1) 23
(2)16
(3) 15
(4) None

Anwers. (1)23 Satelites

Question 19. Jupiter hastne satellites.
(1)  1
(2) 16
(3) 26
(4) 15

Answer. (2) 16 satellites

Question 20. The sun is times larger than the earth.
(1) 13 Lakh
(2) 1.3 lakhs
(3) 10 Lakh
(4) 200 lakhs

Answer. (1) 13 Lakh.

 

Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface Multiple Choice Questions With Answers:

Question 1. A place and its antipode have a time difference of
(1) 6 hrs
(2) 12 hrs
(3) 9 hrs
(4) 10 hrs

Answer: (2) 12 hrs.

Question 2. The longitudinal difference of a place and its antipode is
(1) 180°
(2) 90°
(3) 360°
(4) 240°

Answer: (1) 180°.

Question 3. The actual location of a place can be identified by of the latitude and longitude of that place.
(1) The latitude
(2) The longitude
(3) The intersection
(4) The antipode of Greenwich.

Answer: (3) The intersection

Question 4. Each meridian form an angle of
(1) 180°
(2) 360°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

Answer: (1) 180°

Question 5. The different places on the same latitude has
(1) Similar time
(2) Temperature
(3) Soil
(4) Altitude

Answer: (2) Temperature.

Question 6. The different places on a longitude experience same
(1) Standard time
(2) Local time
(3) National time
(4) Greenwich mean time

Answer: (2) Local time.

Question 7. longitude is known as International Date Line.
(1) 180°E
(2) 180°W
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

Answer: (1) 180°

Question 8. Time difference of 1° longitude is
(1) 10 mins.
(2) 4 mins.
(3) 60 mins.
(4) 20 mins.

Answer: (2) 4 mins.

Question 9.The imaginary lines drawn from east to west are called
(1) Orbits
(2) Latitudes
(3) Longitudes
(4) Hemispheres

Answer: (2) Latitudes

Question 10. Is an imaginary circle on Earth’s surface lying at equidistant from the two poles?
(1) Equator
(2) Axis
(3) Orbit
(4) Latitude

Answer: (1) Equator

Question 11. There are parallels of latitude on either side of the equator.
(1) 25°
(2) 75°
(3) 90°
(4) 49°

Answer: (3) 90°

Question 12. The value of Tropic of Capricorn is

(1) 23 (½)°N
(2) 23 (½)°S
(3) 66 (½)° N
(4) 66 (½)° S

Answer: (2) 23 (½)°S

Question 13. The subsolar point on Tropic of Cancer is on
(1) 22nd December
(2) 23rd September
(3) 21st June
(4) 21st March

Answer: (3) 21st June

Question 14. The latitudes from 30° to 60° are called
(1) Low latitudes
(2) High latitudes
(3) Mid-latitudes
(4) Polar latitudes

Answer: (3) Mid-latitudes

Question 15. The heat zone of the earth where temperature remains high throughout the year is called
(1) Temperate zone
(2) Frigid zone
(3) Torrid zone
(4) Wet zone

Answer: (3) Torrid zone

Question 16.The linear distance between two meridians from equator towards the poles.
(1) Shortens
(2) Lengthens
(3) Widens
(4) Straightens

Answer: (1) Shortens

Question 17. The Prime meridian passes through the Royal Astronomical observatory at
(1) Netherlands on
(2) Greenwich
(3) Allahabad
(4) Paris

Answer: (2) Greenwich

Question 18. There are _— time zones in the world based on the Prime Meridian.
(1) 14
(2) 24
(3) 19
(4) 26

Answer : (2) 24

Question 19. A place located on 160°E meridian should have its antipode at
(1) 40°E
(2) 180°E
(3) 0°
(4) 20°W

Answer: (4)20°W

Question 20. The time difference between IST and GMT is
(1) 5 hrs 4 mins
(2) 5 hrs 30 mins
(3) 6 hrs 30 mins
(4) 4 hrs 30 mins

Answer: (2) 5 hrs 30 mins

Question 21. The route between two points represent the shortest line between the two points.
(1) Great circle
(2) Small circle
(3) Half circle
(4) Full circle

Answer: (1) Great circle

Question 22. Highest latitude is
(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) 360°

Answer: (2) 90°

Question 23. The difference of local time between Kolkata and Allahabad is
(1) 12 minutes
(2) 18 minutes
(3) 20 minutes
(4) 24 minutes

Answer: (4) 24 minutes

Question 24. The total number of parallels of latitude on a globe
(1) 90
(2) 180
(3) 184
(4) 360

Answer: (2) 181

Question 25. The altitude of the polestar at North Pole is
(1) 80°
(2) 90°
(3) 75°
(4) 35°

Answer: (2) 90°

Question 26. Prime Meridian is
(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) 360°

Answer: (1) 0°

Question 27. The antipode of a place on Prime Meridians is
(1) 0°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 180°

Answer: (4) 180°

Question 28. The time difference at two sides of the International date line is—
(1) 28 hrs
(2) 24 hrs
(3) 12 hrs
(4) 0 hrs.

Answer: (2) 24 hrs

Question 29. Total meridians of longitude is
(1) 90
(2) 100
(3) 180
(4) 360

Answer: (4) 360

Question 30. The International Dateline mainly. 
(1) Spread over the ocean
(2) Follows the 180 meridian totally.
(3) Is a straight line
(4) Divides all continents.

Answer: (2)5:30hrs

Question 31. The latitude of the equator is
(1) 180°
(2) 90°
(3) 0°
(4) 23°30″

Answer: (3) 0°

Question 32. The parallel which is called the ‘Great circle’
(1) 23°30° N circle
(2) 0° circle
(3) 90°
(4) 23° 30’s circle

Answer: (2) 0° circle

Question33. The difference of time between place and its antipode :
(1) 10 hrs
(2) 6 hrs
(3) 12 hrs
(4) 24 hrs

Answer: (3) 12 hrs

Question 34. The longitude of 1. S.T. is
(1) 9°W
(2) 88°30 W
(3) 82°30°E
(4) 0°

Answer: (3) 82°30°E

Question 35. The Arctic circle is
(1) 23°30°
(2) 66°30°N
(3) 66°30°S
(4) 90°W.

Answer: (3)66°30°N

 

Chapter 5 Weathering Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.______weathering is mostly found in hot desert areas.
(1) Mechanical
(2) Chemical
(3) Organic
(4) Inorganic

Answer: (1) Mechanical.

Question 2.______ is prevalent in hot desert region.
(1) Oxidation
(2) Granular disintegration
(3) Frost shattering
(4) Carbonation

Answer: (2) Granular disintegration

Question 3. Oxidation takes place with____.
(1) Oxygen
(2) Carbon-dioxide
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Helium

Answer: (1) Oxygen.

Question 4. Physical weathering is also known as _______.
(1) Mechanical
(2) Chemical weathering
(3) Organic weathering
(4) Inorganic weathering

Answer: (1) Mechanical.

Question 5. One of the most important aggradational processes is :
(1) Diastrophism
(2) Erosion
(3) Deposition
(4) Volcanism

Answer: (3) Deposition

Question 6. The disintegration and decomposition of rocks in situ is called :
(1) Erosion
(2) Weathering
(3) Denudation
(4) Mass wasting

Answer: (2) Weathering

Question 7. The type of weathering predominant in desert region is :
(1) Chemical weathering
(2) Block disintegration
(3) Exfoliation
(4) Frost weathering

Answer: (2) Block disintegration

Question 8.The type of weathering that affects heterogeneous rocks is :
(1) Chemical weathering
(2) Granular disintegration
(3) Exfoliation
(4) Biological weathering

Answer: (2) Granular disintegration

Question 9. Iron and rocks containing iron show yellowish rust due to :
(1) Hydration
(2) Carbonation
(3) Oxidation
(4) Hydrolysis

Answer: (3) Oxidation

Question 10. Biological weathering is caused by:
(1) Wind
(2) Plants and animals
(3) River
(4) Glacier

Answer: (2) Plants and animals

Question 11. Which one of the following is an example of physical weathering?
(1) Solution
(2) Frost action
(3) Carbonation
(4) Oxidation

Answer: (2) Frost action

Question 12. Which one of the following is an example of chemical weathering—
(1) Block disintegration
(2) Exfoliation
(3) Oxidation
(4) Frost action

Answer: (3) Oxidation

Question 13. The most important factor of soil formation is—
(1) Weathering
(2) Tectonic movement
(3) Folding
(4) Faulting

Answer: (1) Weathering folding

Question 14. Granular disintegration is caused by—
(1) Release of pressure on rock beds
(2) Thermal change
(3) Crystal growth
(4) None of these

Answer: (2) Thermal change

Question 15. The principle natural agent of mechanical is—
(1) Sun
(2) Rain
(3) Wind
(4) Air Pressure

Answer: (1) Sun

Question 16. The type of weathering which is predominant in the hot desert is—
(1) Biological weathering
(2) Chemical weathering
(3) Mechanical weathering
(4) Organic weathering

Answer: (3) Mechanical weathering

Question 17. Limestones deposit which grow upward from the floor of the cave are called—
(1) Stalactites
(2) Stalagmites
{3) Column
(4) Row

Answer: (2) Stalagmites

Question 18. Which of the following process is not associated with the physical weathering by the sun rays?
(1) Block disintegration
(2) Exfoliation
(3) Carbonation
(4) Granular disintegration

Answer: (3) Carbonation

 

Chapter 4 Geomorphic Processes And Land Forms Of The Earth Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Fuzi is a________ mountain.
(1) volcanic
(2) Residual
(3) Fold
(4) Organic

Answer: (1) Volcanic

Question 2. _______mountain is a block mountain.
(1) Alps
(2) Satpura
(3) Mt. Fuzi
(4) Himalayas

Answer: (2)Satpura

Question 3._________ is an erosional mountain.
(1) Aravali
(2) Western Ghats
(3) Eastern Ghats
(4) Himalayas.

Answer: (1)Aravali

Question  4. Is a volcanic mountain.
(1) Vindhyas
(2) Cotopaxi
(3) Alps
(4) Satpura

Answer: (2)Cotopaxi

Question 5. The study that deals with landforms and the processes that shape them is called
(1) Biology
(2) Geomorphology
(3) Physics
(4) Chemistry

Answer: (2) Geomorphology

Question 6. The geomorphic processes which are active on the earth’s surface are called
(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Earthquake
(3) Terrestrial processes
(4) Volcanism

Answer: (3) Terrestrial processes

Question 7. The Geomorphic processes that act at the interior of the earth arc called
(1) Endogenous
(2) Exogenous
(3) Degradation
(4) Aggradation

Answer: (1) Endogenous

Question 8. The exogenetic force derives energy from
(1) Moon
(2) Sun
(3) Slope
(4) Running water

Answer: (4) Running water

Question 9. The mountain-building movement is known as :
(1) Epeirogenic movement
(2) Weathering
(3) Orogenic movement
(4) Volcanism

Answer: (3) Orogenic movement

Question 10. Mountains are those landforms that rise above________ from the sea level.
(1) 1000 m
(2) 600 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 200 m

Answer: (1) 1000 m

Question 11. The plate Tectonic theory advocates the formation of :
(1) Relict mountain
(2) Fold mountain
(3) Volcanic mountain
(4) Block mountain

Answer: (2) Fold mountain

Question 12. An example of old fold mountain is
(1) Alps
(2) Himalayas
(3) Aravalli
(4) Rockies

Answer: (3) Aravalli

Question 13. An example of new fold mountain is :
(1) Himalayas
(2) Aravalli
(3) Black Forest
(4) Nilgiri

Answer: (1) Himalayas

Question 14. The plateaus which have mountains surrounding them are called :
(1) Lava plateau
(2) Intermontane plateau
(3) Dissected plateau
(4) Continental plateau

Answer: (2) Intermontane plateau

Question 15. The plains which are formed by the deposition of rivers near their mouths are called :
(1) Floodplain
(2) Karst plain
(3) Deltaic plain
(4) Loess plain

Answer: (3) Deltaic plain

Question 16. The Vale of Kashmir is an example of
(1) Flood Plain
(2) Lacustrine plain
(3) Loess plain
(4) Till plain

Answer: (2) Lacustrine plain

Question 17. Endogenetic forces are also called—
(1) Earthquakes
(2) Internal processes
(3) Earth movement
(4) Volcanism

Answer: (2) Internal processes

Question 18. Greek word ‘epeiros’ means—
(1) A continent
(2) An Ocean
(3) A mountain
(4) None of these

Answer: (1) A continent

Question 19. Faults are due to—
(1) Tensional forces
(2) Contractional forces
(3) Compressional forces
(4) Concentric forces

Answer: (3) Compressional forces

Question 20. Faults are related to—
(1) Fold mountain
(2) Volcanic mountain
(3) Block mountain
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3) Block mountain

Question 21. Block mountains are formed by—
(1) Folding
(2) Faulting
(3) Volcanic eruption
(4) Earthquakes

Answer: (2) Faulting

Question 22. Aravalli, Pareshnath, Rajmahal hills are examples of —
(1) Block mountains
(2) Fold mountains
(3) Residual mountains
(4) Volcanic mountains

Answer: (3) Residual mountains

Question 23. Rocky, Alps, Himalayas are examples of —
(1) Residual mountains
(2) Block mountains
(3) Fold mountains
(4) Volcanic Mountains

Answer: (3) Fold mountains

Question 24. The Chhotanagpur plateaus are examples of —
(1) Intermontane plateaus
(2) dissected plateaus
(3) lava plateaus
(4) deltaic plateau

Answer: (2) dissected plateaus

Question 25. One of the most important aggradational processes is :
(1) diastrophism
(2) erosion
(3) deposition
(4) volcanism

Answer: (3) deposition

Question 26. The process which levels the land :
(1) Erosion
(2) Gradation
(3) Transportation
(4) Degradation

Answer: (2) Gradation

Question 27. The exogenetic force derives energy from :
(1) Moon
(2) Sun
(3) Slope
(4) Running water

Answer: (2) Sun

Question 28. Degradation and aggradation are integral parts of
(1) Solution
(2) Gradation
(3) Transportation
(4) Deformation

Answer: (2) Gradation

Question 29. Massive destruction at and below the earth’s surface is caused due to-
(1)Sudden forces and movement
(2) Diastrophic forces
(3) Epeirogenetic forces
(4) Exogenetic forces

Answer: (1) Sudden forces and movement

Question 30. Movement which is responsible for upliftment and subsidence of continental masses-
(1) Epeirogenic movement
(2) Sudden movement
(3) Orogenic movement
(4) Upward movement

Answer: (3) Orogenic movement

Question 31. Which one is the example of endogenous forces?
(1) Erosion
(2) Deposition
(3) Volcanicity
(4) isostasy

Answer: (3) Volcanicity

Question 32. Which one of the following is exogenetic process?
(1) Deposition
(2) Volcanicity
(3) Diastrophism
(4) Balance erosion

Answer: (1) Deposition

Question 33. Which of the following is not a factor of geomorphic process?
(1) River
(2) Glacier
(3) Wind
(4) Earthquake

Answer: (4) Earthquake

Question 34. Movement of endogenetic forces take place
(1) Horizontal
(2) vertical
(3) Both
(4) None

Answer: (3) Both

Question 35. A new land is formed due to combined efforts of
(1) Endogenetic forces
(2) Exogenetic forces
(3) Both
(4) None

Answer: (3) Both

Question 36. Diastrophic movement takes place
(1) slowly
(2) Fastly
(3) Sudden
(4) None

Answer: (1) Slowly

Question 37. Horizontal and vertical movement takes place in
(1) Sudden movement
(2) Diatrophic movement
(3) None
(4) None

Answer: (2) Diatrophic movement

Question 38. Epeirogenetic force is caused due to
(1) Horizontal movement
(2) Vertical movement
(3) Both
(4) None

Answer: (2) Vertical movement

Question 39. Orogenetic force is caused due to
(1) Horizontal movement
(2) Vertical movement
(3) Both
(4) None

Answer: (1) Horizontal movement

Question 40. Epigenetic force is also known as
(1) Radial force
(2) Orogenetic force
(3) Exogenous force
(4) Rapid force

Answer: (1) Radial force

Question 41. The theory to which the plate tectonic theory is very much related is
(1) Plate tectonic movement
(2) Diastrophism
(3) Orogenic movement
(4) Epeirogenic movement.

Answer: (2) Diastrophism

Question 42. Flat top lands get uplifted through which movement?
(1) volcanicity
(2) Epeirogenic
(3) Tectonics
(4) Orogenic.

Answer: (2) Epeirogenic

Question 43. Wrinkles appear on the earth’s surface by
(1) Tensional force
(2) Volcanic process
(3) Endogenous process
(4) Isostatic process.

Answer: (1) Tensional force

Question 44. Fold mountains are formed by
(1) Exogenous process
(2) Volcanic process
(3) Endogenous process
(4) Isostatic process.

Answer: (3) Endogenous process

Question 45. The process which acts vertically or radially is
(1) Tectonic
(2) Exogenic
(3) Orogenic
(4) Epeirogenic

Answer: (4) Epeirogenic

Question 46. Equal compression from both sides of a fold develops
(1) Symmetrical fold
(2) Asymmetrical fold
(3) Isoclinal fold
(4) None

Answer: (1) Symmetrical fold

Question 47. If both limbs of a fold are parallel and horizontal to each other, it is known as
(1) Plunging fold
(2) Recumbent fold
(3) Fan fold
(4) Upfold

Answer: (2) Recumbent fold

Question 48. The movement for which folding occurs
(1) Epeirogenic movement
(2) Earthquakes
(3) Bedding formation
(4) Orogenic movement

Answer: (4) Orogenic movement

Question 49. The portion of a fold which is concave
(1) Base
(2) Syncline
(3) Upfold
(4) Plate boundary

Answer: (2) Syncline

Question 50. Large recumbent fold is known as
(1) Overthrust fold
(2) Overfold
(3) Monoclinal fold
(4) Nappe

Answer: (4) Nappe

Question 51. ___is an example of intermontane plateau.
(1) Himalayas
(2) Andes
(3) Tibetan
(4) Deccan

Answer: (3) Tibetan

Question 52. A__fold is one in which one limb is pushed up on the other.
(1) Monoclinal
(2) Recumbent
(3) Overthrust
(4) Fan

Answer: (3) Overthrust

Question 53. The plate movement produces
(1) Pediments
(2) Fold mountains
(3) Residual mountains
(4) Block mountain

Answer: (2) Fold mountains

Question 54. Folding is caused by
(1) Tension
(2) Compression
(3) Upward force
(4) Downward force

Answer: (2) Compression

Question 55. Up folds are called
(1) Anticline
(2) Syncline
(3) Limbs
(4) None

Answer: (1) Anticline

Question 56. An example of block mountain is
(1) Rocky
(2) Andes
(3) Vosges
(4) Alps

Answer: (3) Vosges

Question 57. Vosges and Black Forest are two well-known examples of
(1) Horst
(2) Graben
(3) Monadnock
(4) Inselberg

Answer: (1) Horst

Question 58. The name of the highest volcano in the world is
(1) Mauna Loa in Hawali
(2) Fujiyama in Japan
(3) Vesuvius in Italy
(4) Mt. Everest in Nepal

Answer: (2) Fujiyama in Japan

Question 59. The faults in which rock beds are pushed upward on one side relative to the other is
(1) Normal faults
(2) Reverse faults
(3) Overthrust faults
(4) Step faults

Answer: (2) Reverse faults

Question 60.______ have broad flat top and steep slopes.
(1) Rift valley
(2) Block Mountain
(3) Faulted plateaus
(4) Fault scarp

Answer: (2) Block Mountain

Question 61. Block Mountains are formed by
(1) Exogenic process
(2) Endogenous process
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them

Answer: (2) Endogenous process

Question 62. Examples of Block Mountains are
(1) Satpuras
(2) Vindhyas
(3) Black Forest
(4) All

Answer: (4) All

 

Chapter 7 Resources Of India Multiple Choice Questions With Answers :

Question 1. The first nuclear power station of India is
(1) Trombay
(2) Kalpakkam
(3) Tarapur
(4) Jaipur

Answer: (3) Tarapur.

Question 2. An atomic power station of Rajasthan is
(1) Trombay
(2) Tarapur
(3) Rana Pratap Sagar
(4) Bombay Hight

Answer: (3) Rana Pratap Sagar.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography and Environment

Question 3. Rangapur is noted for
(1) copper
(2) bauxite
(3) mica
(4) iron ore

Answer: (1) copper.

Question 4. _______ is the largest producer of coal.
(1) Jharkhand
(2) Bihar
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Andra Pradesh

Answer: (1) Jharkhand.

WBBSE Solutions Guide Class 9

Question 5.______ is noted for lignite coal.
(1) Neyveli
(2) Bokaro
(3) Ranihati
(4) Trombay

Answer: (1) Neyveli.

Question 6. _______ is the largest coal mine.
(1) Jharia
(2) Raniganj
(3) Trombay
(4) Kalpakkam

Answer: (1) Sharia.

Question 7. Pollivasal Power Station is in
(1) Kerala
(2) Karnataka
(3) Arunachal Pradesh
(4) Haryana

Answer: (1) Kerala.

Question 8. Shivsamudram is in
(1) Tamil Nadu.
(2) Karnataka
(3) Haryana
(4) Kerela

Answer: (2) Karnataka.

Question 9. Loktak Power Station is in
(1) Manipur
(2) Nagaland
(3) Kerela
(4) Karnataka

Answer: (1) Manipur.

Question 10. Gandhi Sagar is in
(1) Rajasthan
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Haryana
(4) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (2) Madhya Pradesh.

Question 11. Kankrapara is a ___________  station.
(1) atomic power
(2) hydel power
(3) thermal power
(4) solar power

Answer: (1) atomic power

Question 12. One of the natural resources is
(1) Money
(2) Factory
(3) Skill
(4) Mineral.

Answer: (4) Mineral

Question 13. The natural resources which are found everywhere is called
(1) Ubiquities
(2) Commonalities
(3) Rarities
(4) Uniquities.

Answer: (1) ubiquities

WBBSE Solutions Guide Class 9

Question 14. Give an example of a tangible resource
(1) Work abilities
(2) Talent
(3) Knowledge
(4) Water.

Answer: (4) Water

Question 15. Social resource is
(1) Water
(2) Land
(3) School
(4) Soil

Answer: (3) School

Question 16. The inexhaustible resource is :
(1) Coal
(2) Mineral
(3) Oil
(4) Wind

Answer: (4) Wind

Question 17. Non-renewable resource is
(1) Natural gas
(2) Wind
(3) Rainfall
(4) Water

Answer: (1) Natural gas

Question 18. A renewable resource is
(1) Sunshine
(2) Iron one
(3) Natural gas
(4) Mineral oil

Answer: (1) Sunshine

Question 19. Technology is a type o’
(1) Cultural resource
(2) Human resource
(3) Organic resource
(4) Inorganic resource

Answer: (1) Cultural resource

Question 20. Resource refers to thing or a substance.
(1) False
(2) True
(3) Partly false
(4) None of these

Answer: (1) False

Question 21. Which of the following is not a natural resource-
(1) Air
(2) Coal
(3) Soil
(4) Agricultural technology.

Answer: (4) Agricultural technology.

Question 22. Which of the following is a biotic resource –
(1) Iron
(2) Soil
(3) Manganese
(4) Natural vegetation.

Answer: (4) Natural vegetation.

WBBSE Solutions Guide Class 9

Question 23. Non-renewable resource is –
(1) Coal
(2) Soil
(3) Water
(4) Natural vegetation.

Answer: (1) Coal

Question 24. Unique resource is –
(1) Uranium
(2) Gold
(3) Coal
(4) Natural gas

Answer: (1) Uranium

Question 25. Fund resource is –
(1) Productive land
(2) Water
(3) Coal
(4) Natural gas

Answer: (3) Coal

Question 26. Flow resource is –
(1) Mineral
(2) River water
(3) Fertility of soil
(4) Mineral oil.

Answer: (2) River water

Question 27. An example of ubiquitous resources is –
(1) Coal
(2) Cryolite
(3) Sunlight
(4) Mica.

Answer: (3) Sunlight

Question 28. Which one of the following is not characteristic of resource?
(1) Utility
(2) Universal demand
(3) Limited supply
(4) Unlimited supply

Answer: (4) Unlimited supply

WBBSE Solutions Guide Class 9

Question 29. Coal, Petroleum are
(1) Commonalities
(2) Rarities
(3) Unique
(4) None

Answer: (2)Rarities weapon

Question 30. Man’s skill is a
(1) Organic resource
(2) Inorganic
(3) Natural
(4) None

Answer: (1) Organic resource

Question 31. Which among the following is not a natural resource?
(1) Coal
(2) Forest
(3) Land
(4) Population

Answer: (4) Population

Question 32. lron-ore is a resource because
(1) It has limited supply
(2) It is found in nature
(3) It is accessible to man
(4) All the above

Answer: (4) All the above

Question 33. Fund resource are those resources
(1) Which are exhausted once they are used.
(2) Which can never be used.
(3) Which have a relatively adequate recycling ratio.
(4) Which can be used again and again.

Answer: (1) Which are exhausted once they are used?

Question 34. Rare resources are those resources
(1) Which are not available to everyone everywhere.
(2) Which are available at some places.
(3) Which are available at one or two places.
(4) Which are generally available to everyone everywhere.

Answer: (2) Which are available at some places?

Question 35. Coal is a
(1) Flow resource
(2) Fund resource
(3) Neutral stuff
(4) None of these

Answer: (2) Fund resource

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 WBBSE

Question 36. Petroleum is an example of
(1) Flow resource
(2) Fund resource
(3) Neutral stuff
(4) Resistance

Answer: (2) Fund resource

Question 37. The concept of resources is
(1) Static
(2) Dynamic
(3) Changeable
(4) None of these

Answer: (2) Dynamic

Question 38. Which of the following is a fund resource?
(1) Coal
(2) River
(3) Wind
(4) Culture

Answer: (1) Coal

Question 39. Which of the following is a cultural resource?
(1) Agriculture
(2) Sunlight
(3) Hail
(4) Rainfall

Answer: (1) Agriculture

Question 40. More than 90% of the total coal reserves and production in India is of :
(1) Tertiary type
(2) Gondwana type
(3) Lignite type
(4) Granite

Answer: (2) Gondwana type

Question 41. The Jog hydel power station is located in :
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Karnataka
(3) Kerala
(4) Suran

Answer: (2) Karnataka

Question 42. Kudremukh in Karanataka has the largest deposit of :
(1) Haematite ore
(2) Magnetite ore
(3) Siderite ore
(4) None of these

Answer: (2) Magnetite ore

Question 43. A thing or a substance will be considered a ‘resource’ if it has :
(1) Reserves
(2) Utility
(3) Potentiality
(4) High-cost price

Answer: (2) Utility

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 WBBSE

Question 44. Magnetite is an important ore of
(1) Copper
(2) Iron
(3) Aluminium
(4) Tin

Answer: (2) Iron

Question 45. In coal production India holds
(1) Third
(2) Fifth
(3) First
(4) Seventh position

Answer: (2) Fifth

Question 46. The largest oil mining centre in India is
(1) Lakhimpur
(2) Digboi
(3) Mumbai High
(4) Hugrijan

Answer: (3) Mumbai High

Question 47. One important conventional power source is
(1) Hydro-electricity
(2) Solar energy
(3) Wind energy
(4) Geothermal energy

Answer: (1) Hydro-electricity

Question 48. The power produced by burning coal, petroleum etc., is called
(1) Hydel power
(2) Atomic power
(3) Thermal power
(4) Solar power

Answer: (3) Thermal power

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 WBBSE

Question 49. India ranks _____________ in coal production in the world.
(1) 1st
(2) 2nd
(3) 3rd
(4) 4th

Answer: (3) 3rd

Question 50. India ranks _________ in iron ore
(1) 3rd
(2) 4th
(3) 5th
(4) 6th

Answer: (3) 5th

Question 51. India is the  __________ largest exporter of iron ore in the world.
(1) 1st
(2) 2nd
(3) 3rd
(4) 4th

Answer: (3) 3rd

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 WBBSE  Resources Of India Short Questions With Answers

Question 1. What is Thermal Power?
Answer: The electricity generated by the heat of coal, natural gas, etc. is known as Thermal power.

Question 2. What is Hydel Power?
Answer: The electricity generated by waterfalls are called Hydel power.

Question 3. In which place of this country is petroleum extracted from beneath the sea floor?
Answer: Mumbai High region in the Arabian Sea (152 km north-west of Mumbai city)

Question 4. Name the windiest site in India.
Answer: Kappata will in Karnataka.

Question 5. Where is the headquarter of ONGC located?
Answer: Dehradun.

Question 6. Why is Trombay famous?
Answer: Trombay is famous for its atomic power plants.

Question 7. Name the first hydel power plant in India.
Answer: Shivsamudram in Karnataka.

Question 8. Name a nuclear power station in India.
Answer: Narora in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 9. Cite a thermal power station in India.
Answer: Talcher in Odissa.

Geography Class 9 West Bengal Board

Question 10. Name the largest oil mining centre in India.
Answer: Bombay High.

Question 11. Which mineral is known as ‘Liquid gold’.
Answer: Petroleum.

Question 12. Name a place in India where Lignite coal is found.
Answer: Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.

Question 13. Why petroleum in known as rock oil?
Answer: Petroleum is called rock oil as it is found in the layers of sedimentary rocks.

Question14. From where does the word petroleum has been derived?
Answer: Petra— Rock
Oleum — Oil.

Question 15. Name the state which is the largest producer of coal.
Answer: Jharkhand.

Question 16. Name the state which is the leading producer of iron ore.
Answer: Karnataka.

Question 17. Which type of iron ore is mostly found in India?
Answer: Hematite ore.

Question 18. Give an example of a natural resource.
Answer: Sunlight.

Question 19. Give an example of a national resource.
Answer: River Ganga.

Question 20. Name two Public sector undertaking engaged in the exploration And production of crude oil.
Answer: Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) and Oil India Limited (OIL).

Question 21. What do you mean by human resources?
Answer: The resources which involve man are called human resources, e.g. population.

Question 22. What type of resource is called solar energy?
Answer: Sun-heat.

Question 23. Give some examples of flow resources.
Answer: Sun, heat, air, water, etc. are examples of flow resources.

Question 24. What do you mean by Personal Resources?
Answer: These include individual material possession like cash, land, buildings, etc. and non-material possessions like moral character, knowledge and skill, sound health, etc.

Question 25. What do you mean by National Resources?
Answer: Resources owned collectively by the nation such as railways, minerals, forests, climate, soil, etc. and good government, and national character.

Question 26. Write about Ubiquitous Resources.
Answer:
Ubiquitous: These resources occur everywhere.
Example: oxygen in air.

Question27. Write about Fund Resources.
Answer:
Fund resources: These are exhaustible resources. For some of the fund resources, the declining trend can be arrested for a short period.

Question28. What is meant by tangible resources? 
Answer: Materials which can be felt by touch are known as tangible resources. For example, coal, petroleum, etc.

Question29. What do you mean by intangible resources?
Answer: Resources which does not have a material existence in other words we cannot touch them, are known as intangible resources. For example — knowledge, skill, etc.

Geography Class 9 West Bengal Board Chapter 7 Resources Of India True Or False Type

Question 1. Koyali is the largest oil refinery in India.
Answer: True

Question 2. Jharkhand is the largest producer of coal.
Answer: True

Question 3. Lohardaga is noted for bauxite.
Answer: True

Question 4. Jadugudda is noted for uranium.
Answer: True

Question 5. Talcher is noted for coal.
Answer: True

Question 6. Srisailam is a hydel power station.
Answer: True

Question 7. Loktak is a hydel power station of Manipur.
Answer: True

Question 8. Chukha is a hydel power station of Bhutan.
Answer: True

Question 9. Hydel power is pollution free.
Answer: True

Question 10. Most of the power centres of India belong to thermal power.
Answer: True

Question 11. Bhivpuri Power Station is in Maharastra.
Answer: True

Geography Class 9 West Bengal Board

Question 12. Narora is an Atomic Power Station of U.P.
Answer: True

Question13. Bhatinda Power Station is in Punjab.
Answer: True

Question14. Karnataka is the leading producer of iron ore in India.
Answer: True

Question15. Kalapakkam in Tamil Nadu is a thermal power station.
Answer: False

Question16. The heat energy obtained from the earth is called geothermal energy.
Answer: True

Question17. Burning fossil fuel minimizes environmental pollution.
Answer: False

Chapter 7 Resources Of India  Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Petroleum is referred to as_____ ________.
Answer: Liquid, gold.

Question 2. The atomic power station in Maharashtra is ________.
Answer: Tarapur.

Question 3. The first hydel power plant in India was established in 1902 in Karnataka at _____ on the river Cauvery (Kaveri).
Answer: Shivsundaram.

Question 4. The resources available everywhere on earth are called _________resources.
Answer: Ubiquitous.

Chapter 7 Resources Of India 2 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. Name some important Thermal power stations of India.
Answer:

Some important Thermal power stations are –

(1) West Bengal – Durgapur, Bandel, Kolaghat.
(2) Jharkhand – Bokaro
(3) Chattisgarh – Korba

Question 2. Name some important hydel power stations of India.
Answer:

Some important Thermal power stations are –

(1) East – Jaldhaka, Panchet, Jaldhaka, Kurseong.
(2) West – Ukai, Kadana, Gandhi Sagar, Bhola.
(3) North – Bhakra, Dehar, Binwa, Jawhar Sagar.
(4) South – Saravati, Lower sileru, Nagarjun Sagar.

Question 3. What are the principal power resources of India?
Answer:

Principal power resources of India are –

1. Coal ave
2. Mineral oil or Petroleum.
3. Water Power.
4. Atomic power.

Question 4. Why is Nunmati famous?
Answer: Nunmati is a petroleum centre. So it is famous.

Question 5. What is Sagar Samrat ?
Answer:

Sagar Samrat

Sagar Samrat is the name of a vast platform which is used to extract oil from the Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea.

Question 6. Why is the generation of non-conventional energy being emphasized in present India?
Answer:

Due to the following reasons the generation of non-conventional energy is being emphasized in present India:-
(1) Cheaper and renewable,
(2) Scarcity of fossil fuels,
(3) Rural area needs renewable sources of energy,
(4) They can be constructed anywhere because there is no question of carrying raw materials for power production.

Question 7. Mention the names of coal and petroleum mining centres of India.
Answer:

The coal mining centre is Jharia and the Petroleum mining centre is Ankleshwar.

Question 8. What is renewable energy? Give example.
Answer:

Renewable energy:- Renewable energy resources are those resources which are not fully exhausted after use. These resources can in used several times after and are not completely finished.
Examples:- Hydroelectricity, Solar energy, Biogas, Wind energy etc.

Question 9. Name the important centres of fuel minerals in West Bengal and Maharashtra.
Answer:

In West Bengal:- Asansol, Raniganj.

In Maharashtra:- Ballarpur, Tandur.

Question 10. Name any two oil-producing fields of Gujarat.
Answer: Lunez and Ankleshwar.

Question 11. Name four by-products derived out of coal.
Answer: Coal tar, Charcoal, Coke, Naphthalene.

Question 12. Name three principal mineral oil-producing centres in North-Eastern India.
Answer: Digboi, Naharkatiya and Hugrijan.

Question 13. What is meant by non-conventional energy sources?
Answer: The non-conventional energy sources are the new sources of energy that are used in place of traditional sources of energy like coal.
Examples: Solar energy, Wind energy, Biogas etc.

Question 14. Name three petroleum-producing regions of India.
Answer: Three major petroleum-producing states of India are Assam, Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 15. Name three leading iron ore-producing states of India.
Answer: Three states leading in the production of iron ore are
(1) Gova,
(2) Madhya Pradesh,
(3) Orissa.

Question 16. Mention two major characteristics of resources.
Answer:

Major characteristics of resources

(1) Utility.
(2) Functionality.

Question 17. What is meant by resource?
Answer:

Resource: Anything that has utility and can satisfy human wants may be termed as a resource.

Prof. Zimmerman, however, has given it a special meaning by adding the functionality clause. So, the non-functioning or dormant gifts of nature are termed as neutral stuff.

Question 18. Classify the resources Pine to supply and durability.
Answer:

According to mode of supply and durability, resources can be classified as

(1) Flow or inexhaustible resources,
(2) Fund or exhaustible or Non-renewable resources,
(3) Renewable resources.

Question 19. What do you mean by organic and inorganic resources?
Answer:

Organic and inorganic resources

(1) Organic Resources are derived from the flora (plants) and fauna (animals); i.e., forest, natural grassland, wildlife, fish and marine life.
(2) Inorganic Resources are inanimate resources, e.g. land, water, minerals, soil, metals, building stones and mineral fuels.

Question 20. What is meant by cultural resources?
Answer:
Cultural resources: The resources which is result from the progress of civilization are considered as cultural resources, e.g. science, seg literature, technical know-how, etc.

Question 21. What is a social resource?
Answer:

Social resource: Social resource is the resource which evolves out of the interaction of social and cultural feelings and by their development. It is a joint product of human endeavour and elements of nature.

Question 22. What is Fund or Exhaustible or Non Renewable Resources?
Answer:

Fund or Exhaustible or Non-renewable Resources: Fund resources are those which have only fixed and limited stock. They get exhausted as we use them.
Examples: coal, mineral oil, natural gas, iron ore, etc.

Question 23. What are Renewable Resources?
Answer:
Renewable Resources: The supply of some natural resources is intermittent. These resources are self-renewable, but their supply ceases for some time. Trees of the forest, grasses of the grasslands, and fertility of soil are examples of this resource.

Question 24. ‘Resources and development are interdependent’. Discuss.
Answer:

‘Resources and development are interdependent’.

Resources are the bases of both security and opulence; they are the foundations of power and wealth. At every stage of development, resources play a critical role. But for them, human survival and development would be impossible; without land, water, and air, we cannot have agriculture and without minerals, we cannot have industries.

Question 25. What do you understand by flow resources?
Answer:

Flow or Inexhaustible Resources: The supply of some natural resources is permanent. These resources are self-renewable and are known as Flow Resources, these are inexhaustible and ubiquitous. Examples are sunshine, wind, rainfall, river water etc.

Chapter-7 Resources Of India 2 Marks Questions And Answers (Short Notes)

Question 1. Importance of non-conventional energy.
Answer:

Importance of non-conventional energy

1. In contrast to conventional sources of energy, non-conventional sources of energy (solar energy, tidal energy, geothermal energy, wind energy etc.) are not used frequently and in a large scale (commercially). Their uses are comparatively more recent.

2. The sources of non-conventional energy are flow resources. There is no anxiety for their exhaustion.

3. The generation of non-conventional energy does not produce air pollution.

4. Comparatively, non-conventional energy is much cheaper.

Question 2. ONGC.
Answer:

ONGC

The oil and Natural Gas Commission is briefly known as ONGC. It was first established on 14th August 1956 to investigate the presence of mineral oil in different parts of India.

Several oil fields in India were recognised through ONGC since its initiation, such as the deltas of the rivers Godavari, Cauveri, Mahanadi and Krishna, continental shelf of the Andaman and Nicobar island, parts of Ganga plain, the continental shelf near the Sundarban etc.

Chapter 7 Resources Of India 3 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. What are the principal power resources of India?
Answer:

The principal power resources of India are –

(1) Coal
(2) Natural gas
(3) Hydro-electric power
(4) Mineral oil
(5) Solar energy
(6) Atomic energy
(7) Wind power
(8) Tidal energy.

Question 2. Give a comparative account of hydel power and Thermal power.
Answer:

Comparative account of hydel power and Thermal power

Thermal Power	Hydel Power
(1)    It is generated with coal.	(1) It is generated with the force of running water.
(2)    It is an exhaustible source of energy.	(2)    It is inexhaustible.
(3)    Cost of electricity generated from the thermal power is higher.	(3)    Cost of electricity generated from hydel power is cheaper.
(4)    Thermal power creates large-scale pollution of air.	(4)    Hydel power is environment friendly and does not create any kind of pollution.
(5)    In India almost 55% of power generated is of thermal power.	(5)    Only 5% of the power generated is from hydel power.
(6)    Thermal power plants can be located at any place far away from the market.	(6)    Hydel power should be located at places where there is steady de- mand.

 

Question 3. Why are the rivers of South India more favourable for the generation of hydel power?
Answer:

The rivers of South India are more favourable for the generation of hydel power due to the following reasons :

(1) The rivers of South India flowing over the undulating plateau and rugged topography gain momentum, and they become swift flowing for generating hydel turbines and producing hydroelectric power.

(2) The rivers of South India produce a number of rapids and waterfalls; they are favourable for hydroelectric power generation.

(3) Heavy rainwater of the monsoon season, sometimes, gives impetus for the generation of hydel power in South India.

Question 4. Why are the South Indian rivers conducive for the generation of hydel power?
Answer:

In spite of the scarcity of year-round water supply, the South Indian rivers are more conducive for the generation of hydel power. The reasons are as follows :

1. Floods are less dominant and relatively harmless.
2. Earthquakes, subsidence and snowfall are absent in entire South India.
3. Rivers are of high velocity because of the relief of the plateau.
4. Bedrocks are granitic or gneissic, on which heavy constructions are possible. Resultant, sediment is low also.
5. Sources of alternate energy is absent.
6. Industrially rich South India creates a high demand of electricity.

Question 5. Write the reasons for the development of hydroelectricity production in South India. (S.Question)
Answer:

South India is developed in hydro-electricity because of the following reasons :

(1) The region is producing mountain surfaces along with a number of gorges and canyons which are suitable for constructing dams and barrages.
(2) The region is made up of hard impervious rocks. So, there is less possibility of seepage of water.
(3) The region is not rich in coal and mineral oil
(4) Coal is found nearby. So there is a demand for power.
(5) Soil erosion is not common here as the rivers flow through hard surface.
(6) Climatic condition is suitable for the production of hydel power. The temperature of this region always remains above the freezing point.
(7) Transmission facility is also good. Produced power can easily be transmitted to the neighbouring regions.

Question 6. Describe the distribution of earthquakes. Or, Give an account of the earthquake belts of the world?
Answer:

Distribution of earthquakes

Earthquakes occur in almost every part of the world, but they are frequent in two well-defined belts.

(1) Mid.- World Mountain Belt :
This belt is located along the edges of the Pacific ocean. This belt experiences 68% earthquakes of the world. It includes North and South America, island groups of Eastern Asia and the Philippines.

(2) Mid-World Mountain Belt :
It extends along the fold mountains of Europe and Asia. It runs through the Alps, the Caucasus and the Himalayas. About 21% of earthquakes of the world originate in this belt.

(3) Other areas :
About 11% of earthquakes of the world originate in other areas such as mid – the Atlantic, Rift valley of East Africa, and Central Siberia.

Question 7. Discuss the advantages of using non-conventional energy.
Answer:

The following are the merits or advantages of using non-conventional energy over conventional energy resources :

(1) Conservation of Fund energy resources :
The utilization of non-conventional energy resources paves the way for the conservation of funds: energy resources like coal, petroleum and natural gas.

(2) Reduction in air pollution :
The uses of non-conventional energy resources prevent air pollution. It does not emit gas, bad odour, dust or debris. Thus, air pollution can be averted by the use of these energy resources.

(3) Endless energy flow :
Sun, wind, waves, and tides supply an endless flow of energy. If they can be tapped on a commercial scale, they can supply lot of energy.

(4) No recurring expenditure :
After the installation of this power plant, there is little or no expenditure for the collection of raw materials or for the payment of wages. Hence, the recurring expenditure is small.

Question 8. Classify resources on the basis of supply and durability.
Answer:

According to mode of supply and durability, resources can be classified as follows :

(1) Flow or Inexhaustible Resources :
The supply of some natural resources is permanent. These resources are self-renewable and are known as Flow Resources, these are inexhaustible and ubiquitous. Examples are sunshine, wind, rainfall, river water etc.

(2) Fund or Exhaustible or Non-renewable Resources :
Fund resources are those which have only fixed and limited stock. They are not self-renewable. They get exhausted as we use them, e.g., coal, mineral oil, natural gas, iron ore etc.

Fund resources may be further classified as (1) exhaustible and (2) revolving fund resources. Coal is an exhaustible fund resource; because once it is used, it is used up, it cannot be replaced. On the other hand, iron ore is a revolving fund resource, as it is not lost forever; it can be used again.

Question 9. Compare renewable with non-renewable resources.
Answer:

Renewable Resources :
The supply of some natural resources is intermittent. These resources are also self-renewable, but their supply ceases for some time. The supply revives again after an interval. Trees of the forest, grasses of the grasslands and fertility of soil are examples of this resource.

Non-renewable Resources :

Fund resources are those which have only fixed and limited stock. They are not self-renewable. They get exhausted as we use them.

Examples: coal, mineral oil, natural gas, iron ore etc.

Fund resources may be further classified as
(1) Exhaustible and
(2) Revolving. Coal is an exhaustible fund resource, as once it is used up, it can not be replaced. On the other hand, iron ore is a revolving fund resource, as it is not lost forever and it can be used again.

Question 10. Briefly discuss the uses of petroleum and name its by-products.
Answer:

Uses of petroleum are:-
(1) Source of industrial power.
(2) It is used in transportation (cars, buses, lorries etc.).
(3) It is used in the generation of hydel power.
(4) It is used for domestic fuel (Kerosene oil).
(5) It provides raw materials for the chemical industry, e.g. asphalt, dyes, points, terylene, synthetic, rubber etc.

The by-products of petroleum are – petrol, gasoline, diesel, PVC, Acetic acid, polystyrene, ethyl, alcohol, acetone, glycols, phenols, epoxy resins, styrene, butadiene, rubber, butyl rubber, lubricating oil, kerosene, naphtha, benzene, paraffin, vaseline, tar etc.

Question 11. State the uses of iron ore.
Answer:

Uses of iron ores :
Metallic iron is obtained from iron ores by smelting. The lump of iron obtained in this way is known as pig iron. Pig iron is reprocessed in different ways.

(1) Cas iron is formed by melting the pig iron and pouring it into a mould. It is a fragile form of. iron and can be used for making castings but cannot be shaped by hammering and pressing.

(2) Wrought iron is pure iron mixed with a little slag (iron oxide or silicate). Wrought iron resists rust and is very tough but can be hammered into shape; it is used for pipes, chains, etc.

(3) Stell is the most important product which is made by reheating the pig iron, removing impurities and adding a controlled amount of carbon and ferro-alloys.

(4) Alloy steel includes special types of steel which are made by adding a significant amount of ferroalloys like manganese, nickel, chromium, tungsten, etc.

Question 12. Explain the by-products of petroleum and their chemical uses.
Answer:

By-Products of Petroleum and their industrial uses :
By-products of petroleum have varieties of uses in petrochemical industries. These by-products are obtained by using various methods of oil distillation like fractional distillation, thermal cracking, catalytic cracking and polymerisation. Industrial uses of some of these by-products may be mentioned as follows :

(1) Ethylene :
It is also known as ethene gas which is obtained from petroleum as well a from natural gas. It is used in the synthesis of polyethene and PVC and the consuming industries are plastics and films. Ethylene oxide is used for the manufacturing of polyester fibres and detergents.

(2) Propylene :
It is an important by-product of oil refining and is also known as propane. It is used in the manufacture of many organic chemicals including polypropylene which is used in plastics and glycerine which is a raw material for nitroglycerine, printing inks, etc.

(3) Butadiene :
It is derived from butane gas obtained by refining crude oil. Synthetic rubber is manufactured by polymerisation of butadiene with sodium.

(4) Benzene :
It is obtained both from coal as well as from petroleum. It yields styrene, which is used in plastics and foams and phenol, which is used in nylons.

Question 13. Give the distribution of hydroelectric power in India.
Answer:

Distribution of hydroelectric power in India

The First hydel power plant in India was established in 1902 in Karnataka at (1) Shivasamudram on the river Kaveri. The country’s major hydro-electric power stations are located at

(1) Shivasamudram, Sima and Jog (at present Mahatama Gandhi Hydel Power Station) in Karnataka,
(2) Mettur and Papnasam in Tamil Nadu
(3) Idikki, Sabarigiri and Pallivasal in Kerala,
(4) Sileru, Manchkud, Nagarjuna Sagar in Andhra Pradesh,
(5) Vira, Vivpuri, Koyna and Khopali in Maharashtra,
(6) Rihand, Ramganga, Bhola, Sumera-Nangal in Himachal Pradesh,
(7) Hirakud and-Manchkud in Odisha and Tilaiya, Maithan, Panchet and Massanjore hydro-power station of Jharkhand, Bihar and West Bengal.

Question 14. Name some hydroelectric power projects in India.
Answer:

Major Hydroelectric Power Projects: The main projects are :

(1) The Bhakra-Nangal
(2) The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) based on the TVA (Tennessee Valley Authority) of the USA.
(3) The ‘Hirakud Project.
(4) The Tungabhadra Project
(5) The Rihand Project
(6) The Kosi Project
(7) The Nagarjunasagar Project
(8) The Chambal Valley Project.

Question 15. State few advantages and disadvantages of Nuclear power.
Answer:

Advantages Of Nuclear power :
(1) Small proportions of radioactive minerals are capable of producing large quantities of power.
(2) Does not produce greenhouse gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Disadvantages Of Nuclear power:
(1) Problem of radioactive waste disposal.
(2) Extremely expensive project.
(3) In case of explosions, radioactive materials can create far-reaching damages to the life of people.

Question 16. State the uses of solar energy.
Answer:

Uses of solar energy:

(1) Solar water heating system :
In this system water is heated up, it keeps the house warm in cold countries.

(2) Solar Cooker :
By this system sun’s heat is used for cooking.

(3) Solar Drier :
To remove humidity from any material, it is widely used. It is also used for drying.

(4) Solar Distillation :
Solar distillation is used to distil drinking water.

(5) By using solar heat we can boil water or dry the grains.

(6) By using solar electricity i.e., by solar cell sun rays are converted into electricity.

(7) Solar energy is becoming popular in various parts of the country and can be used for cooking, pumping, heating of water, refrigerator and street lighting.

Geography Class 9 West Bengal Board Chapter7 Resources Of India 5 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. Classify the major types of coal and mention the uses of coal.
Answer:

Coal is classified into major 4 types on the basis of concentration of carbon –

(1) Anthracite – (contain more than 85% carbon) –
Used for heating in cold countries.

(2) Bituminous – (Contain 50% – 85% carbon) –
It is the most important type of coal. It is most commonly used in industry for making power, melting metals.

(3) Lignite – (contain 35% to 50% carbon) –
Used for generation of thermal power.

(4) Peat – (contain less than 25% carbon) –
Used for domestic cooking.

Uses of Coal –

(1) 73% of coal produced is used for generating thermal power in India.
(2) In the production of Iron and steel coal is used as raw material.
(3) 3% produced coal is used in the production of cement.
(4). Coal is used as a domestic fuel for cooking.
(5) From coal by-products are obtained which are basically the products of chemical industries.
(6) Coal earlier was used as a transport fuel, especially for the running of railway steam engines but now steam engines have come down significantly.

Question 2. Describe in brief the coal mining regions of India.
Answer:

Coal is divided into 2 types on the basis of its age –

(1) Gondwana age Coal (Formed 250 million yrs. ago)
(2) Tertiary age coal (formed 50 million yrs. ago)

(1) Gond wana coal mining regions are -+

(1) Chattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh – Korba, Umaria, Singrauli, Pench, Chirimini, Raigadh etc.
(2) Jnakhand – Jharia, Giridh, North and South Karanpusa, Daltonganj, Ramgarh etc.
(3) Orissa – Talcher, Rampur, Himgiri etc.
(4) Andra Pradesh – East and West Godavari, Kurnool, Warangal, Adilabad, Krishna etc.
(5) Maharastra – Wasdha, Chand, Balkalpur, Nasik
(6) West Bengal – Raniganj, Asansol.

(2) Tertiary coal mining regions are –

(1) Assam – Makum, Duliajaan, Jorhat, Nowgaon, Sikhar etc.
(2) Nagaland – Bojan.
(3) Arunachal Pradesh – Namchik.
(4) Meghalaya – Langrin, Bapunj and Jaintia hills.
(5) Jammu and Kashmir – Udhampur and Kaisi.
(6) Tamil Naidu – Neyveli and Arcot.

Question 3. Classify the major types of iron one and mention their uses.
Answer:

lron ore can be classified into 4 major types on the basis of iron content. They are-

(1) Haematite –
It is a superior quality of iron ore consisting of 60% – 70% of iron. It is reddish in colour.

(2) Magnetite –
It is the most superior quality ore consisting of 72% iron but it is less available.

(3) Limonite –
It is an inferior quality ore consisting 50% – 60% iron. It is brown in colour.

(4) Siderite –
It is an inferior quality ore consisting of 30% – 40% iron. It is grey in colour.

Uses of iron ore – The following are the main uses of iron ore.

(1) Iron ore is used to make pig iron and wrought iron.
(2) Iron ore is used for the construction of buildings, bridges, railway lines and other materials for construction.
(3) Pig iron can be moulded.
(4) Iron ore is the most useful metal in the engineering industry.
(5) Iron has also got a number of domestic uses like making utensils, knife and other household items etc. Thus it can be said that “Iron is the backbone of modern civilization”.
(6) Slag obtained from iron ore is used to make furniture and also in the manufacture of cement.

Question 4. Where are thermal power stations located in eastern India? What are the factors for their growth?

Answer:

Major thermal power stations of eastern India are. –

(1) West Bengal – Durgapur, Santaldihi, Bandel.
(2) Bihar – Barauni, Chandrapur.
(3) Jharkhand – Bokaro.
(4) Orissa – Talcher.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 Notes WBBSE

The major reasons for the growth of Thermal power stations are –

(1) Easy availability of raw material –

The best quality of coal can easily be achieved from the neighbouring areas (coal mines of Asansol, Raniganj, Bokaro, Giridh, Talcher etc.). Mineral oil is also get through pipelines.

(2) Transport facility –
The region is well-connected by roadways, railways and National highways.

(3) Demand –
There is a high demand of power in this region as the region is ideal for industrial set – up. The region is densely populated. So there is a high demand of power.

(4) Presence of Industries –
The Hugli Industrial region, Asansol – Raniganj Industrial region, Durgapur industrial region, Jamshedpur, Industrial region etc. need a huge amount of power. So, their necessity brings the opportunity to install more thermal power stations.

(5) Dearth of other power stations –
Here there is no atomic power station. A little hydroelectric power are trapped. Hence for the large demand, thermal power stations. have been grown up by using coal.

Question 5. Why is the Chhotanagpur region called the ‘Store house of minerals’?
Answer:

Chhotanagpur plateau accounts for nearly 40% to 80% of minerals produced in the country. The main minerals are coal, iron ore, mica, bauxite, chromite, uranium, fire clay, limestone, feldspar, asbestos etc.

Coal:-
All the famous coal fields of India are found in the Damodar Valley region of this plateau. The fields are located at Jharia, Karanpura (North and South), Bokaro, and Ramgarh. The coal is of high quality.

Iron ore:-
High-grade iron ore is found in this plateau area. The mines are situated at Goa, Noamundi, Rajoriburu, and Budhaburu.

Mica:-
High-grade mica resources are located in Kodarma (Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand). Other mines are found in Giridih, Singur, Jnumri-Talaiya, and Domchanchi.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 Notes WBBSE

Limestone:– In the districts of Singhbhum, Hazaribagh and Ranchi.

Bauxite:- Ranchi and Palamau districts (largest mining region is Lohardaga)

Copper Ore:- Rakha, Mosabani and Sarda in Southern Jharkhand.

Uranium:- Jadugoda (in Singhbhum district).

Dolomite:- Palamau.

Vanadium :- Dublabera (Singhbhum).

Asbestos:- Singhbhum district (near the villages of Nurda, Kalimati, Bichabaru, Jojohatu and Roro Buru).

Fire clay :- Rajahara and Latehar (Palamau district).

Kyanite :- Lapsa Buru (Singhbhum).

Feldspar :- Near Crichaki Bagardih, Bendro and Kubadih (Hazaribagh) and Hundru Hill (Palamau district).

Manganese:- Chaibasa (Singhbhum district).
So, the Chhotanapur region is regarded as the storehouse of minerals.

Question 6. What are the effects of earthquakes?
Answer:

The major effects of the earthquakes can be explained under the following heads –

(1) Destructive effects –

(1) Damage to property and Lives :
Earthquakes mainly cause damage to property and life. In this concern the earthquake of 1976, 27″ July in east china, Jangshan region is of special mention which caused heavy damage, i.e., nearly ig, lakh people died.

(2) Destruction of the communicative system –
The earthquake causes heavy damage to communication and transportation systems by causing damages to railways, rail lines.

(3) Tsunami –
When there is a jerk in the ocean bed very tremendous strong high waves rise above the water’s surface. This water wave is known as Tsunami. It causes damage to the coastal regions.

(4) Break out of Fire –
Due to dislocation of electric wiring and other reasons caused due to earthquakes, fire breaks out which also causes a great loss of life and property.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 Notes WBBSE

(5) Change the course of a river –

An earthquake may change the course of rivers flowing in that area. The destructive earthquake of 1950 in Assam changed the course of the Brahmaputra river and its tributaries.

(6) Rise and sink of rock bed –
Earthquakes may cause the ground to sink or rise up. This causes cracks in the rock bed and soil structure.

(2) Constructive effects –

(1) Sometimes earthquakes cause the formation of hot springs which are very useful to people.
(2) Earthquakes sometimes cause a lake to turn into a river.
(3) Sometimes earthquakes cause the submergence of the coast and bring fertile shore out of the water to give chance to develop crop production.
(4) Earthquakes sometimes turn deep rivers and bays to shallow which helps in fishing.

Question 7. Describe in brief the meaning and definition of resources.
Answer:

Meaning and Definition of Resources: ‘Resource’ is a word which means valuables. Generally, resources mean wealth, money, gems, jewels or valuable things. But these are not considered as resources in Economic Geography.

The things, which have some utilities or functionalities to perform some duties to satisfy human and wants, i.e., the workability and functionality of things in satisfying human wants, are considered as ‘resources’ in Economic Geography.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 Notes WBBSE

Definition :

The term ‘resource’ in Economic Geography [or in Resource Study] does not necessarily mean a valuable thing or a substance, but it means the functionality of a thing (within human knowledge) which renders service or job in satisfying human needs.

Prof. E. W. Zimmermann, an eminent geographer and scholar in the field of resource studies, defines the term ‘Resources’ by saying: The word ‘resource’ does not refer to a thing or a substance but to a function which a thing or a substance may perform or to an operation in which it may take part, namely the function or operation of attaining a given end such as satisfying a want.

Thus, according to his opinion, all matters of the environment which serve and perform in satisfying human wants, their capabilities and the act of performance, may be considered as resources.

The Encyclopedia of Social Science defines, ‘Resources are those aspects of man’s environment which render possible services to facilitate the satisfaction of human wants and the attainment of social objectives’.

Thus, an inert matter or a substance or anything of the environment is not a resource but the function which it performs to attain a given end, i.e., to satisfy human needs, be considered as a resource.

Question 8. Classify the resources according to supply and durability.
Answer:

According to mode of supply and durability, resources can be classified into three groups :
(1) Flow or inexhaustible resources.
(2) Fund or exhaustible or non-renewable resources and
(3) Renewable resources.

[1] Flow or Inexhaustible Resources :
The supply of some natural resources is permanent. These resources are self-renewable and are known as Flow Resources;
they are inexhaustible and ubiquitous. Examples are sunshine, wind, rainfall, river water, etc.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer WBBSE

[2] Fund or Exhaustible or Non-renewable Resources :
Fund resources are those which have only fixed and limited stock. They are not self-renewable. They get exhausted as we use them. Examples: coal, mineral oil, natural gas, iron ore, etc.

Fund resources may be further classified as (1) exhaustible and (2) revolving fund resources. Coal is an exhaustible fund resource, as once it is used, it is used up; it cannot be replaced again. On the other hand, iron ore is a revolving fund
resource, as it is not lost forever; it can be used again.

[3] Renewable Resources :
The supply of some natural resources is intermittent. These resources are also self-renewable, but their supply ceases for some time. The supply revives again after an interval. Trees of the forest, grasses of the grasslands, and fertility of soil are examples of this resource.

Question 9. Classify the resources on the basis of the nature of ownership.
Answer:

According to the nature of ownership, resources can be classified into three types:
(1) Personal or Individual resources.
(2) National resources and
(3) International resources.

(1) Personal or Individual Resources are one’s material things, such as, money, land, factory, property, etc. and personal qualities like skill, knowledge, good health, character etc.

(2) National Resources are the sum total of the personal resources of all citizens plus resources collectively owned by the nation, such as, minerals, natural vegetation, climate, soil, good government, national character, etc.

(3) International Resources are the sum total of all the resources of all nations, such as, minerals, climates, natural vegetation of the world, resources of the seas, etc.

None of these classifications is considered as justified in the light of the functional theory of resources; because in this theory, functionality is the main criterion in recognizing a resource. But it is very difficult to classify resources according to functionality. Hence, material things are classified here according to utility and functionality, based on different opinions.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 10. What is the main component of coal? Classify coal based on it. Discuss the main uses of coal. :
Answer:

Main component of coal

Coal is a black or brown rock. It is hard, but not very heavy. It supplies more than 50 percent of the total energy resources. Coal consists mainly of carbon and is known as carbonaceous rock. It is formed by the compressed vegetative remains of past ages.

It is a fossile fuel. Most coal deposits are of carboniferous age; i.e., about 300 million years old. Recent deposits of Tertiary age are usually composed of lignite or brown coal and They represent an early stage of coal formation and they are still being formed today.

Classification of coal :

Coal can be classified into the following types according to their composition and stage of formation:

1. Peat.
2. Lignite or Brown Coal.
3. Bituminous Coal.
4. Anthracite Coal and
5. Graphite.

Main uses of Coal:

Coal is a versatile mineral. Even today it is the prime source of power. Today coal is not only used as a fuel, but as an essential raw material for various industries. The uses of coal can be outlined in the following ways :

(1) Coal in the production of steam power :
Coal is burnt as a fuel. Its heat energy raises steam and by its power wheel and machineries are run. It provides power to rail engines (locomotives) and steamships. Nowadays, the use of coal has been replaced by mineral oil and electricity.

(2) Coal in the production of electric power :
Coal is burnt to make the thermal generators active to produce thermal electricity. Thermal generators are the largest consumers. They consume about one-third of coal output.

(3) Coal as domestic fuel :
In many parts, coal is still used as very important domestic fuel. Nowadays, coal gas is produced for domestic use and for use in small industries. It has become popular.

(4) Coal as metallurgical coke :
Coke is made from coal. Even today, coking coal is essential for the metallurgical industry, particularly in the smelting of iron
and steel. It consumes about 60 per cent of the world’s coal.

(5) Coal in Chemical Industry :
The use of coal in chemical industry is of great importance. Besides supplying fuel and power, coal provides a wide range of raw materials for chemical industry.

Question 11. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of hydroelectricity.
Answer:

Advantages and disadvantages of hydroelectricity: Electricity generation is becoming more and more important in the world economy because electric power is very convenient for both domestic and industrial importance.

If coal, oil and natural gas reserves were ever exhausted, electricity could still be obtained from nuclear plants. HEP is particularly important in this respect for it is inexhaustible. Since it is generated by running water, it is a flow resource.

It is an invisible fuel which is clean and easily for consumers to use, whereas coal and oil are bulk and dirty. It is highly adaptable and is ideal for use in complex modern industries where extreme precision is required in the control of machines heaters, computers or other equipment.

HEP may have the advantage of reaching areas where the import of coal or oil would be difficult or uneconomic. HEP is indispensable in the rapidly expanding field of telecommunications. Radio, television, radar, telephone and telegraphic links including satellite links all depend on electricity.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer WBBSE

The disadvantages are the short-distance transmission of HEP and electricity cannot be stored. It is uneconomic to transport electricity over long distances. Unlike coal, oil or gas electricity supplies cannot be kept in resource, they must be used as they are generated.

This makes the management of electricity supplies very difficult, since if a power station ceases to function. There are no reserves to fall back on and electricity cuts are inevitable hydropower is the power generated by utilising the energy potential of running water.

Generation of hydropower requires a difference in height between the place where water is found and the place where it can be let down. The height may be secured in three ways :

(1) By building oe across the rivers,
(2) By taking advantage of drops or falls or steep gradients in the river bed, and
(3) By diverting the water from one river basin into, another river basin to a place at a lower level. Running water from streams, rivers and painting glaciers has long been utilised by men as a motive power.

Question 12. Briefly discuss two major non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

(1) Tidal Energy :

Tidal energy is a flow resource. It is tapped to produce electric power. France is the forerunner in harnessing tidal power to convert electric energy. A tidal power plant is installed (1961) at La Rance Estuary in France. Its generating capacity is about 8 million Kilowatts.

Tapping power from tidal energy is no doubt a tremendous success in the history of energy and power development. Russia has also set up a tidal power plant at Murmansk. The Bay of Fundy and Passamaquoddy Bay in Canada have been selected for the installation of tidal power plants.

In India, tidal power plants can be set up at a number of places, such as the peninsular coast of Kachchh and Kathiawar, near Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari) and Vivekananda Rock in South India.

(2) Solar Energy :
Using a photovoltaic cell, solar energy has been harnessed (captured) to produce electric power. A number of nations have long been on the way to set up solar power plant. France has the largest solar oven and it is installed at Odeillow on the Pyrenees.

Britain, Germany, the U.S.A., Isreal, Australia and India have made some progress in the development of solar energy plant. Britain has installed a large solar power plant on Ford Engineering Farm at Wales in Britain.

Hindustan Spinning and Weaving Mill, Mumbai, in India has been running by the solar power. A large number of pump sets have been working to irrigate arable land in western India. For furnishing light in Sagar Mela in Sagar Island of West Bengal, solar energy has been tapped. UNO and other international organisations have been encouraging the research and promotion of solar energy investigation.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 13. Discuss the physical conditions favourable for the generation of hydel power.
Answer:

Physical conditions :

(1) Warm humid climate :
Humid climate and well-distributed rainfall throughout- out the year are important for the nourishment of the rivers. Long drought period is highly unfavourable for hydropower generation. Similarly, power generation is affected if river beds are frozen during winter due to very low-temperature condition.

Climatic conditions control the volume of water. As the rotation of the turbine depends on water flow, the catchment area must receive either heavy rainfall or snowmelt water throughout the year.

(2) Rugged topography :
Mountainuous or undulated topography provides the necessary height difference for hydropower generation. As a result high initial cost of the construction of dams can be avoided. Higher force of water accelerates turbine movement and finally power generation increases.

(3) Narrow gorges and deep valleys with hard rocks are favourable factors, so that the dams can be constructed cheaply and easily.

(4) Perenniality of the rivers :
Maintenance of a steady flow of river throughout- out the year is a very important conditions for hydropower generation. Rivers which originate from the glaciers can maintain this flow because during the summer season of melting of ice.

It the source gives the required volume of water. This is particularly important in the areas where the rainfall is seasonal. In India major North Indian rivers are perennial because they originate from the Himalayan glaciers.

(5) Forest Cover :
The presence of forest cover in the catchment area of a river is indirectly helpful for hydropower generation. Forest cover reduces soil erosion and rivers are not silted up quickly. Siltation in the reservoir often restricts water flow. As a result flow of the rivers are not maintained and if dams and reservoirs are constructed, these are not choked up by the silts.

(6) Geological Structure :
Earthquake-prone areas are not suitable for the development of hydropower generation because earthquakes can change the course of a river. Construction of big dams in these areas way even induce earthquakes.

The rock structure of the hydel power lease should not be porous or permeable so that it can retain or hold the stored water and prevent any large-scale seepage. This is the main arrangement against the development of Tehri Dam project in Uttaranchal.

(7) Large space and sparse population :
These two factors are prerequisites for hydel projects. Construction of dams and machinery installation require large areas. So, the uninhabited region is favourable. Otherwise, rehabilitation of displaced people will pose problems.

(8) Presence of Lakes :
The presence of natural lakes along the course of a river is often a great advantage in HEP development, especially in areas with a seasonal rainfall distribution. They help to store flood waters and regulate river flow naturally and render the construction of dams either unnecessary or atleast easier.

Question 14. Discuss economic importance of coal.
Answer:

(1) Industrial fuel :
Coal is the prime factor for the genesis and sustenance of industrial civilisation in the world. Industrial revolution started with the large-scale use of coal as a source of power for the industry.

As a result, major industrial activities, particularly metal-based industries have been concentrated in the coal-producing areas. Examples can be cited from eastern part of U.S.A., Ruhr valley of Germany and the Durgapur-Asansol region of India.

WBBSE Geography Class 9 Chapter 7 Question Answers

(2) Raw material and fuel for iron and steel industry :
Coke, which is obtained from cooking coal, is an essential raw material for the manufacturing of steel. Besides this, coal is also used as fuel for the smelting of iron ores.

So, availability of cooking coal as well as high-grade non-cooking coal is most important for the development of iron and steel industry. Pittsburg in the U.S.A., which is located in the North Appalachian coalfield and Bokaro in India, which is located at the heart of the coalfield area can be cited as examples.

During the last 30 years, use of coal directly as fuel for iron and steel industry have rapidly declined in the developed countries due to the introduction of electric furnaces.

(3) Transport fuel :
Development of railways started by using coal as fuel for steam engines. Shipping services were also modernised by using coal as fuel at the early stage of modernisation.

So, coal played the most vital role in the initiation and expansion of modern transport system at the early stage of modernisation of economic activities. But these uses have now become obsolete not only in the developed countries but also in many of the developing countries of the world.

(4) Thermal power generation :
This is the most significant use of coal in the world in terms of the volume of consumption. Power generating sector accounts
for 2/3rd of the total consumption of coal in India.

In U.S.A., this figure is around 90% of the total coal consumption. Lignite coal, which is unsuitable for direct use in industry, can conveniently be used for thermal power generation. But coal types with high sulphur and high ash content are unfavourable for power generation.

Development of thermal power plants becomes a key factor for the development of industrial and commercial activities in many areas of the world.

(5) Domestic fuel :
Domestic use of coal, although limited, has great significance in the developing countries. In these countries, coal is used for domestic cooking and heating, and generally medium grades of bituminous coal are used for this purpose. In some places of northern temperate region, anthracite coal is also used for domestic heating during winter season.

Question 15. Mention the different sources of non-conventional energy and state their importance.
Answer:

Major non-conventional sources of energy are :

(1) tidal energy.
(2) solar energy.
(3) wind energy.
(4) geothermal energy.
(5) biogas energy and so on.

Importance of non-conventional energy —

(1) Conservation of fund energy resources :
The utilization of the non-conventional energy resources paves the way for the conservation of fund energy resources like coal, petroleum and natural gas.

(2) Reduction in air pollution :
The use of non-conventional energy resources prevents air pollution. It does not emit gas, bad odour, dust or debris. Thus, air pollution can be averted by the use of these energy resources.

(3) Endless energy flow :
Sun, wind, waves, tides supply endless flow of energy. If they can be tapped on commercial scale, they can supply lot of energy.

(4) No recurring expenditure :
After the installation of this power plant, there is little or’no expenditure for collection of raw materials or for the payment of wages. Hence, the recurring expenditure is small.

Question 16. State the major uses of petroleum.
Answer:

Uses of Oil :

Mineral oil serves as a fuel, a lubricant, an illuminant and a raw material for a wide range of industries. Its by-products are many and used in the chemical, pharmaceutical, textile and many other industries.

It is the feedstock for number of useful petrochemicals. They are of great uses of mankind. A number of useful products and by-products are obtained at time of refining the crude oil.

They are Petrol, Gasoline, Diesel, PVC, Acetic acid, Polystyrene, Ethyl alcohol, Acetone, Glycols, Phenols, Epoxy resins, Styrene butabiene, Rubber, Butyl rubber, Lubricating oil, Kerosene, Naphtha, Benzene, Paraffin, Vaseline, Tar, etc. The major uses of mineral oil in its many different forms may be summed up as follows :

WBBSE Geography Class 9 Chapter 7 Question Answers

(1) Transportation :
Petrol (gasoline) and diesel are used to drive vehicles.

(2) Industrial Power :
Nowadays boilers and furnaces use fuel oils (and natural gas) instead of coal.

(3) Heating and Lighting :
Kerosene is widely used for lighting, heating and cooking. Some of the petroleum-derived gases, especially propane and butane
are gaining popularity as domestic fuel.

(4) Lubricants :
Vehicles and machineries of all types need lubricants and greases which are the processed products of mineral oil.

(5) Other uses :
Asphalt, pitch or tar are used for road surfacing, petroleum wax for making candles and so on.

Question 17. Classify Resource.
Answer:

Classification of Resource :

Basis of Classification	Type of Resource	Salient Features	Examples
1.  Resource creating	(1) Natural resource	Directly available from the nature	Forest, minerals, water
factors	(2) Human resource	Ability of  man to develop resource	Physical power and brainpower
	(3) Cultural	Material and non-material culture	Knowledge, skill,
	resource	used for resource development	initiative
2.  Nature of	(1)Flow	Inexhaustible or renewable	Sunlight, running water
availability	(2)Fund	Stored-up supply and exhausted after the use	Coal, petroleum, iron ores
3.  Frequency	(1) Ubiquitous	Available everywhere	Sunlight, air
of occurrence	(2) Common	Available in many places	Soil, water
	(3) Rare	Available in a few places	Coal, petroleum
	(4) Unique	Available only in one place	Cryolite in Greenland
4. Existence	(1)Tangible	Material existence of resource (something which can be felt by touch)	Copper, coal
	(2) Intangible	Identified only by its functionality (cannot be felt by touch)	Teachingskillofa teacher
5. Ownership	(1) Individual	Functionality enjoyed on the basis of individual ownership	Agricultural land of a farmer
	(2) National	Ownership belonging to a country	River Ganga
	(3) World	Benefits enjoyed by all the people	Marine resources in the open sea

 

Question 18. Explain the types of resources.
Answer:

(1) On the basis of resource-creating factors :
Nature, man and culture are three resource-creating factors. Accordingly, resources may be classified as natural resources, human resources and cultural resources.

(1) Natural resource :
Resources which are directly available from nature are called natural resources. These include sunlight, minerals, water, forest, etc.

(2) Human Resources:
The physical power and brain power of man comprise human resources. Development of human resource is considered as a key to eco-
nomic and social development of a country.

(3) Cultural resources:
This resource is developed by the brain power of man. It includes knowledge, skill, literacy, religion, etc.

(2) On the basis of the nature of availability (or renewability) :
On the basis of the nature of availability, resources may be classified as follows :

 

(3) Flow Resource :

(1) Inexhaustible flow :

If the supply of a resource is continuous and the total availability remains unchanged irrespective of the rate of utilisation, then it is termed as an inexhaustible flow resource; for example, sunlight, salinity of the seawater, tidal waves, etc.

Availability of this type of resource is totally time-independent. For this reason, efforts are being made all over the world to develop the utilisation of inexhaustible flow resources.

(2) Renewable flow :
Supply of this resource is also continuous, but the continuity is maintained due to the natural process of self-renewal; for example, forest, running water of a river, fish, fertility of the soil, etc.

It may increase or decrease with time depending on natural conditions and the rate of exploitation. When the exploitation of a renewable for resource is greater than the renewability itself, then the availability gradually declines.

After a certain period of time it may be totally exhausted. In this case, a flow resource becomes a fund resource and it is known as interrupted flow or ‘choked’ flow resource. Examples may be cited from the completely deforested area of some parts of the lower Himalayan region in the western Himalayas. ‘

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(4) Fund resource :

(1) Revolving fund :
Fund resources, by definition, is an exhaustible resource. But there are some fund resources which can be recycled up to a certain limit and hence the declining trend can be arrested fora short period. For example, lron is a fund resource. But if the iron scraps are recycled in an iron and steel industry, then it becomes a revolving fund resource.

(2) Non-revolving fund :
Non-revolving fund resource may simply be described as a fund resource, the availability of which will decline with time and the rate of decline will be proportional to the rate of exploitation; for example utilisation of coal and petroleum as fuel.

Question 19. Give an account of the fund and flow resources in India.
Answer:

(1)On the basis of frequency of occurrence :

On the basis of frequency of occurrence, the resources may the classified as follows :

(1) Ubiquitous occurrence :
These are the resources which are available everywhere on the earth; for example, oxygen in the air. These resources do not
influence the locational pattern of any economic activity.

(2) Common occurrence :
These are the resources which are available in many places; for example, agricultural soil, water, etc.

(3) Rare occurrence :
These are the resources which occur in few places of the earth; for example, petroleum, coal, etc. Availability of these resources may significantly influence the locational pattern of economic activities.

(4) Unique occurrence :
It is the resource which occurs only in one place; for example, cryolite in Greenland.

(2) On the basis of existence :
On the basis of existence, may be classified into two types :

(1) Tangible resource :
Something which can be felt by touch is known as tangible. In other words, tangible resource has a material existence. For example, coal is a material. When it is used as a resource, it is called tangible resource.

(2) Intangible resources:
A resource which does not have a material existence is known as an intangible resource. In other words, it cannot be felt by touch. It is identified by its functionality. So, it is an on-material resource. For example, the knowledge and skill of a teacher are considered as non-material or intangible resources.

(3) On the basis of ownership :
On the basis of ownership, three types of resources may be identified:

(1) Individual resource :
When the functionality of a resource is enjoyed by an individual on the basis of ownership, it is known as an individual resource. For example, agricultural land owned by a farmer is an individual resource.

(2) National resource :
When the ownership of a resource belongs to a country and the people enjoy its functionality as the citizens of the country, it is known as national resource. For example, river Ganga is our national resource.

Question 20. Make a comparison between coal, petroleum And hydropower.
Answer:

Comparison between coal, petroleum And hydropower

Attributes	Coal	Petroleum	Hydropower
1. Type of resource	Fund resource which is exhausted with use	Fund resource which is exhausted with use.	Renewable flow resources which does not decline with use.
2. Importance as energy source.	2nd largest source of primary energy and accounted for 25.6% of the world’s total in 2004.	largest source of primary energy and accounted for 37% of the world’s total in 2004.	4th largest source of primary energy and accounted for 6.6% of the world’s total in 2004
3. Exploitation of energy source	It is used after mining.	It is used after mining and reigning.	It is used directly by constructing dams and reservoirs.
4. Storage	Coal can be stored when it is not used.	Petroleum can be stored when it is not used.	Hydropower cannot be stored.
5. Transport	It is buly and can be transported by rail or road transport	It is liquid and can be transported by pipeLInes.	Power source (running water) cannot be transport but electricity is transmitted by transmission cables.
6. Cost	Cost of production is HIGH	Cost of production is high.	Cost of production is low due to very low recurring cost It is described as ‘dean’ source of power.
7. Cleanliness	It is most unclean.	It is deaner than coal.	It is non-polluting source of power.
8. Pollution	It causes high degree of environmental pollution.	Environmental pollution is high, but less than coal	Market should be located near the hydropower generating stations
9. Market	Market may be located far from the mining areas and transport cost becomes high.	Market may be located far from the mining areas but transport cost is less than that of coal.	It is used only domestically.
10. Trade	Export and import trades are found.	Export and import trades are found.	Only in certain cases, surplus power may be sold to the neighbouring countries.
11. Use	Other than energy source, it is also used as source of’ raw materials c; seme Chemical industries.	It is a soiree of fuel and non-fuel products.	It is used only for the generation of electricity.
12.Future prospect	It is declining importance as a source of power, primarily due to the environmental reasons.	It is not expected to last for a long time due to its increasing consumption.	Only 15% of hydropower potential is presently used and it has a great future as a ‘dean’ source of power.

 

Question 21. State the significance of non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

Significance of Non-conventional sources of Energy :

Non-conventional energy sources include those which are not commonly used as energy sources. a With the exception of coal, petroleum, natural gas, hydropower and nuclear power all other sources of energy may be regarded as non-conventional as these are not listed as commercial sources.

But for the practical purpose, major non-conventional sources of energy include in exhaustible energy resources like solar energy, tidal power, geothermal energy and wind energy. Emphasis on the development of these sources of energy is significant due to the following reasons :

(1) These non-conventional energy resources are inexhaustible flow resources. So, availability of these sources is constant irrespective of the utilisation patterns. This is highly significant in view of declining reserves of the fossil fuels.

Class ix Geography Book WBBSE

(2) Non-conventional energy resources are regarded as the energy resources of the future because it is estimated that the supply of conventional sources will fail to keep pace with the increasing demand for energy resources. So, the gap has to be filled up by non-conventional sources.

(3) Environmental pollution is a major threat to the mankind and burning of fossil fuels has been increasing the pollution level. But non-conventional sources are non-polluting and hence the development of these sources is essential to save the environment.

(4) Increase in the use of non-conventional energy will extend the lifespan of conventional fund energy resources.

(5) Non-conventional energy resources are cost-efficient in the long run as the material cost is nil.

Question 22. Explain the major iron ore-producing regions in India.
Answer:

Distribution: The main iron ore deposit areas in India are :

Chhattisgarh: The important areas are Bailadilla, Bastar district; Durg district. These deposits are supplied to the iron and steel factory at Bhilai.

 

 

Jharkhand :
A large deposit of iron ore estimated at 1,500 million tonnes has been recently found at Chiria in Singhbhum district of Jharkhand. Singhbhum and Palamau are the important districts.

Orissa :
The Iron ore deposits in Orissa belong to the haematite variety containing 55 to 68 per centurion content. Keonjhar, Mayurbhanj, Sambalpur, Sundargarh, Cuttack, Koraput have iron ores. The steel plants located at Asansol, Bokaro, Durgapur, Jamshedpur and Rourkela receive their supplies of iron ore from these deposits in Orissa.

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Karnataka :
It has large reserves of magnetite and haematite. Bababudan hills in Chikmaglur district, Sandur, Bellary and Hospet districts as well as Shimoga and Chitradurga districts in Karnataka are important areas for iron ores. Kudremukh, which means horse’s mouth, has estimated deposits of 1,000 million tonnes. These deposits provide raw materials for the Bhadravati Ironworks.

Goa :
Goa has vast deposits of iron ore. It supplies iron for domestic use as well as for export. However, the iron ore of Goa is of inferior limonite and siderite variety. In Goa, the richer and larger deposits are confined to north Goa.

Andhra Pradesh :
In Andhra Pradesh, the iron ore-producing areas are scattered through Anantpur, Khammam, Krishna, Kurnool, Cuddapah and Nellore. The iron content in these deposits vary from 55 to 62 per cent.

 

Tamil Nadu :
Iron ore is found in Salem, North Arcot, Tiruchirapalli, Coimbatore and Madurai.

Maharashtra :
Iron ore deposits are found in the Ratnagiri and Chandrapur districts.

The other areas where minor deposits of iron ore are prevalent include Assam, West Bengal, UP, Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 23. Explain the major petroleum-producing region in India.
Answer:

Distribution :
The entire oil production of India so far comes from the Assam- Arakan belt, the Gujarat Cambay belt and the Bombay High offshore zone. The first belt runs from extreme northeast of Assam to the eastern border of the Brahmaputra and Surma Valley. The second belt extends from Mahesana (Gujarat) in the north to the continental shelf off the coast of Ratnagiri (Maharashtra) in the south.

In order of importance, the main areas of mineral oil deposits are :

(1) Mumbai High :
In Maharashtra, about 176 km of Mumbai in the Arabian Sea, a huge oil deposit, known as Mumbai High, was struck in 1974. Mumbai High is the most productive oilfield and has a reserve of 5 crore tonnes of oil.

Mumbai High is so called because of the height of the syncline of the rock structure in which the oil has been struck. It is higher than the normal height and oil is taken from the depth of over 1,400 metres with the help of a specially designed platform known as ‘Sagar Samrat’. It is a self-propelled jack-up type of drilling platform.

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(2) Oilfields of Eastern Region :
India’s oldest important oil-bearing area in the eastern part of the Himalayas is Assam. Digboi oilfield situated in the Lakhimpur district of upper Assam is the biggest oilfield in India. Moran, Bappapung, Hausanpung and Hugirijang also have oilfields.

(3) Oilfields of Western Region :
In Gujarat, Cambay basin is the site of the main oil-bearing sand. The other oilfields of importance are Kalol, Koyali, Kosamba, Sanand, Kathana, Ankleshwar and Navgaon in Gujarat.

Besides these oilfields, a number of potential oil-bearing fields have been discovered in the states of Tripura, Punjab, Nagaland, Gujarat, West Bengal and Jammu and Kashmir and also in the Cauvery, the Krishna and the Godavari basins in the south.

Question 24. Explain the coal-producing regions in India.
Answer:
Distribution :
Resources-wise coal occupies the place of pride in the list of mineral resources in India. India ranks third in the world after the USA and China in coal production.

In India, coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely, Gondwana, little over 200 million years in age and in Tertiary deposits which were found at a much later geological epoch i.e., about 55 million years ago.

India does not have extensive deposits of the highest grade (90% carbon) anthracitve coal. The coal of the Gondwana fields of bituminous quality (50% to 80% of carbon) is mostly available in India.

(1) Gondwana Coal Fields :
It accounts for 98 per cent of the total reserves of coal in India. Gondwana coal is almost free from moisture and contains sulphur and phosphorus in small variable quantities. The important coal-bearing formations are collectively known as Damudas and belong to the lower Gondwana system.

Gondwana coals are largely confined to the river valleys like those of Damodar, Mahanadi and Godavari. The major resources of Gondwana coal are located in coalfields occupying the Indian heartland in the states of West Bengal, Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. These coalfields account for four-fifths of India’s coal reserves.

(2) Tertiary Coal Fields :
The Tertiary coal fields of India as compared to the Gondwana coal, usually possess a higher moisture content, more sulphur and are associated with marine sediments. They are found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland.

Besides, brown coal or lignite occurs in coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and inland basin of Rajasthan. The Neyveli lignite field in Tamil Nadu is the largest lignite deposit in South India.

Question 25. State the types of coal.
Answer:

On the basis of fuel value and other characteristics, coal can primarily be divided into three types :
(1)Lignite
(2)Bituminous and anthracite.

(1) Lignite :
It is a soft and brown-coloured coal with high moisture and high volatile matter. Carbon content varies between 35% to 50%. Spontaneous combustion and breaking up during drying make the transport of this coal difficult. This coal is not suitable as industrial fuel due to the lack of coking constituents, low carbon content and other disadvantageous properties.

Major uses of this coal include generation of electricity and raw material for chemical industry. In 2004, lignite accounted for 16% of the world’s total coal production.

(2) Bituminous :
The colour of this coal varies from dark brown to black and the carbon content varies from 50% to 85%. This coal ranges between high volatile to low volatile groups and low volatile high-grade coal possesses coking constituent which is essential for making steel.

Bituminous coal has the most wide-ranging uses depending on the grades of bituminous coal. High-grade bituminous coal is used as fuel for industries and as raw material for iron and steel industries.

Other grades are used as household coal, gas coal, steam coal and as raw materials for chemical industries. In 2004, bituminous coal accounted for 78% of the world’s total coal production.

Class ix Geography Book WBBSE

(3) Anthracite :
This is the hardest type of coal with 95% carbon content and insignificant volatile matter. It does not possess coking property. It does not ignite easily, but once lighted, it burns for a long time.

This coal does not have much of industrial importance. It is best used for domestic heating in the temperate countries. In 2004, anthracite accounted for only 6% of the world’s total coal production.

Question 26. Write a note on Geothermal energy.
Answer:

Geothermal Energy :
In volcanic regions of the world, the underground rocks get very hot. They represent a very useful source of energy that is beginning to be tapped. It is known as geothermal (earth-heat) energy. The Geological Survey of India has also identified 340 hot springs in the country where geothermal energy can be exploited.

Geothermal energy has been used for centuries all over the world, even to heat public baths and health spas. Sometimes the water trickling down into the hot rocks is heated so much that it turns to steam, which may be forced back to the surface and erupt as a geyser. This steam is harnessed to drive electricity generators in the forms of geothermal power plants, e.g. the hot springs at Manikaram in Himachal Pradesh.

The thermal energy, stored in the crust of the earth up to a depth of 3 km is manifest in the form of hot springs in geothermal gradients, particularly in thick sedimentary basins like the upper Brahmaputra valley in Assam and the Sabarmati valley in Gujarat.

There are three ways in which geothermal energy can be utilized. First, the hot waters and superheated dry steam can be directly conveyed to power plants to operate the generator turbines as is done in coal-based thermal plants Second, the surface water penetrates the fractured rocks in the deep interior of the geothermal area through deep wells in order to heat and vaporize it.

It is then brought back to run the turbines. Third, the heat exchange, containing liquid having a low boiling point, is immersed in the underground well. The liquid vaporizes and returns to the surface and runs the generator.

The Regional Research Laboratory in Jammu in Puga Valleys is using geothermal energy in poultry farming, mushroom growing, heating homes, offices, factories, and even greenhouses. A similar programme is being held in Parvati Valley in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 27. Write a note on Wind Energy.
Answer:
Wind Energy :

Definition: The energy which produces from wind is called wind energy.

Generation of wind energy :
The USA is the first one for using and generating of wind energy. In 1997, approximately 300-megawatt wind energy produced from here. 75% wind energy of the world is produced from California. India is in the 5th wind energy-producing country. There are 208 wind-energy plants are in India till now.

Lamba of Gujarat is the biggest wind-energy-producing centre in Asia. The process of wind plant at Sundarban is going on. Wind energy is a cheap and clean energy resource. This energy requires only initial cost on the establishment of the wind farm. Our country has a wind power potential of 20,000 MW.

About 85 sites with a potential of 4500 MW have been identified in the country. The major wind power plants are located at Muppandal and Nagercoil in Tamil Nadu. Wind power plant at Lamba in Gujarat in the Gulf of Kutchh is the largest in India and third largest in Asia.

Question 28. Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

Difference between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy

Subject	Conventional Energy	Non-conventional Energy
Definition	The energy resources which are widely used in modem ages called conventional energy. Ex- Thermoelectric, Hydro-electric, Nuclear energy.	The energy resources which have Utie uses called non-conventional energy. Ex- Solar energy, wind energy, organic energy etc
Source	Minerals are the main sources of conventional energy Ex-coal, petroleum, etc.	Unlimited and renewable energy of nature are the sources of norKom«national energy. Ex-Sunkght, wind flow; ocean wave etc
Supply	Sources of conventional energy are not renewable. Ex-coal, petroleum.	Sources of nonconventional energy or renewable resources. Ex- Sunlight, wind flow, etc
To be used by	This type of energy has great possibility to be exhausted up for huge uses of it Ex-some important coal mines of the world is empty now.	This type of energy is produced unlimitedly and renewable resource. So it has a minor or no chance to be spent up.
Pollution	Except hydroelectric power conventional resources pottutethe atmosphere. For instance, during the production of thermal energy and atomic energy the air is polluted entensjvety	This type of energy doesn’t pollute the environment
Producing cost	Production cost is very high. So, it is	Production cost is comparatively very low. So,
Extension	This energy is widely used in our modem	The extension of this energy is very little.

 

Group A Write The Correct Answer From The Given Alternatives:

Question 1. The process by which, the elevation of the earth surface decreases, is called:
1. Volcanic
2. Aggradation
3. Deposition
4. Degradation

Answer: 4. Degradation

Question 2. The highland between two river basins is called:
1. Water divide
2. River terrace
3. Natural levee
4. Doad

Answer: 1. Water divide

Question 3. A lake carved out by glacier is:
1. Corrie lake
2. Playa lake
3. Ox-bow lake
4. Lagoon

Answer: 1. Corrie lake

Question 4. Plain formed by wind deposition is called:
1. Dune
2. Hamada
3. Dhrian
4. Loess

Answer: 4. Loess

Question 5. Lakes containing saline water in the Sahara desert are called:
1. Shotts
2. Balson
3. Dhand
4. Tal

Answer: 1. Shotts

Question 6. The union territory of Ladakh is separated from:
1. Telangana
2. Jammu & Kashmir
3. Uttarakhand
4. Jharkhand

Answer: 2. Jammu & Kashmir

Question 7. The valley between Siwalik and Lesser Himalaya is called:
1. Bhavan
2. Khadar
3. Karewa
4. Dun

Answer: 4. Dun

Question 8. The largest river valley project of India is:
1. Hirakund
2. Bhakra-Nangal
3. Nagarjun Sagar
4. Rana Pratap Sagar

Answer: 2. Bhakra-Nangal

Question 9. “Burst of Monsoon” is first observed in:
1. Kerala
2. Karnataka
3. Meghalaya
4. West Bengal

Answer: 1. Kerala

Question 10. “Chandan” tree grows in the region of:
1. Tropical evergreen vegetation
2. Tropical deciduous vegetation
3. Tropical desert vegetation
4. Coniferous vegetation

Answer: 2. Tropical deciduous vegetation

Question 11. The Central Coffee Research Institute of India is located at:
1. Jorhat
2. Bengaluru
3. Chikmagalur
4. Coimbatore

Answer: 3. Chikmagalur

Question 12. The most important center of IT industry in West Bengal is at:
1. Durgapur
2. Kharagpur
3. Sector – V, Salt Lake
4. Siliguri

Answer: 3. Sector – V, Salt Lake

Question 13. According to Indian Census, the minimum population of an urban center is
1. 4000
2. 5000
3. 6000
4. 7000

Answer: 2. 5000

Question 14. The biggest port city of India is:
1. Haldia
2. Chennai
3. Kolkata
4. Mumbai

Answer: 4. Mumbai

Group B If The Statement Is True, Write ‘True’ And If False, Write ‘False’ Against The Following (Answer Any Six Statements):

Question 1. Cusec is the unit used for measuring river velocity.
Answer: False

Question 2. A floating ice mass in the sea is called an iceberg.
Answer: True

Question 3. Sri Lanka is a neighboring country that shares a boundary with India.
Answer: False

Question 4. Aravalli in India is an example of a young fold mountain.
Answer: False

Question 5. ogtak is the largest lagoon of India.
Answer: False

Question 6. The “Central Forest Research Institute of India” is located at Dehradun.
Answer: True

Question 7. One of the forest-based industries of India is the paper industry.
Answer: True

Fill In The Blanks With Suitable Words (Answer Any Six):

Question 1. The Nile delta is _______ shaped.
Answer: arcuate

Question 2. The highland between two adjacent corries is called ______.
Answer: Arate

Question 3. the highest mountain peak of South India is _______.
Answer: Anaimudi

Question 4. The Brahmaputra is known as ______ in Arunachal Pradesh.
Answer: Dihang/ Dibang/Seong

Question 5. The dust storms developed during summer seasons in North-West India is known as ______.
Answer: India

Question 6. _______ soil is ideal for the growth of mangrove forests.
Answer: Saline / Coastal / Physiological Desert

Question 7. Jamnagar is famous for ______ industry.
Answer: Oil refining & Petrochemical

Answer In One Or Two Words (Any Six):

Question 1. Which bank of a river meander experiences more erosion?
Answer: Concave slope / Outer bend

Question 2. At which altitude, the snow line is found in polar region?
Answer: sea level / 0 meter

Question 3. Name the sand dunes formed parallel to the wind direction.
Answer: Self-dunes / longitudinal dunes

Question 4. What is ‘Tal’ in Western Himalaya?
Answer: Lakes /Glacial Lake / Water body

Question 5. In which the State of India, does the lower course of river Ganga lies?
Answer: West Bengal

Question 6. Name a farming technique that prevents soil erosion on the hill slopes.
Answer: Terrace Farming / Contour Farming / Strip Farming

Question 7. Which State of India ranks first in sugarcane production?
Answer: Uttar Pradesh

Question 8. Where was the first cotton mill set up in India?
Answer: Ghusuri (West Bengal)

Match The Left Column With The Right Column:

Left Column                                                   Righ Column
Namcha Barwa                                            1. Rajasthan
Majuli                                                          2. Odisha
Marusthali                                                   3. The peak of Eastern Himalaya
Paradweep                                                  4. Brahmaputra

Answer:
Namcha Barwa : 3. The peak of Eastern Himalaya
Majuli: 4. Brahmaputra
Marusthali: 1. Rajasthan
Paradweep: 2. Odisha

Group C Answer The Following Questions In Brief (Alternatives Should Be Noted):

Question 1. Define “gradation”
Answer:

Gradation

Gradation is the process of leveling of the land by natural agents like rivers, groundwater, winds, glaciers, and sea waves. The processes in gradation are erosion, transportation, and deposition.

Or, What is alluvial cone?
Answer:

Alluvial cone

As the river comes suddenly from its upper course to its middle course, its velocity decreases and its sediments are deposited along with the flow of the river resembling the shape of a cone or fan. This is known as the Alluvial cone.

Question 2. What do you mean by “piedmont glacier”?
Answer:

Piedmont glacier

In temperate regions, the snow line descends quite low. Here small glaciers descend at the foot of the mountains and start meeting with each other. It is called the piedmont glacier.

Or, Define “transverse dune”.
Answer:

Transverse dune

A large, strongly asymmetrical, elongated dune lying at right angles to the prevailing wind direction. Transverse dunes have a gently sloping windward side and a steeply sloping leeward side. They generally form in areas of sparse vegetation and abundant sand.

Question 3. What do you mean by “Maidan”?
Answer: A wide flat land area whose height is generally low. Generally, flat and wide areas up to 150 meters above sea level are called plains.

Or, What is “Rann of Kutch”?
Answer:

Rann of Kutch

The Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh located in the Thar Desert in the Kutch District of Gujarat. Also referred to as the White Desert, it is about 30,000 sq. km. in size and is reputed to be one of the largest salt deserts in the world.

Question 4. Define “Western Disturbance”.
Answer:

Western Disturbance

During the winter season cyclonic disturbances come from the Mediterranean region. They enter India from the northwest and give some rainfall to the North Western India, Gangetic plains and snowfall in the Himalayan region. These depressions coming from the west disrupt the quiet weather in winter and, therefore, are called Western Disturbances.

Or, What do you mean by “Agro-Forestry”?
Answer:
Agro-Forestry: Agroforestry is a part of social forestry and represents the intermediate stage between forestry and agriculture. Agro-forestry refers to “the sustainable system of managing a piece of land through combined production of agricultural crops and forest crops and animal rearing, to ensure the most efficient land use under a management system in accordance with socio-cultural practices of the local people”. Agro-forestry aims to provide conservation of the land and its improvement in order to achieve a combined production of forest and agricultural crops.

Question 5. Define “Terrace Cultivation”.
Answer:

Terrace Cultivation

Terrace cultivation, is a method of growing crops on the sides of hills or mountains by planting on graduated terraces built into the slope.

Or, What are commercial crops?
Answer:

Commercial crops

In Commercial agriculture, crops that are in high demand, i.e. crops that need to be exported to other countries or are used as raw materials in industries are produced mainly.

Question 6. What do you mean by “pure raw materials”?
Answer:

Pure raw materials

An element that does not change its weight or mass when it is turned into the finished product. It contains no impurities that are burnt off or removed so the weight will remain the same.

Or, What is “North-South Corridor”?
Answer:

North-South Corridor

The National Highway that connects Srinagar in the North to Kanyakumari in the south, via Salem and Cochin, is known as the North-South corridor. This is about 4,000 km long.

Group D Give A Brief Explanatory Answer Of The Following (Alternatives Should Be Noted):

Question 1. Explain why wind erosion dominates in the hot desert regions.
Answer:

Although the wind blows over the whole of the earth, its action is predominant in arid regions. This is because:

1. No obstacle in wind direction: In desert regions, due to lack of rainfall, there is no or very less vegetation cover. Thus wind blows unhindered at high speed.
2. Loose and exposed soil: Lack of vegetation makes the soil loose and exposed to wind action.
3. High diurnal range of temperature: Great difference between day and night temperature causes rocks to crack and break due to contraction and expansion. This makes the work of the wind easier.

Or, State the differences between tributaries and distributaries.
Answer:

The differences between tributaries and distributaries

1. Brahmaputra valley is drained by the river Brahmaputra and its tributaries. The region is prone to earthquakes, so the river is changing its course very often, causing floods,
2. Sometimes river beds are raised because of earthquakes causing floods,
3. The river has taken a zig-zag course. So during rainy seasons, its banks are over-flooded with rainwater,
4. Deposition of silt at the river bed, making the river shallow and causing floods.

Question 2. Explain briefly three effects of climatic changes observed in the Sundarban region.
Answer:

Effects of climatic changes observed in the Sundarban region

Global warming and climate change compound the dangers to the Sundarbans. These low-lying mangrove forests are highly susceptible to the effects of sea-level rise-including inundation of coastal areas, increased exposure to storm surges, in- creased coastal erosion, and rising salinity in ground and surface waters.

Or, Mention three differences between river valley and glaciated valley.
Answer:

Differences between river valley and glaciated valley

Basis	River Valley	Glaciated Valley
1. Shape	V-shaped or l-shaped.	U-shaped.
2. Creating an agent	Flowing water of the river.	Sliding ice of the glacier.
3. Process of erosion	Corrasion as well as corrosion.	Abrasion and plucking.
4. Time of predominance	Predominates in the present day.	Predominated in the past during ice ages.
5. Origin and termination	Originates at the end of the glaciers and terminates at the oceans.	Originates at the high mountain slopes and terminates at the mountain bases below the snowline.
6. Superimposition	Now, river valleys are superimposed on the past valleys by glaciers.	During the ice ages, glacial valleys were superimposed on the previous valleys carved out by rivers.

Question 3. Write three differences between the Eastern and Western Ghat mountain ranges.
Answer:

Differences between the Eastern and Western Ghat mountain ranges

Or, Explain why deltas are not formed at the mouth of west flowing rivers of India.
Answer:

The slope of the Western Ghats is steep and that is the reason that these rivers have a rapid flow. They don’t have to travel much distance to drain into the sea. As a result, they don’t carry many sediments required to form deltas.

1. The eastward slope consists of the Deccan plateau. In other words, the western coast is higher when compared to the eastern coast. Thus there is no ground presented for delta-based formation.
2. The west-flowing rivers come from the western ghat. The western coast consists of hard rocks. So it is not possible.
3. The hard rocks don’t allow west-flowing rivers to widen their mouth. Hence they formed estuaries instead of deltas.

Question 4. Analyse three factors responsible for the development of IT industry in India.
Answer:

Factors for the Growth of It sector in India: This industry has flourished in India because of certain factors:

1. The Government of India has started the ‘Digital India’ project which has given IT a secured position inside and outside India.
2. The IT sector in India is generating 2.5 million direct employment. So, India has become one of the biggest IT capitals of the modern world.
3. Bengaluru is considered to be the Silicon Valley of India because it is the leading IT exporter. Exports dominate the industry and constitute about 77% of total industry revenue.
4. India provides a large domestic market for this industry.
5. The top 5 Indian IT Service Providers are Tata Consultancy Services, Infosys, Cognizant, Wipro and HCL Technologies.
6. The Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) is owned by the government. These parks in different cities provide satellite links to be used by firms.
7. The government also allowed individual companies to have their own dedicated links which allowed work done in India to be transmitted abroad directly.
8. A number of cities in India are developing IT infrastructure and are taking part in software exports.
9. Indian Institute of Information Technology is set up to create a pool of technically literate individuals for its growing industry.
10. High concentration of IT companies and quality research and development institutions throughout India also contribute to its growth.

Or, Why population density is very high in Ganga plain?
Answer:

The Ganga plains of India have a high population density due to many reasons. The northern plains have been densely populated for centuries due to fertile land, availability of water and economic activities. Rivers like Ganga, and Yamuna provide large tracts of fertile land apart from water. Also, the terrain is not a difficult one to travel.

The moderate climate, and fertile land support extensive agriculture. The topography is good for transport and industries. Due to the availability of even fertile land and water, prefer settling in the northern plains as opposed to the desert areas of northwest India.

Group E Answer Any Two Questions From The Following:

Question 1. Describe with sketches three landforms produced by depositional work of river in its middle course.
Answer:

The main features formed by a river in its middle course are

1. Alluvial fan or Alluvial cone: As the river comes suddenly from its upper course to its middle course, its velocity decreases and its sediments are deposited along with the flow of the river resembling the shape of a cone or fan. This is known as Alluvial Fan.

(1)Widening valley: In the middle course of a river, lateral erosion predominates. The volume of water increases and the flow of water exerts its greatest force at the banks.

(2)Sand bars: The pebbles, sand, silt, etc. are deposited on the valley floor to form sand bars. Such bars are very common at the mouth of a river.
(3)Meander: In the middle course of river a because of the slackening of speed, a series of loops and bends are noticed. These bends are called meanders.

2. Oxbow lakes: During the meandering course of a river it often cuts through the curve to flow straight. Hence the left curve becomes a lake called ox-bow lake or horse-shoelace.

3. Flood plains and Natural levees: During the rainy season flood occurs in the river. So the water spreads out and deposits the sediment brought down and forms flood plains. On the bank of the river repeated deposit of silt or clay increases the height of the bank, forming natural levees.

4. Yazoo streams: During floods, levees may develop across the junctions of minor tributaries. Those tributaries are then compelled to follow a meandering course of their own until they find a new entrance in the main river. They flow roughly parallel to the main river in between the levees. Such rivers are called yazoos.

Question 2. Describe with sketches three features carved out by wind erosion.
Answer:

Features carved out by wind erosion

1. Mushroom Rocks Sometimes the degree of hardness in the rocks varies considerably. Due to differential abrasion, the softer rock is worn out more easily than the harder rock and the under-cutting on the base is more than on the top forming narrow rock. The rock resembles the like of an elephant or camel or another animal. Local names are given to this type of rock such as Mushroom rock or Gour.

2. Zeugen When the wind blows steadily in one direction for a considerable time due to differential abrasion, the wind wears away the underlying softer rock through the joints (caused by mechanical weathering). The harder rock layer stands uneroded and stands like ridges. This is known as Zeugen. They are of varying heights (from 1.5 m to 45 m).

3. Yardangs: Yardangs are one of the various landform features developed out of aeolian erosion in desert regions. When hard and soft rocks are arranged vertically on the earth’s surface, then the soft rocks get quickly eroded forming long valleys while the hard rocks stand out as ridges called Yardangs. These are generally 15 metres high and are found in the deserts of Central Asia.

Sometimes hard and soft rocks stand parallel to the prevailing winds. Due to abrasion soft rocks are worn away and the hard one stands as stony ribs. The whole area resembles ‘furrow’ or ‘ridges’. This phenomenon is known as ‘Yardang’. This is common in the Atacama desert.

4. Inselberg: Inselbergs are very highly resistant hard rock structures formed due to wind erosion. They are found in desert areas and are of usually the same height. They have a flat-topped surface with steep slopes.

Question 2. Describe in brief the major characteristic features of Indian climate.
Answer:

Features of Indian Climate:

1. Tropical monsoon type of climate.
2. Diversity in climatic conditions.
3. Monsoon mechanism dominates the climate.
4. Presence of four distinct seasons in the year.
5. Tropical depressions or Bay cyclones in late monsoons.
6. Westerly depressions causing rainfall in winter in North India.

Question 3. Give an account of favourable physical factors required for cultivation of rice in India.
Answer:

Rice is primarily a crop in the Tropics and Subtropics. It requires the following physical conditions for its growth:

1. Climatic conditions: Rice is a crop of the Tropical Monsoon land. It requires a hot and humid climate.

(1)Temperature: It needs a temperature of over 16°C to 20°C for its cultivation. The temperature must be higher during the growing season. It thrives well in plenty of bright sunshine with an average temperature of 27°C and water.
(2)Rainfall: Rice requires abundant rainfall, ranging from 150 cm to 200. cm. Plant of water is necessary at the time of early growth and transplantation. Water should remain standing on the ground up to 5 cm to 10 cm in the rice field in the earlier part of its growing season.

2. Land: Rice requires flooded fields. Extensive plains and lowlands provide excellent conditions for paddy cultivation. On hills and mountains, rice is grown on terraces.
3. Soil: Rice grows on a wide variety of soils, but alluvial loam with subsoils of clay is ideal. Level lands with alluvial soils of the river valleys and deltas are ideal for rice cultivation.
4. Agricultural labour: Rice cultivation requires cheap and abundant labour, as most of the work in rice fields, such as sowing, transplanting and harvesting are done by hand.

5. Other requirements: The other requirements of rice cultivation include
(1)Chemical fertilizer,
(2)Irrigation,
(3)Seeds,
(4)H.Y.V. seeds and
(5)capital.

Question 4. Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of iron and steel industry in Eastern India.
Answer:

Factors responsible for the development of the Iron and Steel Industry: Most of the iron and steel plants of India, such as Jamshedpur, Burnpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai and Bokaro are located in Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha and Chattisgarh.

The causes for the concentration of iron and steel plants in eastern India are:

1. Iron ore: About 80% of India’s iron ore is available in this region. The major mines are
(1) Noamundi, Guwa, Budaburu, Pansiraburu of Singhbhum district, Jharkhand,
(2) Gurumahishani, Badampahar, Sulaipat and Bonai of Mayurbhanj district and Bagiyaburu of Keonijhar district, Odisha.

2. Coal: About 97% of India’s coal is mined in this region. The steel plants of Kulti, Burnpur, and Durgapur get their coal from the mines in Raniganj and Asansol. The steel plants of Jamshedpur, Bokaro and Rourkela get their coal from Jharia, Bokaro, Ramgarh and Giridih in Jharkhand.
3. Other raw materials: Limestone, dolomite, manganese, etc. are collected from Kalahandi, Gangapur and Kara put of Odisha. Other raw materials like chromium, tungsten, nickel, etc. are easily collected from the Chotanagpur plateau.

4. Water: The rivers Damodar, Mahanandi, Subarnarekha, etc. supply ample water required in the steel plants.
5. Transport: The network of roadways and railways in eastern India help in trade and commerce. The ports at Kolkata, Haldia and Paradweep help in international trade.
6. Power Supply: Thermal power is acquired from Bokaro and Durgapur thermal power plants. Hydel power is acquired from power projects at Hirakud, Myth, Panchet and Tilaiya.

Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation And Revolution Short Questions With Answers :

Question l. What are the two motions of the Earth?
Answer:
The two motions of the Earth are
(1) Rotation,
(2) Revolution.

Question 2. Who made the first direct experiment to prove the Earth’s rotation?
Answer: In 1851 Jean Bernard Leon Foucault, a French physicist, first made a direct experiment of the rotation of the Earth.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography and Environment

Question 3. What is the length of the elliptical path of the earth?
Answer: 96 crores km.

Question 4. What is the speed of the earth rotation on the equator?
Answer: 1630 per hour.

Question 5. What is the speed of the earth rotation on Kolkata per hour?
Answer:1536 per hour.

Geography Class 9 West Bengal Board

Question 6. Who did first promulgated the idea of the rotation of the earth?
Answer: Nicolas Copernicus.

Question 7. What do you know about the Earth’s axis?
Answer: The axis is the imaginary line passing through the center of the Earth on which the Earth rotates.

Question 8. In what way does the earth rotate?
Answer: Earth rotates from west to east or in an anticlockwise direction.

Question 9. How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation?
Answer: 23 hours 56 minutes and 4 seconds (24 hours rounded off)

Question 10. What causes day and night on earth?
Answer: Rotation.

Question 11. What is the angle of inclination of the earth in its axis?
Answer: 23 (½)°

Question 12. Is the earth’s axis vertical? If not, what is its position?
Answer: The earth’s axis is not vertical. It makes an angle of 23(½)°with the vertical or 66 (½)° with the plane of the Earth’s orbit.

Question 13. What is the speed of rotation at the equator?
Answer: 1630 km/hr.

Question 14. Name the place (latitude) where days and nights are always equal.
Answer:  Equator or 0° latitude.

Question 15. Which day is shortest in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer: 22nd December.

Question 16. Name the dates at which days & nights are equal in northern hemisphere or southern hemisphere.
Answer: 21st March and 23rd September.

Question 17. Which day is longest in southern hemisphere?
Answer: 22nd December.

Geography Class 9 West Bengal Board

Question 18. Which day is shortest in southern hemisphere?
Answer: 21st June.

Question 19. When is it winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere?
Answer: 22nd December

Question 20. What is the speed of revolution of the Earth cause?
Answer: 365 1/4 days (approx).

Question 21. How far away is the Earth from the Sun on Aphelion?
Answer: About 152 r ion kilometers.

Question 22. What is the colourful light seen in the nights in the South Pole called?
Answer: Aurora Australis.

Question 23. What is the distance of the Earth from the sun at perihelion?
Answer: About 147 million kilometers.

Question 24. What is the exact time taken by the earth to move around the sun once?
Answer: The exact time taken by the earth to move round the sun is 365 days 5 hours 48 minutes 46 secs.

Question 25. What is the distance between the earth and the sun? [M.E.-1995]
Answer: The approximate distance between the earth and the sun is 15 crore km.

Question 26. What is the speed of rotation of Earth at Kolkata?
Answer: 1536 km. is the speed of rotation of Earth at Kolkata.

Question 27. How much is the axis of the globe inclined in relation to the plane of the earth’s orbit?
Answer: 66 (½)° the earth’s axis inclined in relation to the plane of the earth’s orbit.

Question 28. What is axis?
Answer: Axis is an imaginary line at which the earth rotates.

Geography Class 9 West Bengal Board Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation And Revolution True Or False Type

Question 1. The earth revolves around the sun in 365 days 5 hours 48 minutes 46 seconds.
Answer: True

Question 2. After 21st March the sun moves towards the north.
Answer: True

Question 3. In the month of December, days are longer in the Northern Hemisphere.
Answer: False

Question 4. 0° longitude is called Prime Meridian.
Answer: True

Question 5. The speed of the earth at the equator is 1630 km.
Answer: True

Question 6. The earth moves around the sun in 365 ¼ days.
Answer: True

Question 7. There are six seasons in India.
Answer: True

Geography Class 9 West Bengal Board

Question 8. Days and nights are caused because of the rotation of the earth.
Answer: True

Question 9. Seasons are changed because of the revolution of the earth.
Answer: True

Question 10. 21st June is called Winter Solstice.
Answer: False

Question 11. 22nd December is called Summer Solstice.
Answer: False

Question 12. 4th July is called Aphelion.
Answer: True

WBBSE Class 9 Chapter 2 Geography

Question 13. 3rd January is called Perihelion.
Answer: True

Question 14. Speed of the earth during the revolution is 30 km per sec.
Answer: True

Question 15. 21st March is called Autumn Equinox
Answer: False

Question 16.23rd September called Vernal Equinox
Answer: False

Question 17. On 4th July, the distance between the sun and the earth remains minimum.
Answer: False

Question 18. On December 22nd, the sun comes overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn and the day is called winter solstice.
Answer: True

Question 19. The distance between the earth and the sun is minimum on 3rd January.
Answer: True

Question 20. 1900 A.D. was a leap year.
Answer: True

Question 21. The southern hemisphere has longer days in the month of June.
Answer: False

Question 22. On March 21st at the equator, the sun rises due east and sets due west and the midday altitude of the sun in 90°.
Answer: True

Question 23. 2100 A.D. leap year
Answer: True

Question 24 .21st June is known as summer solstice in northern hemisphere and the winter solstice in sountern hemisphere.
Answer: True

Question 25. The date of Vernal Equinox is 23rd September
Answer: False

Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation And Revolution Fill In The Blanks

Question l. The distance of the sun from the earth is_______.
Answer:150 million Km.

Question 2. The earth’s axis makes an angle________ of with the ecliptic orbit.
Answer: 66 (½)°

Question 3. ________discovered that the earth revolves around the sun.
Answer: Aryabhatta

Question 4. Winter Solstice occurs on________.
Answer: 22nd December.

Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation And Revolution 2 Marks Questions And Answers

Question l. Why do we not feel the Rotation of the Earth?
Answer:

We do not feel that the earth on which we live is constantly rotating. The reasons are

(1) There are no heavenly objects nearer to the earth, either stationary or moving opposite of the earth’s rotation by which we can compare the earth’s rotation.

(2) The rate of rotation is uniform and constant for each place on the earth’s surface.

WBBSE Class 9 Chapter 2 Geography

Question 2. What is Twilight and dawn?
Answer:

Twilight :

The time at which the upper edge of the sun appears to sink below the apparent horizon of a place on the earth’s surface is called Twilight.

Dawn: The period of receiving refracted and reflected sunlight before sunrise is called dawn.

Question 3. What are the effects of revolution of the globe?
Answer:

The effects of revolution of the globe

(1) Change of seasons
(2) Changes in the altitude of the midday sun at different times of the year,
(3) Inequality of the day and night.

Question 4. What is Dusk?
Answer:

Dusk

The short period of receiving reflected and refracted orange light after sunset is called Dusk.

Question 5. Sun rises in the east and sets in the west – why?
Answer:

Sun rises in the east and sets in the west

Since in the earth rotates from west to east, the sun rises in the east and sets in the west.

Question 6. What is sidereal day?
Answer:

Sidereal day

The sidereal day is defined as one 365th of 24 hrs. 3mins 56 secs, shorter than a solar day.

Question 7. What is Coriolis effect?
Answer:

Coriolis effect

Winds do not follow or move in a straight line rather it gets deflected. This deflection of winds caused due to the earth’s rotation is known as Coriolis force or Coriolis effect.

Question 8. What is the speed of the earth’s rotation at Equator and at Poles?
Answer:

1630 km/hr at Equator and 0 km/hr. at poles is the speed of earth’s rotation.

Question 9. Do all the places on the earth spin at the same rate?
Answer:

The solid inner core – a mass of iron comparable to the size of the moon – spins faster than the outer portion of the iron core, which is liquid. A study in 1996 showed that over the previous century, the extra speed caused the inner core to gain a quarter-turn on the planet as a whole. So, the inner core makes a complete revolution in respect of the rest of Earth in about 400 years. Immense pressure keeps it solid.

Question 10. What is the circle of illumination or shadow circle?
Answer:

Circle of illumination or shadow circle

While rotating, the surface of the earth facing the sun experiences day& the opposite side facing away from the sun, night. In between these two areas of day and night, where the boundary of light and boundary of darkness meet in a circle it is called the circle of illumination or shadow circle.

Question 11. Why speed of rotation is more at equator than arctic circle?
Answer: Equator forms the largest circle of the earth. North & south of it, the size of the circle of different latitudes become smaller. A point on equator or a point on arctic circle both take 24 hours to complete to a rotation. So the speed of rotation decreases from equator towards the poles.

WBBSE Class 9 Chapter 2 Geography

Question 12. What are the effects of rotation?
Answer:

The effects of rotation are :

(1) Formation of day And night
(2) Sunrise And Sunset
(3) Determination of time
(4) Deflection of planetary winds And ocean currents
(5) Formation of high tides And low tides And
(6) Origin of plants And animals.

Question 13. How fast does the earth spin?
Answer:

The speed at which the earth spins varies upon latitudinal location on the planet. If you’re standing at the North pole, the speed is almost zero but at the equator, where the circumference of the earth is the greatest, the speed is about 1,038 miles per hour (1630km/ hr). The mid-latitudes of the U.S. and Europe speed along is 700 to 900 mph (1125 to 1450 km/hr).

Question 14. What is Equinox?
Answer:

Equinox: Meaning equal nights. At the equinoxes, days and nights are of equal length throughout the world.

Question 15. What is Aurora?
Answer:

Aurora

It is a natural light display, in the dark night sky (Latin word ‘aurora’ means ‘sunrise’), especially in high latitude (Arctic and Antarctic regions). It is caused by collision of Solar wind and charged particles in the high-altitude atmosphere (thermosphere). In Northern latitudes, it is known as Aurora Borealis and in Southern latitudes as Aurora Australis.

Question 16. What do you mean by Ellipse?
Answer:

Ellipse

An ellipse is a curve on a plane surrounding two focal points such that a straight line drawn from one of the focal points to any point on the curve and then back to the other focal point has the same length for every point on the curve. It is a regular oval shape.

Question 17. What do you mean by Epicycles?
Answer:

Epicycles

In the Ptolemaic system of Astronomy, the epicycle (literal meaning circle in Greek) was a geometric model used to explain the variations in speed and direction of the apparent motion of the moon, sun, and planets.

WBBSE Class 9 Chapter 2 Geography

Question 18. Write a note on Geocentric model.
Answer:

Geocentric model

In Astronomy, the geocentric model or egocentrism or the Ptolemaic system is a description of the cosmos where earth is at the orbital centre of all celestial bodies.

Question 19. Write a note on Heliocentric model.
Answer:

Heliocentric model

Heliocentrism is the astronomical model in which the earth and the planets revolve around a relatively stationary sun at the centre of the Solar System. (Greek heiios is sun).

Question 20. What is Solstice?
Answer:

Solstice

‘Solstice’ is derived from the Latin Sol (Sun) and sister (to stand still). At solstices, the sun stands still or comes to a stop in the seasonal movements of its path before reversing direction.

Question 21. What is subsolar point?
Answer:

Subsolar point

It is the point on a planet where the sun is perceived to be directly overhead that is where the sun’s rays are hitting the planet exactly perpendicular to its surface.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 22. What is Tangential Speed?
Answer:

Tangential Speed

Linear speed and tangential speed gives the same meaning for circular motion. The direction of motion is always tangent to the path of the object. Tangential speed of the object is linearly proportional to the distance from the center. Increase in distance results in increase in the amount of speed.

Question 23. Why rotation is known as diurnal movement of the Earth?
Answer: The rotation is called ‘diurnal motion’ of the earth as it causes formation of day and night. This diurnal movement is also known as ‘the daily movement of the earth’.

Question 24. What is Geodesy? State the exact dimensions of the earth.
Answer:

Geodesy

Geodesy is the science which studies, determines, and measures the exact shape and dimensions of the earth
1. Equatorial diameter— 12,757 km.
2. Polar diameter —12,714 km.

Question 25. Why does not the sun rise and set at the same time everywhere in the world?
Answer: The inclination of the earth’s axis, together with its revolution around the sun, is the cause of the varying length of day and night and therefore, of sunrise and sunset times.

Question 26. What is the meaning of the word ‘tropic’?
Answer:

Tropic

The word tropic means ‘turning point. The solstices are the turning points in the apparent movement of the sun. After the solstices, the sun turns back to the equator.

Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation And Revolution 2 Marks Questions And Answers (Short Notes)

Question 1. Land of Midnight Sun or Midnight Sun.
Answer:

Land of Midnight Sun

On 21st June the position of the earth is such that its north pole leans towards the sun. Hence, the vertical rays of the sun fall directly on the tropics of cancer. The region beyond the Arctic Circle towards the pole is popularly known as the “Land of Midnight Sun”. The sun is visible even in Midnight from May 13 to July 29 in Hammerfest in Norway. Hence, Norway is called “the land of midnight Sun’.

Question 2. Leap year.
Answer:

Leap year

Normally a year is considered to be of 365 days, while the actual period of the Earth’s one revolution around the sun is 365 days and a little less than 6 hrs. (5hrs. 48 mins and 45.51 secs). It means we have to leave off about 6×4 = 24 hrs. or one day. So, we have a year of 366 days after every four years. Such one year is called a Leap year.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 3. Shadow Circle.
Answer:

Shadow Circle

Due to the earth’s rotation days and nights are caused. At any time one – half of the earth’s surface receives light from the sun and the imaginary line that separates the lit-up half from the darkened half is called the Circle of Illumination or Shadow Circle. Each place of the surface of the earth is swept over twice by the shadow circle one at dawn and again at twilight.

 

 

 

Question 4. Ferrel’s law.
Answer:

Ferrel’s law

Wind does not blow straight from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure for the following reason :

The earth moves around its own axis from West to East but the rate of movement varies. The places on the equator move faster than the places which lie to the North or South of the equator. As a result, air moving on surface is subject to apparent deflection to the right in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the Southern hemisphere.  This is Ferret’s law.

This apparent force called is the Coriolis force. The ocean currents also turn to the right in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the Southern hemisphere.

 

Question 5.Summer Solstice.
Answer:

Summer Solstice

In northern hemisphere, the rays of the sun vertically fall on Tropic of Cancer on June 21 when North pole leans towards the sun and the whole Northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun at the North Pole, continuous daylight is visible for six months. Thus, in the Northern hemisphere, there is summer. Temperature is higher, days are longer and nights are shorter. This position of the earth is known as ‘Summer Solstice’ in Northern hemisphere.

 

Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 6. Autumnal Equinox.
Answer:

Autumnal Equinox

Equinox means equal night and autumn means when there is autumn season in the Northern hemisphere and spring season in the Southern hemisphere. After June 21 (longest day in Northern hemisphere) the sun appears to be moving southwards and on September 23, while revolving round the sun the earth comes in such a position that the sun appears to be shining vertically on the equator (At this time neither of the poles is inclined towards the sun and both are equidistant from the sun).

Thus, days and nights on this date (23 September) are equal in both the hemispheres. Because this time in Northern hemisphere, there is the autumn season, it is known as ‘autumnal equinox’.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 7. Winter Solstice.
Answer:

Solstice

On December 22, the sun is vertically overhead at noon on Tropic of Capricorn. At this position the South Pole and the Southern Hemisphere lean towards the sun’s rays. In the Southern hemisphere the days are longer and the nights are shorter. The reverse is the phenomena in the Northern hemisphere on this date. This is known as winter solstice.

 

Question 8. Vernal Equinox.
Answer:

Vernal Equinox

The word ‘Equi’ means equal and ‘nox’ means night. While revolving round the sun, the position of the earth becomes such that the sun’s rays fall vertically upon the equator on March 21 and September 23.

Thus, on these two days, days and nights are of equal duration. In the Northern hemisphere, the season of spring begins in the month of March, hence it is known as spring or vernal equinox.

 

Question 9. Perihelion
Answer:

Perihelion

The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical path. But the sun is not in the center of this path. The distance between the sun and the earth varies with time. When the distance between the two is the shortest, it is said that the earth is in Perihelion (Greek word Peri means near and helion means sun).

This position takes place on January 3rd when the distance between the two is about 147 million km.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 9 WBBSE

Question 10. Local Time.
Answer:

Local Time:

At any place when the sun is at the zenith (i.e. overhead) it is noon at that time and place. Thus, at that place, it is 12 noon, and accordingly the time is calculated. This is local time of that place. The sun’s position changes according to the change in longitude. Thus, the local time of all the places on the same longitude of meridian will be the same.

Question 11. Aphelion.
Answer:

Aphelion

As the earth moves round the sun in an elliptical path, the distance between the sun and the earth vary with time. The average distance between the earth and the sun is 15 crore km. on about July 4, the distance between the sun and the earth is the farthest and it is about 15 crore 20 lakh km, on this date the earth is known to be in Aphelion.

Question 12. Kepler’s law of Planetary Motion: Johannes Kepler (1571-1630).
Answer:

Johannes Kepler

He was a German astronomer who supported the Copernican theory. He discovered that all planets have elliptical orbits. He was deeply religious and believed that the creator made an orderly universe. Armed with a good mathematical mind and great faith in the observational data of the Danish astronomer Tycho Brahe, he derived, formulated and verified the three basic laws of planetary motion.

Question 13. Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion
Answer:

Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion

(1) The earth of each planet around the sun is an ellipse with the sun at one focus.
(2) The “area rule”: a planet covers equal areas of its orbit in equal periods of time.
(3) The period of revolution of a planet is proportional to its distance from the sun, i.e., it travels most rapidly when it is nearest the sun (from A to B) and most slowly when it is farthest from the sun (from C to D).

Question 14. Twilight.
Answer:

Twilight

The period between sunset and complete darkness is called twilight.

Cause :
Particles of dust and water vapor in the atmosphere refract and reflect the sunlight after the sun itself sets below the apparent horizon.

Duration :
Twilight of dusk at a place on the earth’s surface begins after sunset and continues till the center of the sun sinks below the horizon 18°. Twilight at the equator is the shortest as the sun sinks there in a vertical path. Twilight is longest at poles.

Question15. Dawn.
Answer:

Dawn

The period of receiving refracted and reflected sunlight before sunrise called dawn.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 9 WBBSE

Cause:

Dawn occurs due to particles and water vapour in the atmosphere are refract and reflected by the sunlight before the sun itself rises above the apparent horizon of a place on the earth’s surface.

Duration :

When the sun is within 18° of the horizon it is dawn. At the equator, its duration is 1 hour and 12 minutes. This duration goes on increasing towards the poles. At the poles this duration is 50 days long during 6 months alternating period of day and night.

Question16. Buy Ballot’s law.
Answer:

Buy Ballot’s law

C.H.D Buys Ballot was a Dutch climatologist who in 1857 gave as an interesting general rule for the relationship of wind to pressure, the Boys Ballot’s law states that “If a man stands with bis back to the wind in the Northern hemisphere, then high pressure will be to bis right and low pressure will be to bis left. In the Southern Hemisphere, the high pressure will be to bis left and low pressure to bis right”.

Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation And Revolution 3 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. Why do the scientist make an expedition to Antarctica in the month of December? [M.E. -1992]
Answer:
Following are the causes for scientists to make expeditions in December to Antarctica –
(1) In the month of December the sun’s rays fall vertically on Tropic of Capri-corn. Hence, summer prevails in the southern hemisphere and therefore temperature is high causing in the melting of snow of the Antarctica.
(2) Due-to inclination of the earth’s axis towards the sun the southern hemisphere experiences day of the six-month duration. There is no night on the Antarctica.
Due to these reasons expeditions are made to the Antarctica in the month of December.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 9 WBBSE

Question 2. What are the differences between rotation and revolution?
Answer:

The differences between rotation and revolution

Revolution	Rotation
(1)    In revolution, earth moves around the sun in its fixed orbit.	(1)    In rotation, earth moves around on its own axis.
(2)    The revolution speed is uniform all over the Earth.	(2)    The rotational speed is not uniform all over the Earth.
(3)    Time taken to complete one revolution is 365V4 days	(3)    Time taken to complete one rotation is 24 hrs.
(4)    It causes the apparent annual movement of the sun.	(4)    It causes apparent daily movement of the sun.
(5)    It causes variation in length of days and nights.	(5)    It causes formation of days and nights.
(6)    Idea of heat zones is formed due to it.	(6)    Idea of time is formed due to it.

 

Question 3. Differentiate between Perihelion and Aphelion.
Answer:

The differences between Perihelion and Aphelion

Perihelion	Aphelion
(1)    During this position the distance between the sun and the earth is minimum.	(1)    During this position the distance between the sun and the earth is maximum.
(2)    The distance between the sun and the earth is about 147 million km.	(2)    The distance between the sun and the earth is about 152 million km.
(3)    This occurs every year on 3rd Jan.	(3)    This occurs every year on 4th July.
(4)    This time the speed of the earth’s revolution is maximum.	(4)    This time the speed of earth’s revolution is minimum.
(5)    In this period the sun looks bigger in size.	(5)    This period the sun looks smaller in size.
(6.The winter season and summer season is shorter in northern and southern hemisphere.	(6)    The summer season and winter season are longer in Northern ane southern hemisphere.

 

Question 4. The poles experience 6 months day and 6 months of night. Why?
Answer:

The poles experience 6 months day and 6 months of night.

Due to the inclination of the earth on its axis from 22nd March to 22nd December the sun shines in the northern hemisphere So, the rays fall on the areas of circle and there is 6 months day in the North pole where as 6 months night at South pole.

On the other hand from 24th September to 20th march, the rays of sun fall on the southern hemisphere and the northern hemisphere remains in darkness. So, there is 6 months night at North pole and 6 months day at south pole 21st March and 23rd September is the day of Equinox i.e. equal days and nights.

Chapter 2 Geography Class 9 WBBSE

Question 5. What are the causes for the change of seasons?

Answer:

Seasons are the climatic divisions of the year.

The main causes for the change of seasons are –

(1) Inclination of the Earth’s Axis.
(2) Elliptical shape of the orbit of sun.
(3) Spherical shape of the Earth.
(4) Revolution of the Earth.
(5) Rotation of the Earth.
(6) Elliptical shape of the Earth’s Orbit.

Question 6. What is ‘Solar day’ and ‘Solar Year’?
Answer:

Solar day-
The time taken by the earth to complete one rotation is called solar day. The time taken is approx. 24 hrs or 23 hrs 56 mins and 4.09 secs.

Solar year –
The time taken by the earth to complete one revolution is called solar year. The time taken is approx. 365 ¼ days or 365 days 5 hrs 48 mins and 46 secs.

Question 7. A new day is added after four calendar years, why?
Answer:

A new day is added after four calendar years,

Normally a year is considered to be of 365 days, while the actual period of the Earth’s one revolution round the sun is 365 days and a little less than 6 hrs. (5hrs 48 mins and 45.51 secs). It means we have to leave off about 6×4 = 24 hrs. or one day So, we have a year of 366 days after every four years. Such one year is called a Leap year.

Question 8. What is Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis?
Answer:

Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis

During the 6-month duration of night at the poles, sometimes in the night sky faint but colorful lights like a rainbow is seen. Auroras are glows of light, hundreds of kilometers above the earth’s surface in the atmosphere, are pulled down towards the earth’s magnetic poles. During this pulling collision between the tiny particles occurs resulting in flashes of light. In the south pole it is known as Aurora. Australis and in the north pole it is called Aurora Borealis.

WB class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Questions And Answers

Question 9. What are the effects of inclination of earth’s axis?
Answer:

The effects of inclination of earth’s axis

The earth’s axis is inclined at an angle of 66(½)° to the plane of the orbit  and 23(½)° to the vertical plane, it causes these effects

(1)Revolution of the earth on its elliptical orbit.
(2)Variation in lengths of days and nights.
(3)Thermal variation.
(4)Change of seasons.
(5)Change of apparent position of the sun.

Question 10. Why are leap years necessary?
Answer:

The exact length of a year is 365 days 5 hrs 48 mins and 46 secs. Since the difference between the actual length of the year and 365 days is nearly 6 hrs which is ¼th day, adding an extra day to February every 4 years.
(1)Keeps the calendar accurate.
(2)Enables the seasons to recur at the same date each year.

Question 11. Equator is almost devoid of seasons – why?
Answer:

Equator is almost devoid of seasons

Equator is located at the middle of the Earth. It receives vertical sun light almost every day throughout the year. So, the range of temperature is almost 2°- 3°C. Daily temperature variation between days and nights are also negligible. High temperature with regular rainfall at afternoon known as – “4 O’clock rain’ is the most striking feature of equatorial region. As the day receives light it is heated and that heat is released at night. So, this results in equal temperature and devoid of seasons.

WB class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Questions And Answers

Question 12. What do you understand by apparent daily movement of the sun?
Answer:

Movement of the sun

We see that the sun rises in the East and sets in the West. This is the sun’s apparent daily movement caused by the rotation of the earth from West to East.

Question 13. What are meant by Perihelion and Aphelion?
Answer:

Perihelion and Aphelion

The orbit (path of revolution) of the earth is not circular but elliptical and the sun is not in the center of this ellipse. Thus, when the sun is farthest from the earth (15 crore 20 lakh km.) it is known as Aphelion (ap = away and helios = sun). This position comes on July 4. When the sun is nearest to the earth (14 crore 70 lakh km) it is known as Perihelion (peri = close and helios = sun). This occurs on January 3.

 

Question 14. What do you understand by the rotation and revolution of the earth?
Answer:

Rotation: The earth rotates on its own axis from West to East. In this way the part of the earth facing the sun experiences day and the opposite part night. This is called the ‘rotation’ of the earth

WB class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Questions And Answers

 

Revolution: Rotating on its axis, the earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical path, in 365 ¼ of days. This is called the revolution of the earth.

Question 15. State the differences between summer solstice and winter solstice. (S.Question)
Answer:

The differences between summer solstice and winter solstice.

Summer Solstice	Winter Solstice
(1)    The position of 21st June is called summer solstice.	(1) The Position of 22nd December is called Winter solstice.
(2)    The sun’s rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer at this position.	(2)    The sun’s rays fall vertically on the tropic of Capricorn at this position.
(3)    The Northern hemisphere leans towards the sun.	(3)    The Southern hemisphere leans towards the sun.
(4)    These is summer season in Northern Hemisphere and winter season in Southern Hemisphere.	(4)    These is the winter season in Northern Hemisphere and summer season in Southern.

 

Question 16. Why the Australians celebrate the X-mas in the summer?
Answer: Australia is situated in the Southen hemisphere. When we have our winter months, then the people of Southern hemisphere have the summer months. But Xmas is fixed all over the world. So, the people of Australia or Southern hemisphere celebrate X-mas in summer as 25th December is fixed as X-mas day all over the world.

WB class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Questions And Answers

Question 17. How day and night are caused?
Answer: The Days and Nights are caused by the rotation of the earth. The earth rotates from West to East. As the earth is a sphere, only half of it facing the sun receives sunrays. The other half remains dark. As a result, days occur in the lightened-half of the earth and night in the darkened half of it.

Question 18. What are the causes of the change of seasons?
Answer:

The change of seasons is caused due to the changes of the earth’s position in course of its revolution around the sun and due to the inclination of its axis.

Thus, seasons are caused by

(1)the revolution of the earth round the Sun.
(2) the inclination of the earth’s axis at an angle of 66° to the plane of orbit.
(3) the parallelism of the earth’s axis throughout its all positions at the plane of its orbit. Seasons would not have occurred if the axis of the earth had remained perpendicular to the plane.

Question 19. Why is 23rd September called Autumnal Equinox?
Answer: On 23rd September, the earth comes up at such a position that the sun appears vertically overhead on the equator and neither the North pole nor the South pole is inclined towards the sun. The North and South pole remain equidistant from the sun. Therefore, the days and nights are equal all over the earth. So, the position of the earth on 23rd September is known as Autumnal Equinox.

Question 20. Describe in brief the effects of revolution of the earth.
Answer:

The effects of the revolution of the earth are

(1) Inequality of day and night:

Variation in the length of days and nights occurs (due to the inclination of earth’s axis on its orbit at an angle of 66 (½)° at different times of the year in accordance with the position of the earth vis-a-vis the sun.

(2)Change of seasons:

The seasons (winter, spring, summer and autumn) change from one to another due to the revolution of the earth. They change due to special positions of the earth in relation to the sun and the transition from one to the other follows the movement of the earth round the sun.

Class Ix Geography Book WBBSE

(3) Heat zones and latitudes on the earth:

The latitudes and heat zones are also found as a result of the revolution. At different times of the year, the rays of the sun strike the earth at different points and these points have led the geographers to arrive at the positions of the Equator, Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, Arctic and Antarctic Circles. Determination of these lines automatically leads one to divide the earth into different heat zones on the basis of temperature.

Question 21. There is no season at the equator— Why?
Answer:

There is no season at the equator

The equator is Stretching our the middle part of the earth. The sun shines here vertically round the year. So the region gets vertical rays of the sun round the year and the range of temperature between the summer and the winter is very low only 2° — 3°C. The range of temperature between days and night is also very low. High temperature with regular rainfall in the afternoon is the feature of the equatorial region. That is why it is said that there is no season at the equator.

Question 22. Why we don’t feel the rotation of the Earth? Give reasons.
Answer: We do not feel that the earth on which we live is constantly rotating. The reasons are—
(1) There are not heavenly objects nearer to the earth, either stationary or moving opposite of the earth’s rotation by which we can compare the earth’s rotation,
(2) The rate of rotation is uniform and constant for each place on the earth’s surface,
(3) The atmosphere also rotates with the earth uniformly.

Question 23. Why is 21st March important in geography?
Answer: As the Earth further continues to revolve, the Sun appears to move northwards and on 21st March it again appears just vertically overhead on the equator at noon. The north and the south poles remain equidistant from the Sun. The Sun’s rays fall vertically on the equator. All places on the Earth have equal days and nights. It is spring (after the winter) in northern hemisphere and Autumn (after the summer) in southern hemisphere. This position of the Earth on 21st March is known as Vernal Equinox.

 

Class ix Geography Book WBBSE Chapter 2 Movement Of The Earth Rotation And Revolution 5 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. Explain the causes of change of seasons.

Answer:

Causes:

The change of seasons is caused due to –

(1) Revolution of the Earth around the sun
(2) Elliptical Orbit of the sun
(3) Inclination of the Earth’s axis at an angle of 66(½)° to the plane of its orbit.

(1)Summer Solstice:

In Northern hemisphere, the rays of the sun vertically fall on Tropic of Cancer on June 21 when the North pole leans towards the sun and the whole Northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun at the North Pole, continuous daylight is visible for six months.

Thus, in Northern hemisphere there is summer. Temperature is higher, days are longer and nights are shorter. This position of the earth is known as ‘Summer Solstice’ in Northern hemisphere.

 

(2)Winter Solstice:

On December 22, the sun is vertically overhead at noon on Tropic of Capricorn. At this position, the South Pole and the Southern Hemisphere lean towards the sun’s rays. In the Southern hemisphere, the days are longer and the nights are shorter. The reverse is the phenomena in the Northern hemisphere on this date. This is known as winter solstice.

(3)Equinox:

The word Equinox means Equal night. On 21st March And 23rd September, the length of days and night are equal. There are two Equinox –

(1) Vernal Equinox:

– While revolving round the sun, the position of the earth becomes such that the sun’s rays fall vertically upon the equator on March 21 and September 23. Thus, on these two days, days and nights are of equal duration. in the Northern hemisphere, the season of spring begins in the month of March (i.e, after winter ends) hence it is known as spring or vernal equinox.

Class Ix Geography Book WBBSE

(2) Autumnal Equinox:

Equinox means equal night and autumn means when there is autumn season in the Northern hemisphere and spring season in the Southern hemisphere. After June 21 (longest day in Northern hemisphere) the sun appears to be moving southwards and on September 23, while revolving round the sun the earth comes in such a position that the sun appears to be shining vertically on the equator (At this time neither of the poles is inclined towards the sun and both are equidistant from the sun).

Thus, days and nights on this date (23 September) are equal in both the hemispheres. Because this time in Northern hemisphere, there is the autumn season (i.e, after Summer ends), it is known as ‘autumnal equinox’.

Question 2. What is Earth’s rotation? State three proofs in support of Earth’s Rotation.
Answer:

Rotation:
The spinning of the earth on its own inclined axis in its fixed orbit is called Rotation.

Proofs: The three proofs in support of Earth’s Rotation are :-

(1) Foucault’s pendulum Experiment:

Jean Bernard Leon Foucault, the famous French scientist gave an excellent proof of the earth’s rotation. Foucault suspended a cannonball (28kg) from the dome of the pantheon in Paris, using a slender wire about 61m. long.

A pin was attached to the bottom of the weight so that it could touch a heap of sand lying below. He then made it swing to and for just above a circle of sand spread over the ground on which it could draw lines while swinging in the north-south direction.

As the time passed the pendulum was seen oscillating in a line different from what it was tracing at the outset. This showed that the earth was slowly turning below it. The lines showed that the earth was turning from west to east as it rotates round the axis.

(2) East – wast movement of the sun:
Since the earth rotates from west to east, we seen the sun rising in the east and setting in the west. Not only the sun, but all the heavenly bodies in the sky seem to move from east to west every day.

Class Ix Geography Book WBBSE

(3) Drop of stone from a high tower:
When the air has no movement if a stone is dropped from a very high tower it falls slight to the east than the vertically. It proves that earth has a movement i.e. rotation.

Question 3. Explain the process of deflection of planetary winds due to earth’s rotation.
Answer:

Explanation for deflection of planetary winds: The rotation of the spherical-shaped earth from west to the east once in 24 hours results in the deflection of its planetary winds, i.e. latitudinal winds.

All points on the earth’s surface make one resolution in 24 hours. A point on the equator moves eastward at a greater velocity than a point on any higher latitude, say arctic circle or Antarctic circle, because the equator is longer than any of these circles.

 

 

A mass of air on parallel of the latitude say 66 (½)° N. (i.e., arctic circle) will have an east-ward speed equal to that of the parallel. If this mass of air moves towards the equator it will cross over parallels whose eastward speeds increase with decreasing latitudes.

If we want to show the path of the mass of air with the dots, it appears as a curve which bends to the right (from the starting point in the northern hemisphere) of the path from it would have taken, should the earth not rotate.

If a similar air mass had moved from a high latitude to a low latitude in the southern hemisphere its path of movement would appear as curve to the left of the path it would have taken, should the earth not rotate.

Because of rotation, the path of any moving objects over the earth tends to veer from a straight line. This tendency of deflection is known as the Coriolis Effect or the Coriolis Force named after the nineteenth-century French mathematician and engineer Gaspard Gustave de Coriolis who first described it in 1835. The concept was developed by W. Ferrell in 1855. The Coriolis Effect or Force is also stated as Ferrell’s Law.

Ferrell’s Law states that winds and ocean currents moving poleward or equatorward over the earth’s surface is deflected, owing to the earth’s rotation, to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.

Question 4. Explain the effects of earth’s rotation.
Answer:

The major effects of earth’s rotation are –

(1)Formation of Days And Nights:
The earth rotates around its own axis from west to east in 24hrs. So when a particular side comes in front of sun it experiences daytime

 

.

(2) Apparent daily movement of the sun:
The apparent movement of the sun and the stars round the earth from east to west. Every day is also the result of the rotation of the earth.

(3) Sense of time:
The earth takes a full day i.e. 24 hrs. to complete one rotation. We divide the hours into 60 mins. And a minute into 60 secs. Thus we get the idea of calculating time.

Class 9 Geography Solution WBBSE

(4) Difference of time:
Due to the rotation of the earth, different places on it have different local time.

(5) Deflection of planetary winds:
Due to the rotation of the earth the planetary winds do not move in a straight line but get deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. This is known as ‘Ferrell’s Law’.

(6) Distribution of temperature:
As a result of rotation of the earth the distribution of temperature on the earth’s surface is not the same.

(7) Others: Other important effects are
(1) Formation of Tides
(2) Determination of Direction
(3) Shape of the Earth
(4) Determination of longitude
(5) Variation of Daily Temperature etc.

Question 5. Give at least three proofs supporting the annual motion of the Earth.
Answer:

It can be proved by the following examples that earth has annual motion i.e. Revolution –

(1) Observation of stars:

While observing some specific stars in the night sky, it is seen that they rise every day a little to the west of their previous position and after some days they disappear. Instead of these stars, later different stars are seen in the night sky and gradually they also disappear until after an year these stars again rise in their previous position. This proves that while revolving around the sun the earth comes back to its previous position in the orbit after one year.

Class 9 Geography Solution WBBSE

(2) The Apparent change in sun’s position:

There is an apparent annual movement of the sun in the sky because of the Earth’s Revolution. On 21st March and 23rd September the sun rises right in the east and sets in the west. But during the rest of the year it rises and sets a little to the north or to the south. If the earth rotates at the same sunset would be right in the west.

(3) Observation of Other Planets:

With a powerful telescope it can be seen that other planets of the solar system Mercury, Mass, Venus, Jupiter etc. revolve around the sun. Earth being another planet in solar system, it is natural for it too, to revolve around the sun.

Question6. What are the effect of revolution?
Answer:

Some effects of revolution are

(1) Variation in length of days and nights:

Except the equatorial region, the rest of the earth experiences varying length of days and nights at different times of the year i.e. sometimes the days are longer than nights or the days are shorter than nights. This is caused due to the revolution of the earth and the spherical shape of the earth.

(2) Change of seasons:

There are four main seasons in a year namely – spring, summer, autumn and winter. These seasons are changed periodically due to the earth’s revolution.

(3) Idea of leap year:

Earth takes 365 days and a little less than 6 hrs. to complete its one revolution. This 6 hrs. is left in every year and hence we have 6×4 = 24 hrs or 1 day at every 4th year. This 1 day is added in every 4th year. This year is known as Leap year.

(4) Apparent Annual Movement of the sun:

To us on the earth, it appears as if it is the sun that moves between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Tropic of Cancer for six months northward. It is called Uttarayan. Similarly for six months journey of the sun (from June to December) towards south is known as
Dakshinayan.

(5) Idea of latitudes And heat zones:

As a result of the earth’s revolution, the sun’s rays strike on the earth’s surface at different parts on different times of the year. This give us Idea of Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Tropic Capricorn etc. as well as heat zones of the earth.

Class 9 Geography Solution WBBSE

Question 7. What are the causes leading to variation in length of days and nights?
Answer:

Except the Equator days and nights are not equal on all the places of the earth. Surch variation in the length of days and nights is caused by

(1) Spherical shape of the earth,
(2) Rotation and revolution of the earth,
(3) Elliptical shape of the earth’s orbit,
(4) Tilling of the earth’s axis at 66 (½)°to the orbital plane and
(5) parallelism of the earth’s axis. As the earth is tilled on its axis, it means that in one part of the year earth is tilled towards the sun and in another part away from the sun. As a result different places on earth receive different amounts of sunshine at different times of the year. Above reasons are responsible for varying lengths of days and nights which has been discussed below.

(1) 21st June :

On June 21 the northern hemisphere is tipped towards the sun. From March 22 to September 22, days are longer and nights are Shorter in the norther hemisphere having the longest day and shortest night on June 21 every year. The reverse condition in the southern hemisphere having the longest night and shortest day on June 21 every year. This is because the rays of the sun fall vertically at the Tropic of Cancer [23(½)°N ]

(2) 23rd September and 21st March :

On September 23 and March 21 the earth is so located on these two dates that the subsolar points lie on the equator. The shadow circle passes through both the poles and coinsides with meridian. Thus these phenomena cause day and night equal all over the earth on these two dates 23rd September and 21st March.

(3) 22nd December :

On December 22 the subpolar points arrives at the tropic of Capricorn [23(½)°S]. The south pole is inclined towards the sun and the north pole is away from it. The rays of the sun fall vertically on the 23(½)°s latitude. From September 23 to December 21 days are longer and nights are shorter in the Southern hemisphere having the longest day and shortest night on December 22 every year. The reverse conditions prevail in the northern hemisphere. These phenomena cause the longest night and shortest day on December 22.

Question8. Write a note on Uttarayan And Dakshinayan.
Answer:

Uttarayan And Dakshinayan

The sun does not move; the Earth moves. But to us on the Earth, it appears as if it is the sun that moves between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. This means that all latitudes between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn have the sun vertically overhead at least once between June and December and once again between December and June. Therefore, places between the tropics have the sun overhead twice a year. Places beyond the two tropics have the sun directly overhead only once a year.

(1) Northward apparent migration (Uttarayan):

For six months of a year, the sun appears to be moving north. This northward migration begins after December 22 and is completed on June 21, when the sun is directly overhead 23(½)°N latitude (Tropic of Cancer). The last day of northward migration of the sun is 21 June and this day is known as day of Uttarayan and last time limit of northward movement of the sun is 23 (½)°N latitude.

Class 9 Geography Solution WBBSE

(2) Southward apparent migration (Dakshinayan) :

For six months of the year, the sun appears to be moving south. This southward migration begins after June 21 and is completed on December 22, when sun is directly overhead at 23 (½)°of latitude (Tropic of Capricorn), The last day of southward migration of the sun is 22nd December, and this day is known as the day of Dakshinayan and last limite of the southward movement of the sun is Tropic of Capricorn or 23 (½)°s • This Northward and Southward migration of the sun is known as Rabimarg.

Question 9. State the Salient features of Earth’s Rotation.
Answer:

Salient features of the Earth’s Rotation are :

(1) Direction of Rotation :

If we look down upon the Earth (Globe) from outside, the Earth is found to rotate from West to East or in an anticlockwise direction. Since the Earth rotates in a West-east direction, we see the sun rising every day in the east and setting in the west.

(2)Axis:

(1) Rotation is the turning around of the Earth on its axis, from west to east.

(2) The axis is the imaginary line passing through the centre of the Earth on which the Earth rotates.

(3) The Earth spins west to east around its axis once in 24 hours.

(4) The North Pole and the South Pole lie at the ends of the axis.

(5) The earth’s axis is not vertical. It makes an angle of 66 (½)° Earth’s orbit.

(6) The Earth’s axis always remains pointed in the same direction (towards the Pole star) as the Earth journeys around the sun.

(7) The tilt of the Earth’s axis is also known as the inclination of the Earth’s axis.

(3) The Speed of Rotation :

Being spherical in shape the surface speed of rotation of the earth is variable. It is highest at the equator, gradually diminishing towards north and south and become zero at the poles. The surface speed at the equator (0°) is 1630 km/hr.

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Notes

Question10. Give a brief account of different experiments and the Earth’s motion in ancient times.
Answer:

Different experiments and the Earth’s motion in ancient times

(1)Ancient Times :

Though lacking in the technological advances of today as well as the scientific knowledge which scientists enjoy today, ancient astronomers and mathematicians did not let this deter them from making sense of the beauty of the night sky. Armed with the limited mathematics of the day, namely geometry and trigonometry, as well as the desire to describe the movements of the celestial objects, early astronomers and mathematicians laid the foundations to explain planetary motion.

Eudoxas [409-356 BC] :

Eudoxas is credited with being the first person to create a model of our solar system. His geocentric model placed our earth at the center of the known universe. Other known objects the sun, the moon, five planets, and the stars rotated around the earth on a series of 27 concentric sphere moving at different speeds and inclinations.

Aristarchus [310-230 BC]:

The contributions of Aristarchus are significant. Aristarchus is considered to be the first person in recorded history to suggest the idea of a heliocentric solar system in which the earth was not the center.

Claudius Ptolemy [85-165 AD]:

Ptolemy is most associated with the geocentric model of our solar system. Ptolemy used the idea of epicycles (the orbital paths of the celestial objects) and deferants (the orbital paths of the epicycles) to account for the retrograde motion of the planets.

(2) Middle Ages :

Models of planetary and celestial motion remained relatively unchanged throughout the Middle Ages. Most of the astronomers and mathematicians who made contributions did so in the form of simply altering the Ptolemaic model, rather than transforming it completely.

(3) Renaissance :

Birth of Modern Astronomy: The renaissance period is just one of many steps in the natural progression of humankind. It is in this period where many topics, such as art, politics, religion, etc., received a newfound interest. The change from the geocentric view to the heliocentric view of the solar system did not happen overnight. The most important people involved in this transition were Nicolaus Copernicus, Johannes Kepler, Galileo Galilei, and Sir Isaac Newton.

Nicolaus Copernicus (1473-1543) :

He was a polish astronomer. With him began the age of modern astronomy. Copernicus became acquainted with the idea of the Greek philosopher Aristarchus that the Earth and the other planets revolved around the sun. He became convinced of the correctness of the theory. He constructed the Solar System with the sun at its center and Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn orbiting it. Copernicus proposed that the Earth rotates, which better explained the daily motions of the heavens.

WBBSE Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Notes

Tycho Brahe (1546-1601) :

He held the view that the son and moon revolved around the earth while everything else revolved round the sun.

Galileo Galilei (4564-1642) :

His work relating to Jupiter and its satellites helped greatly to form his opinions on planetary motion. While observing Jupiter with newly invented telescope. He noticed four small stars near the giant planet. After months of observations, he determined the “small stars” must be orbiting Jupiter. He thus disapproved the idea everything in the universe revolved around the earth.

(4) Giordano Bruno:

One of Copernicus’s followers, Giordano Bruno was burned at the stake for refusing to denounce the Copernican theory.

(5) Johannes Kepler (1571-1630) :

He was a German astronomer who supported the Copernican theory. He discovered that all planets have elliptical orbits. He was deeply religious and believed that the creator made an orderly uni¬verse. Armed with a good mathematical mind and great faith in the observational data of the Danish astronomer Tycho Brahe, he derived, formulated, and verified the three basic laws of planetary motion.

Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion :

(1) The path of each planet around the sun is an ellipse with the sun at one focus.

(2) The “area rule”: a planet covers equal areas of its orbit in equal periods of time.

(3) The period of revolution of a planet is proportional to its distance from the sun, i.e., it travels most rapidly when it is nearest the sun and most slowly when it is farthest from the sun.

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography and Environment

• Chapter 1 Earth As A Planet
• Chapter 3 Determination Of The Location Of A Place On Earth Surface
• Chapter 4 Geomorphic Processes And Land Forms Of The Earth
• Chapter 5 Weathering
• Chapter 6 Hazards And Disasters
• Chapter 7 Resources Of India
• Chapter 8 West Bengal
• Chapter 9 Map & Scale