WBBSE For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 2 Levels Of Organization Of Life MCQS

Chapter 2 Levels Of Organization Of Life MCQs

Question 1. The biomolecules are —
(1) Unique to life
(2) Organic in nature
(3) The product of biological activity
(4) All of these

Answer: (4) All of these.

Question 2. The most abundant inorganic compound in living organism is —
(1) Sodium chloride
(2) Water
(3) Phosphoric acid
(4) Calcium Carbonate

Answer: (2) Water.

Question 3. Goitre results due to the deficiency of —
(1) Iron
(2) Zinc
(3) Iodine
(4) Sodium

Answer: (3) Iodine.

Question 4, Which of the following are derived lipids ?
(1) Stery! ester
(2) Steroids
(3) Neutral fats
(4) Waxes

Answer: (2) Steroids.

Question 5. The sugar present is nucleotide is always —
(1) Deoxyribose
(2) Ribose
(3) Both a and b ”
(4) A pentose sugar

Answer: (4) A pentose sugar.

Question 6. How many types of nitrogenous bases are found in the nucleic acid ?
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

Answer: (1) 2.

Question 7. Monosacchrides are —
(1) Simple sugar –
(2) Compound sugar
(3) Derived sugar
(4) None

Answer: (1) Simple sugar.

Question 8. Macromolecule is —
(1) Glucose
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Amino acid
(4) All

Answer: (2) Nucleic acid.

Question 9. An enzyme activator mineral element is —
(1) Mg
(2) Ca
(3) Mn
(4) All

Answer: (4) All.

Question 10. A substance used as heat insulator is —
(1) Corbohydrate
(2) Protein
(3) Lipid
(4) Starch

Answer: (3) Lipid.

Chapter 2 Levels Of Organization Of Life CELL

Question 1. Branch of biology dealing with the study of cells is —
(1) Histology
(2) Cytology
(3) Morphology
(4) Ecology

Answer: (2) Cytology

Question 2. Which structure of animal cell is characterised by selective permeability?
(1) Cell wall
(2) Ribosome
(3) Chromosome
(4) Cell membrane

Answer: (4) Cell membrane

Question 3. Cell membrane is mainly composed of —
(1) Protein and sugar
(2) Protein and lipid t
(3) Starch and lipid
(4) Sugar and minerals

Answer: (2) Protein and lipid

Question 4. Golgi body originates from —
(1) Cell membrane
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Nuclear membrane

Answer: (2) Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 5. Protein factory of the cell is —
(1) Centrosome
(2) Chromosome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Lysosome

Answer: (3) Ribosome

Question 6. In which one of the following, DNA is absent?
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloro plast
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Nucleus

Answer: (3) Peroxisome

Question 7. Suicidal bag of the cell is —
(1) Centrosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Chromosome

Answer: (3) Lysosome

Question 8. Which of the following is Lysosome of plant cell?
(1) Sphaerosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Glyoxysome
(4) Microsome

Answer: (1) Sphaero some

Question 9. The chief constituent of cell wall is —
(1) Lipid
(2) Salt
(3) Carbohydrate
(4) Protein

Answer: (3) Carbohydrate

Question 10. True nucleus is not found in —
(1) Protozoa
(2) Bacteria
(3) Funge
(4) Algae

Answer: (2) Bacteria

Question 11. Covering membrane of vacuole is — e
(1) Cell wall
(2) Cell membrane
(3) Tonoplant
(4) Chloroplast

Answer: (3) Tonoplast

Question 12. Beside nucleus, DNA is also found in —
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Ribosome
(4) Golgibody

Answer: (2) Chloroplast.

Question 13. Largest cell is —
(1) Ramie fibre
(2) Acetabularia
(3) Egg of ostrich
(4) Neuron

Answer: (3) Egg of ostrich

Question 14. Quantasome remains within —
(1) Chloroplast
(2) Leucoplast
(3) Chromoplast
(4) Tonoplast

Answer: (1) Chloroplast

Question 15. “Power house of the cell” is —
(1) Golgi body
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Nucleus

Answer: (3) Mitochondria.

Question 16. Who defined protoplasm as a physical basis of life?
(1) Schwann
(2) Watson
(3) Huxley
(4) Dujardin

Answer: (4) Dujardin

Question 17. Dictyosomes are —
(1) Type of ribosomes
(2) Type of flagellalid organelle
(3) Respiratory particle
(4) Golgi bodies

Answer: (4) Golgi bodies

Question 18. The organelle found between cell wall of two cells is called —
(1) Microsome
(2) Middle lamella
(3) Lysosome
(4) Desmosome

Answer: (2) Middle lamella :

Question 19. “Fluid mosaic model” of cell membrane is given by —
(1) Robert Borown
(2) Singer & Nicholson
(3) Schleiden & Schwann
(4) Schimpher

Answer: (2) Singer & Nicholson

Question 20. Hydrolytic enzymes are present in —
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Lysosome
(4) Plastids

Answer: (3) Lysosome

Question 21. Which one of the following is the seat of all metabolic activites of the
cell?
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: (1) Cytoplasm

Question 22. The “cell theory” is also known as —
(1) Cell biology
(2) Cytology
(3) Cell doctrine
(4) All of these

Answer: (3) Cell doctrine

Question 23. The cell theory was proposed by —
(1) Singer and Nicholson
(2) Schleiden and Schwann
(3) Singer and Schwann
(4) Schleiden and Nicholson

Answer: (2) Scheliden and Schwann’

Question 24. The term “Plastid” was coined by — .
(1) Haeckel
(2) Strasburger
(3) Virchon
(4) Flemming

Answer: (1) Haeckel

Question 25. Protoplasmic strands between adjacent plant cells are —
(1) Ectodesmata
(2) Desmosome
(3) Proto plasmic fibrils
(4) Plasmodesmata

Answer: (4) Plasmodesmata

Question 26. Cristae occurs in —
(1) Golgi bodies
(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) ER

Answer: (3) Mitochondria

Question 27. Endoplasmic reticulum remains attached to —
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgibodies
(3) Nuclear envelope
(4) Chloroplasts

Answer: (3) Nuclear envelope

Question 28. Robert Brown discovered —
(1) Cell wall
(2) Nucleolus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Nucleus

Answer: (4) Nucleus

Question 29. Which organelle is present only is plants?
(1) Glyoxysome
(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxysome

Answer: (1) Glyoxysome

Question 30. Leucoplast can be —
(1) Amyloplast
(2) Elaioplast
(3) Aleuroneplast
(4) Any of these

Answer: (4) Any of these

Question 31. Cell theory is the not applicable for —
(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Algael
(4) Virus

Answer: (4) Virus

Question 32. Which one of these cell organelles lacks membrane?
(1) Mesosome
(2) Ribosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Liposome

Answer: (2) Ribosome

33. Plant cell normally lacks —
(1) Ribosome
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Centriole
(4) Cell membrane

Answer: (3) Centriole

34. Which one of the following structure is an organelle within an organelle?
(1) Ribosome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) ER
(4) Mesosome

Answer: (2) Peroxisome

35. What is mitoplast?
(1) Membraneless mitochondria
(2) Another name of mitochondria
(3) Mitochondria without outer membrane
(4) Mitochondria without inner membrane

Answer: (3) Mitochondria without outer membrane

36. The animal cells are interconnected by —
(1) Plasmodesmata
(2) Cell wall
(3) Desmosome
(4) Plasma membrane

Answer: (3) Desmosome

37. Prokaryotic cell does not have —
(1) Nucleolus
(2) Membrane bound organelles
(3) Centrioles
(4) All of these.

Answer: (4) All of these.

Chapter 2 Levels Of Organization Of Life Tissue MCQs

Question 1. Basement membrane is associated with —
(1) Epithelial tissue
(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

Answer: (1) Epithelial tissue

Question 2. Nucleus is absent in —
(1) Neutrophil
(2) Eosinophil
(3) Basophil
(4) Erythrocytes

Answer: (2) Eosinophil

Question 3. Intercalated disc is present in —
(1) Striated muscle
(2) Smoooth musele
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) None of them.

Answer: (3) Cardiac muscle.

Question 4. The outermost covering of neurone is —
(1) Axalemma
(2) Neuro lemma
(3) Myelin sheath
(4) None of them

Answer: (2) Neuro lemma

Question 5. Scale like tissue is represented by —
(1) Squamores epitheliuan
(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium

Answer: (2) Columnar epithelium

Question 6. Columnar epithelium is found in —
(1) Stomach
(2) Small intestine
(3) Large intestine
(4) Sweat gland

Answer: (2) Small intestine

Question 7. Lymphoid tissues are found in —
(1) Thymus gland
(2) Sweat gland
(3) Liver gland
(4) Stomach

Answer: (1) Thymus gland

Question 8. The tissue forms padding under the skin is —
(1) Areolar tissue
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Bone
(4) Cartilage

Answer: (2) Adipose tissue

Question 9. Tendon is an example of —
(1) Cartilage
(2) Fibrous connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Adipose tissue

Answer: (2) Fibrous connective tissue

Question 10. Connective tissue which joins muscle to bones is —
(1) Ligament
(2) Tendon
(3) Cartilage
(4) All

Answer: (2) Tendon

Question 11. The tissue concerned with the perception and response of animals is —
(1) Muscular tissue
(2) Nerve tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

Answer: (2) Nerve tissue

Question 12. The tissue present at the joining between two long bones is —
(1) Tendon
(2) Ligaments
(3) Epithelial
(4) Nerve tissue

Answer: (2) Ligaments

Question 13. A part of the body to perform some specified function is —
(1) Cell
(2) Tissue
(3) Organs
(4) System

Answer: (3) OrgAnswer:

Question 14. Tissue is formed by —
(1) Similar cells with same metabolic activity
(2) Similar cells with different metabolic activity
(3) Dissimilar cells with same function
(4) Similar cells with similar origin

Answer: (4) Similar cells with similar origin

Question 15. “Pavement epithelium” refers to —
(1) Columnar epithelium
(2) Squamous epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Pseudo stratified epithelium

Answer: (2) Squamous epithelium.

Question 16. Ciliated epithelium in our body is found in —
(1) Vagina
(2) Trachea
(3) Bile duct
(4) Loop of Henley

Answer: (2) Trachea.

Question 17. Who first used the lerm tissue ?
(1) Myer
(2) Mapighi
(3) Xavier
(4) Linneus

Answer: (3) Xavier.

Question 18. Sensory epithelium is modified into —
(1) Squamous epithelium
(2) Columnar cells
(3) Giliated cells
(4) Stratified cells

Answer: (2) Columnar cells.

Question 19. Tearing of ligament is called —
(1) Sprain
(2) Dislocation
(3) Fracture
(4) Break

Answer: (1) Sprain.

Question 20. Which of the following stores histamine and serotonin?
(1) Macrophages
(2) Mast cells
(3) Fibroblasts
(4) Plasma cells

Answer: (2) Mast cells.

Question 21. Haversian system is a feature of —
(1) Reptilean bone
(2) Mammalian bone
(3) Avian bone
(4) All animals

Answer: (2) Mammalian bone

Question 22. Cells forming cartilage are called —
(1) Osteoblast
(2) Fibroblast
(3) Chondrocytes
(4) Epiblasts

Answer: (3) Chondrocytes

Question 23. Mast cells are found in —
(1) Connective tissue
(2) Muscles
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Nerve cell

Answer: (1) Connective tissue

Question 24. Adipose tissue is rich in—
(1) Mast cells
(2) Fat cells
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Monocytes

Answer: (2) Fat cells

Question 25. Most abundant protein in the muscle is —
(1) Actin
(2) Myosin
(3) Myoglobin
(4) Tropomyocin

Answer: (2) Myosin

Question 26. The nerve cells do not have —
(1) Microtubules
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus
(4) Centrosome

Answer: (4) Centrosome

Question 27. Nodes of Ranvier are found in —
(1) Cyton
(2) Dendron
(3) Axon
(4) Dendrites

Answer: (3) Axon

Question 28. Main property of nervous tissue is —
(1) Contraction
(2) Irritability
(3) Excitability
(4) both b and c

Answer: (4) Both b and c

Question 29. Areolar conncetive tissue joins —
(1) Bone with bones
(2) Fat body with muscle
(3) Integument with muscte
(4) Bone with muscle

Answer: (3) Integument with muscle

Question 30. Which one of the following is not a connective tissue —
(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Blood
(4) Muscle

Answer: (4) Muscle

Question 31. Bone marrow is absent in —
(1) Reptilia
(2) Amphibia
(3) Mammalia
(4) Birds

Answer: (4) Birds

Question 32. The science which deals with the study of tissue is called —
(1) anatomy
(2) histology
(3) histogen
(4) tissue system

Answer: (2) histology

Question 33. Apical, Intercalary and lateral meristems are differentialed on the basis of —
(1) development
(2) origin
(3) function
(4) position

Answer: (2) origin

Question 34. Intercalary meristem is found in —
(1) Root
(2) Stem tip
(3) Petiole and internodes
(4) Latex

Answer: (3) Petiole and internodes

Question 35. The simple tissue having thinnest wall in plant is —
(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Aerenchyma
(4) Sclerenchyma

Answer: (1) Parenchyma.

Question 36. The xylem of stem is —
(1) Exarch
(2) Endarch
(3) Mesarch
(4) None of them

Answer: (2) Endarch.

Question 37. Vascular bundle in the dicot stem is —
(1) open collateral
(2) closed collateral
(3) open bicollateral
(4) closed bicollateral

Answer: (1) open collateral.

Question 38. The living element of xylem is —
(1) xylem parenchyma
(2) xylem fibre
(3) tracheid
(4) trachea

Answer: (1) xylem parenchyma

Question 39. The photosynthetic parenchyma is —
(1) Chlorenchyma
(2) Idioblast
(3) Aerenchyma
(4) Sclerenchyma

Answer: (1) Chlorenchyma

Question 40. Meristematic tissue originates from —
(1) Pro-meristem
(2) Apical meristem
(3) Lateral meristem
(4) Cambium

Answer: (1) Pro-meristem

Question 41. Example of lateral meristem is —
(1) Cork cambium
(2) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Fascicular cambiun
(4) All of these

Answer: (4) All of these

Question 42. The tissue which consists of dead cells with thickened lignified wall is—
(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) None of these

Answer: (3) Sclerenchyma

Question 43. The dead element of phloem tissue is —
(1) Phloem fibre
(2) Phloem parenchyma
(3) Seive tube
(4) Companion cells

Answer: (1) Phloem fibre

Question 44. The category of plant tissue that have lost their ability to multiply is—
(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) All of these

Answer: (4) All of these

Question 45. Air cavity containing parenchyma is called —
(1) Chlorenchyma
(2) Aerenchyma
(3) Prosenchyma
(4) Mesenchyma

Answer: (2) Aerenchyma

Question 46. Palisade is a type of —
(1) Parenchyma
(2) Chlorenchyma
(3) Photosynthetic tissue
(4) All of the above

Answer: (4) All of the above

Question 47. Science which deals with the study of tissue is called —
(1) Anatomy
(2) Histology
(3) Tissue System
(4) Histogen

Answer: (2) Histology

Question 48. The cells which can perpetuate themselves are —
(1) Perpetual cells
(2) Permanent cells
(3) Meristematic cell
(4) Old, inactive cell

Answer: (3) Meristematic cell

Question 49. Asimple tissue is always —
(1) Living
(2) Thin walled
(3) Homogenous
(4) Storage

Answer: (3) Homogenous

Question 50. Primary growth in plants occures due to the activity of —
(1) Apical meristem
(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Cambium
(4) Both a and b

Answer: (4) both a and b

Question 51. A Cambium is always —
(1) Primary in origin
(2) Secondary in origein
(3) Lateral in position
(4) Present in vascular bundle

Answer: (3) Lateral in position

Question 52. Identify the totally dead plant tissue —
(1) Phloem
(2) Xylem
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) Both b and c

Answer: (3) Sclerenchyma

Question 53. Water conducting elements in angiosperm are —
(1) Vessels
(2) Tracheids
(3) Tracheae
(4) All of these

Answer: (4) All of these

Question 54. The only living component of xylem tissue is —
(1) tracheae
(2) xylem parenchyma
(3) xylem fibre
(4) tracheids

Answer: (2) xylem parenchyma

Question 55. The only dead cell of phloem tissue is —
(1) Phloem fibre
(2) Phloem parenchyma
(3) Seive tube
(4) Companian cell

Answer: (1) Phloem fibre

Question 56. Chlorophyll:containing parenchyma is called —
(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Chlorenchyma
(4) Arenchyma

Answer: (3) Chlorenchyma

Question 57. The conducting tissue in plants are —
(1) xylem
(2) phloem
(3) meristematic tissue
(4) both a and b

Answer: (4) both a and b

Question 58. The cells having capacity to divide are—
(1) meristematic cell
(2) xylem
(3) phloem
(4) all

Answer: (1) meristematic cell

Question 59. Parenchyma with large air sacs are called —
(1) Chlorenchyma
(2) Aerenchyma
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Sclerenchyma

Answer: (2) Aerenchyma

Question 60. Cell wall thickened at corner in—
(1) Collenchyma
(2) Parenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) None of these

Answer: (1) Collenchyma

Question 61. Stone cells are—
(1) Xylem
(2) Phloem
(3) Sclereids
(4) Fibres

Answer: (3) Sclereids

Question 62. Meristematic tissue develop from —
(1) Permanent tissue
(2) Cambium
(3) Promeristem
(4) Phloem

Answer: (3) Promeristem

Question 63. Most efficient conducting element of xylem is —
(1) Tracheids
(2) Vessels
(3) Xylem fibre
(4) All of these

Answer: (2) Vessels

Chapter 2 Levels Of Organization Of Life Major Organs Of Human Body MCQs

Question 1. Alimentary system is concerned with —
(1) circulation
(2) digestion
(3) respiration
(4) excretion

Answer: (2) digestion

Question 2. The ‘U’ shaped Duodenum is the part of —
(1) first part of the small intestine
(2) middle part of the small intestine
(3) last part of the small intestine
(4) large intestine.

Answer: (1) first part of the small intestine

Question 3. Lungs are the parts of ——
(1) alimentary system
(2) excretory system
(3) respiratory system
(4) circulatory system

Answer: (3) respiratory system

Question 4. Stomach consists of —
(1) two
(2) three
(3) four
(4) five parts

Answer: (1) two

Question 5. Kidney is a part of —
(1) respiratory system
(2) excretory system
(3) circulatory system
(4) alimentary system

Answer: (2) excretory system

Question 6. The pumping organ of blood is —
(1) kidney
(2) lungs
(3) heart
(4) stomach

Answer: (3) heart

Question 7. One of the functions of the alimentary system is —
(1) respiration
(2) digestion
(3) excretion
(4) circulation

Answer: (2) digestion

Question 8. Human heart is composed of — chambers.
(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

Answer: (4) four

 

WBBSE For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 4 Biology And Human Welfare MCQS

Chapter 4 Biology And Human Welfare MCQs

Question 1. Which one of the following help in increase the yield of rice-T
(1) Pseudomonas
(2) Azotobactor
(3) Spirulina
(4) Azolla

Answer: (4) Azolla.

Question 2. Which one is a symbiotic bacteria ?
(1) Clostridium
(2) Chlorobium
(3) Chromatium
(4) Rhizobium

Answer: (4) Rhizobium

Question 3. The algae spirulina is-
(1) Biofertiliser
(2) Single cell protein
(3) Antibiotic
(4) Biopesticide

Answer: (3) Antibiotic.

Question 4. Microbes are very useful in the production of-
(1) Vaccine
(2) Antibiotic
(3) Fuel
(4) All the above

Answer: (4) All the above.

Question 5. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?
(1) Agrobacterium
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Nostoc
(4) Mycorrh

Answer: (3) Nostoc.

Question 6. The pathogen of malaria is-
(1) Bacteria
(2) Virus
(3) Protozoa
(4) Nematodes

Answer: (3) Protozoa.

Question 7. BCG is a vaccine used for the disease-
(1) Malaria
(2) Tuberculosis
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Cholera

Answer: (2) Tuberculosis.

Question 8. WASH programme was launched by –
(1) UNESCO
(2) Russia
(3) IUCN
(4) UNICEF

Answer: (4) UNICEF.

Question 9. WBC cell associated with immunity is-
(1) Neutrophil
(2) Eosinophil
(3) Basophil
(4) Monocyte

Answer: (1) Neutrophil.

Question 10. Antibodies are-
(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Protein
(3) Lipid
(4) Vitamins

Answer: (2) Protein.

Question 11. The process of developing immunity against infection is called-
(1) Immunization
(2) Vaccination
(3) Sanitation
(4) Toxication

Answer: (1) Immunization.

Question 12. A sexually transmitted disease is –
(1) Malaria
(2) Dengue
(3) AIDS
(4) Filaria

Answer: (3) AIDS.

Question 13. This germ causes serious diarrhoea in human. It is –
(1) Salmonella
(2) Mycobacterium
(3) Agaricus
(4) Corynebacterium

Answer: (1) Salmonella

Question 14. This virus infects through blood transfusion. This is –
(1) Hepatitis A virus
(2) Hepatitis B virus
(3) Influenza virus
(4) None

Answer: (2) Hepatitis B virus

Question 15. Flavivirus causes-
(a) Hepatitis
(b) AIDS
(c) Dengue
(d) Influenza

Answer: (3) Dengue

Question 16. Cause of tuberculosis is a-
(1) Virus
(2) Protozoa
(3) Bacteria
(4) Fungi

Answer: (3) Bacteria

Question 17. Retroviruses cause a disease. This is known as –
(1) Autoimmune disease
(2) Immune deficiency disease
(3) Hepatitis B
(4) Hepatitis A

Answer: (2) Immune deficiency disease

Question 18. Mycorrhiza is an association of-
(1 Bacteria and virus
(2) Algae and fungi
(3) Fungi and root of plants
(4) Fungi and gymnosperms

Answer: (3) Fungi and root of plants

Question 19. Which of the following is not a type of immunoglobulin?
(1) IgG
(2) IgE
(3) IgA
(4) IgS

Answer: (4) IgS

Question 20. The foreign substances which on entering our body activate the body’s immune system are-
(1) Antibodies
(2) Antigens
(3) Immunoglobulins
(4) Lymphocytes

Answer: (2) Antigens

Question 21. Which of the following vaccines contain killed pathogens?
(1) Killed vaccine
(2) Toxoid vaccine
(3) Attenuated vaccine
(4) Conjugate vaccine

Answer: (1) Killed vaccine

Question 22. Which of the following is not a type of T-cell?
(1) Cytotoxic T-cell (T, cell)
(2) Helper T-cell (T,, cell)
(3) Suppresor T-cell (T, cell)
(4) Plasma T-cell (T, cell).

Answer: (4) Plasma T-cell (T, cell)

Question 23. Which of the following is a fungus acting as bio-control agent?
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Caudovirales
(3) Nosema locustae
(4) Beauveria bassiana

Answer: (4) Beauveria bassiana

Question 24. Tetanus is caused by-
(1) Bacteria
(2) Virus
(3) Protozoa
(4) Fungi

Answer: (1) Bacteria

Question 25. Causative agent of diphtheria is –
(1) Clostridium tetani
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(4) Cornybacterium diphtheriae

Answer: (4) Cornybacterium diphtheriae

Question 26. Yellowing of skin and eye is a symptom of –
(1) Pneumonia
(2) Tetanus
(3) Hepatitis
(4) AIDS

Answer: (3) Hepatitis

Question 27. Dengue is caused by-
(1) Plasmodium vivax
(2) Plasmodium malariae
(3) Flavivirus
(4) Plasmodium falciparum

Answer: (3) Flavivirus

Question 28. Which of the following is an anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria, actin as biofertilizer?
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Clostridium
(3) Derxia
(4) Rhizobium

Answer: (1) Azotobacter

Question 29. Fungi involved in formation of mycorrhiza is-
(1) Agaricus
(2) Amanita
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Ascobolus

Answer: (2) Amanita

 

WBBSE For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity MCQS

Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Life And Its Diversity Plant Kingdom MCQs

Question 1. Bryophytes are — :
(1) Embryophytes
(2) Pioneer land plants
(3) All of these
(4) Amphibians of plant kingdom

Answer: (4)Amphibians of plant kingdom.

Question 2. Which group of plant is known as vascular cryptogams?
(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Algae

Answer: (2)Pteridophyta. :

Question 3. kelps are marine —
(1) Angiosperm
(2) Red algae
(3) Green algae
(4) Brown algae

Answer: (4)Brown alga.

Question 4. Multicellular rhizoids occur in —
(1) Liver worts
(2) Hornworts
(3) Mosses
(4) None of these

Answer: (3)Mosses.

Question 5. Spirulina belongs to kingdom —
(1) Monera
(2) Fungi
(3) Plantae
(4) Animalia

Answer: (1)Monera.

Question 6. An alga which is rich in protein is —
(1) Ulothrix
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Nostoc
(4) Chlorella

Answer: (4)Chlorella.

Question 7. Which one of the following plant is monocious?
(1) Marchantia
(2) Pinus
(3) Cycas
(4) Papaya

Answer: (2)Pinus.

Question 8. Which one is an edible fungi?
(1) Mucor
(2) Penicillium
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Agaricus

Answer: (4)Agaricus.

Question 9. Component of the cell wall of fungi is —
(1) Cellulose
(2) Pectin
(3) Chitin
(4) Dextrin

Answer: (3)Chitin.

Question 10. A plant with naked seed is —
(1) Mango
(2) Cycas
(3) Fern
(4) Neem

Answer: (2)Cycas.

Question 11. Which of the following is a prokaryote?
(1) Amoeba
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Bacteria
(4) Chlamydomonas

Answer: (3)Bacteria.

Question 12. The lichen represents symbiotic relationship between —
(1) Algae and bacteria —_
(2) Fungi and higher plants
(3) Algae and fungi
(4) Bacteria and virus :

Answer: (3)Algae and fungi.

Question 13. A thalloid bryophyte is —
(1) Riccia
(2) Pogonatum
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Lycopodium

Answer: (1)Riccia.

Question 14. Angiosperms are included under —
(1) Embryophyta
(2) Trachaeophyta
(3) Spermatophyta
(4) Each of them

Answer: (4)Each of them.

Question 15. In fungi reserve food is —
(1) Starch
(2) Cellulose
(3) Glycogen
(4) Ali of these

Answer: (3)Glycogen.

Question 16. Fern rhizome is —
(1) Root
(2) Stem
(3) Rhizoid
(4) Rhizophore

Answer: (3)Rhizoid.

Question 17. The smallest flower is of —
(1) Carica papaya
(2).Nelumbo nucifera
(3) Wolfia micro scopia_
(4) Rafflesia

Answer: (3)Wolfia micro scopia.

Question 18. Which part of coconut is eaten?
(1) Entire seed
(2) Embryo
(3) Pericarp
(4) Seed coat

Answer: (1)Entire seed.

Question 19. Which one is a parasitic algae ?
(1) Sargassum
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Cephaleuros
(4) Oedogonium

Answer: (3)Cephaleuros. :

Question 20. Which one is not a root vegetable?
(1) Potato
(2) Turnip
(3) Carrot
(4) Sweet potato

Answer: (1)Potato.

Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Animal Kingdom MCQs

Question 1. Which of the following is ectoparasite in other fishes —
(1) Dog fish
(2) Lamprey
(3) Rohu
(4) Lobeo

Answer: (2)Lamprey. :

Question 2. Which of the following is toad?
(1) Hyla
(2) Bufo
(3) Rana
(4) Tree frog

Answer: (2)Bufo.

Question 3. Which of the following is a flying lizard?
(1) Wall lizard
(2) Varanus
(3) Draco
(4) Monitor lizard

Answer: (3)Draco.

Question 4. “Venus flower basket” is the popular name of —
(1) Spongilla
(2) Sea lily
(3) Euplectella
(4) Obelia

Answer: (3)Euplectella.

Question 5. Leach is —
(1) Endoparasite
(2) Ectoparasite
(3) Vector
(4) Free living

Answer: (2)Ectoparasite.

Question 6. The anti-coagulant produced by Leech is —
(1) heparin
(2) hirudin
(3) oxalates
(4) citrates

Answer: (2)hirudin.

Question 7. Acharacteristic feature of mollusc is —
(1) Soft body
(2) Shell
(3) Foot
(4) Mantle

Answer: (4)Mantle.

Question 8. The centipedes have —
(1) 100 legs
(2) 100-200 legs
(3) A pair of legs per each trunk segment
(4) Equal to the body segment

Answer: (3)A pair of legs per each trunk segment.

Question 9. Water vascular system is a characteristic of —
(1) Sponges
(2) motluses
(3) Coelentrates
(4) Echinoderm

Answer: (4)Echinoderm.

Question 10. The internal body cavity of coelenterates is —
(1) Haemocoel
(2) Coelom
(3) Enteron
(4) Pseudocoel

Answer: (3)Enteron.

Question 11. Which one Arthopodes is viviparous ?
(1) Cockroach
(2) Scorpion
(3) Prawn
(4) Centipede

Answer: (2)Scorpion.

Question 12. Which of the following is not a true fish?
(1) Dogfish
(2) Jelly fish
(3) Flying fish
(4) Gold fish

Answer: (2)Jelly fish.

Question 13. All are cold blooded animals except

(1) crocodile
(2) varanus
(3) snake
(4) pigeon

Answer: (4)pigeon.

Question 14. The bat is a true —
(1) bird
(2) flying mammal
(3) flying fish
(4) flying lizard

Answer: (2)flying mammal.

Question 15. The scorpion respires through —
(1) Gills
(2) Spiracles
(3) Book lung
(4) Trachea

Answer: (3)Book lung.

Question 16. The basic unit of classification is —
(1) order
(2) class
(3) species
(4) family

Answer: (3)species.

Question 17. Animals having innumerable pores in their body are grouped under—
(1) Porifera
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Protozoa
(4) Mollusca

Answer: (1)Porifera.

Question 18. Acoelomate animals fall under the phylum —
(1) Nemathelminthes _
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

Answer: (2)Platy helminthes.

Question 19. One of the following animals get already digested food and need not digest it again. It is —
(1) Amoeba
(2) Cockroach
(3) Leech
(4) Taenia

Answer: (4)Taenia.

Question 20. The Largest number of animals belong to —
(1) Mammalia
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Reptilia
(4) Pisces

Answer: (2)Arthropoda.

Question 21. The body of hydra is —
(1) Monoblastic
(2) Triploblastic
(3) Diplobiastic
(4) Polyblastic

Answer: (3)Diploblastic.

Question 22. Ink gland is found in—
(1) Sepia
(2) Octopus
(3) Loligo
(4) All of these

Answer: (4)All of these.

Question 23. True flight is found in —
(1) Flying fish
(2) Flying lizard
(3) Flying frog
(4) Bat

Answer: (4)Bat.

Question 24. Mammary glands are modification of —
(1) Salivary galnd
(2) Sebaceous.gland
(3) Sweat gland
(4) Lacrymal gland

Answer: (2)Sebaceous gland.

Question 25. The phylum of which animals can live on land, in water and can also fly is— 
(1) Arthropoda
(2) Protozoa
(3) Mollusca
(4) Annelida

Answer: (1)Arthropoda.

Question 26. Which one of we following animals is not a vertebrate?
(1) Fish *
(2) Pigeon
(3) Garden lizard
(4) Amphioxus

Answer: (4)Amphioxus.

Question 27. Stinging cells are found in —
(1) Frog
(2) Snake
(3) Hydra
(4) Snail

Answer: (3)Hydra. :

Question 28. The bat differs from bird in having —
(1) Four chambered heart
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Wings
(4) Small brain

Answer: (2)Diaphragm.

Question 29. The animals of which invertebrate phylum consist kidney like structure for excretion?
(1) Anrthropoda
(2) Mollusca
(3) Porifera
(4) Echinodermata

Answer: (2)Mollusca.

Question 30. Excretory organ of earthworm is —
(1) Nephirdia
(2) Kidney
(3) Trachea
(4) Gills

Answer: (1)Nephirdia.

Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Life and Biology MCQs

Question 1.Who first recognised plants and animals as living objects ?
(1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
(3) Pavlov
(4) Phillipson

Answer: (2)Aristotle

Question 2. In which of the following leaves protoplasmic movement is clearly observed under microscope —
(1) Vallisneria leaf
(2) China rose leaf
(3) Lotus leaf
(4) Lemna leaf

Answer: (1)Vallisneria leaf

Question 3. The constructive phase in which food materials are built up into more complex substances is called —
(1) Catabolism
(2) Metabolism
(3) Anabolism
(4) None of these

Answer: (3)Anabolism :

Question 4. Movement by the help of flagella is observed in —
(1) Paramaecium
(2) Euglena
(3) Amoeba
(4) Hydra

Answer: (2)Euglena

Question 5. The characteristic of life is —
(1) Respiration
(2) Movement
(3) Growth
(4) All of these

Answer: (4)All of these

Question 6. Life first originated in earth —
(1) In the soil
(2) In air
(3) In rocks
(4) In water

Answer: (4)In water

Question 7. The study of classification of plants and animals on the basis of their relationship, resemblances and differences is called —
(1) Ecology
(2) Taxonomy
(3) Anatomy
(4) Genetics

Answer: (2)Taxonomy

Question 8. The term ecology was proposed by —
(1) Haeckel
(2) Pavlov
(3) Simpson
(4) Tansiey

Answer: (1)Haeckel

Question 9. Biology and Statistics together form a subject called —
(1) Bionics
(2) Biometry
(3) Bioinformatics
(3) Bio-Geography

Answer: (2)Biometry

Question 10. The subject which deals with the study of cells is called —
(1) Genetic .
(2) Cytology
(3) Taxonomy :
(4) Pathology

Answer: (2)Cytology

Question 11. The branch of science which deals with birds is called —
(1) Apiculture
(2) Pisciculture
(3) Ornithology
(4) None of these

Answer: (3)Ornithology

Question 12. The branch of science which deals with the study of bacteria is called —
(1) Dendrology
(2) Agrostology
(3) Bacteriology
(4) Helminthology

Answer: (3)Bacteriology

 

WBBSE For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 3 Physiological Processes Of Life MCQS

Chapter 3 Physiological Processes Of Life Respiration MCQs

Question 1. Who proposed that respiration is a catabolic process?
(1) Lamark
(2) Lavoisier
(3) Pristley
(4) Barnes

Answer: (2) Lavoisier.

Question 2. Energy currency of cell is—
(1) ADP
(2) Mitochondria
(3) ATP
(4) Chloroplast

Answer: (3) ATP.

Question 3. Arespiratory substrate is —
(1) glucose
(2) Protein
(3) fats
(4) All of these

Answer: (4) All of these.

Question 4. The starting point of respiration is —
(1) Amino acid
(2) Glucose
(3) Pyruvate
(4) None

Answer: (2) Glucose.

Question 5. The site of glycolysis is —
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Golgibodies
(4) Nucleus

Answer: (2) Cytoplasm.

Question 6. The final phase of respiration is —
(1) glycolysis
(2) terminal respiration
(3) krebs cycle
(4) cytoplasm.

Answer: (2) terminal respiration.

Question 7. The step common in both aerobic and anaerobic respirations is —
(1) Krebs cycle
(2) Terminal respiration
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Carbon assimilalion

Answer: (3) Glycolysis.

Question 8. In fermentation pyruvic acid is converted into (in animals) —
(1) lactic acid
(2) ethanol
(3) starch
(4) glycogen

Answer: (1) lactic acid.

Question 9. In krebs cycle the first formed acid is —
(1) acetic acid
(2) farmic acid
(3) citric acid
(4) carbonic acid

Answer: (3) citricacid.

Question 10. T.C.A. cycle is also called —
(1) glycolysis
(2) krebs cycle
(3) light phase
(4) dark phase

Answer: (2) krebs cycle.

Question 11. Energy produced in aerobic respiration is —
(1) 646 kcal
(2) 686 kcal
(3) 656 kcal
(4) 486 kcal

Answer: (2) 686 kcal.

Question 12. Number of ATP produced during glycolysis is —
(1) 4 molecules
(2) 6 molecules
(3) 1 molecules
(4) 2 molecules

Answer: (4) 2 molecules.

Question 13. A bacteria having anaerobic respiration is —
(1) Clostridium
(2) Rhizobiun
(3) Azotobactor
(4) All

Answer: (4) All.

Question 14. Pneumatophores are found in —
(1) halophytes
(2) bryophytes
(3) epiphytes
(4) algael

Answer: (a) hallophytes.

Question 15. The respiratory organ in dragonfly is —
(1) gills
(2) external gills
(3) tracheal gills
(4) moist skin

Answer: (3) tracheal gills.

Question 16. Example of jeol fish is —
(1) Koi
(2) Mangur
(3) Singhi
(4) All of these

Answer: (4) All of these.

Question 17. An aquatic mammal respiring with lungs is —
(1 Sea horse
(2) Whale
(3) Shark
(4) Dolphin

Answer: (2) Whale.

Question 18. The respiratory organ of crocodile is —
(1) Gill
(2) Skin
(3) Lung
(4) Trachea

Answer: (3) Lung.

Question 19. Pyruvic acid is the end product of —
(1) Calvin cycle
(2) Citric acid cycle
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Photolysis

Answer: (3) Glycolysis.

Question 20. Cell organelle which participates in respiration is —
(1) Goligbodies
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Nucleus

Answer: (2) Mitochondria.

Question 21. Percentage of CO, in air is —
(1) 0.05%
(2) 0.06%
(3) 0.03%
(4) 0.09%

Answer: (3) 0.03%.

Question 22. RQ of glucose is —
(1) 2
(2) Less than one
(3) 1
(4) 3

Answer: (3) 1.

Question 23. Covering membrane of lung is —
(1) Pericardium
(2) Pleura
(3) Meninges
(4) Tonoplast

Answer: (2) Pleura.

Question 24. Spiracels are present in —
(1) Earthworm
(2) Cockroach
(3) Fishes
(4) Amoeba

Answer: (2) Cockroach.

Question 25. In plant exchange of gases takes place through —
(1) Stomata
(2) Lenticel
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Both a and b

Answer: (4) Both a and b.

Question 26. An animal having respiration with mouthcavity and lungs is —
(1) Fish
(2) Crocodile
(3) Frog
(4) Eathworm

Answer: (3) Frog.

Question 27. In higher plants exchange of gases takes place through —
(1) Stomata
(2) Lenticels
(3) Pneumatophore
(4)All

Answer: (4) All.

Question 28. Which respiratory pigment is present is pond snail ?
(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Haemocyanin
(3) Heparin
(4) Fibrin

Answer: (2) Haemocyanin.

Question 29. Alveoli are present in —
(1) heart
(2) brain
(3) lungs
(4) stomach

Answer: (3) lungs.

Question 30. Lactic acid are found in our body in—
(1) Lungs
(2) Skeletal muscle
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) Smooth muscle.

Answer: (2) Skeletal muscle.

Question 31. Which one of the following organs is the main respiratory organ of whale ?
(1) Integument
(2) Lung
(3)Gill
(4) Trachea.

Answer: Lung is the main respiratory organ of whale.

Question 32. The cell organelle which participates in respiration is —
(1) Golgibodies
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus
(4) chloroplast

Answer: The cell organelle which participates in respiration is Mitochondria.

Question 33. What is the main respiratory organ of house lizard ?
(1) Integument
(2) Nephridia
(3) External gills s
(4) Lungs

Answer: Lung is the main respiratory organ of house lizard.

Question 34. Pyruvic acid is the end product of —
(1) Citric acid cycle
(2) Calvin cycle
(3) Glycolysis
(4) Photolysis

Answer: Pyruvic acid is the end product of Glycolysis.

Question 35. Respiratory organ of a cockroach is —
(1) Skin
(2) Gill
(3) Trachea
(4) Lung.

Answer: Respiratory organ of a cockroach is Trachea.

Question 36. In which of the animals, trachea is the respiratory organ?
(1) Cockroach
(2) Fish
(3) House lizard
(4) Earth worm.

Answer: Trachea is the respiratory organ of Cockroach.

Question 37. The respiratory organ of Crocodile is —
(1) Gill
(2) Skin
(3) Lung
(4) Trachea

Answer: The respiratory organ of Crocodile is Lung.

Question 38. Respiration in absence of free oxygen is —
(1) Anaerobic
(2) Aerobic
(3) Alcoholic fermentation

Answer: Respiration in absence of free oxygen is Anaerobic.

Question 39. An animal performing anaerobic respiration is —
(1) Earth worm
(2) Tapeworm
(3) Glow worm
(4) None of the above

Answer: An animal performing anaerobic respiration is Tapeworm.

Question 40. Percentage of oxygen in inspiratory air is —
(1) 16%
(2) 12.4%
(3) 20.60%
(4) 30%

Answer: Percentage of oxygen in inspiratory air is 20.60%

Question 41. What is the end product of Glycolysis?
(1) Citric acid
(2) Malic acid
(3) Nitric acid
(4) Pyruvic acid

Answer: Pyruvic acid is the end product of Glycolysis.

Question 42. In the cell of living organisms the energy is stored in
(1) NADP
(2) ADP
(3) ATP
(4) PGA

Ans In the cell of living organisms the energy is stored in ATP.

Question 43. In which animal does skin act as the main respiratory organ?
(1) Toad
(2) Prawn
(3) Cockroach
(4) Earthworm

Answer: Skin acts as the main respiratory organ in Earthworm.

Question 44. The breathing organ of Rohu fish is —
(1) Green gland
(2) Trachea
(3)Gill
(4) Lung

Answer: The breathing organ of Rohu fish is Gill.

Question 45. In which of the organs alveolus is seen ?
(1) Liver
(2) Lung
(3) Skin
(4) Kidney

Answer: Alveolus is seen in Lung.

Question 46. Which one of the following is produced in muscle cells during anaerobic respiration?
(1 Acetic acid
(2) Lactic acid
(3) Ethyl alcohol
(d4) Hydrochloric acid

Answer: Lactic acid is produced in muscle cells during anaerobic respiration.

Question 47. Which one of the following is called energy currency ?
(1) NADH2
(2) ATP
(3) ADP
(4) FADH2

Answer: ATP is called energy currency.

Question 48. Cutaneous respiration takes place in
(1) Cockroach
(2) Earthworm
(3) Spider
(4) Amoeba.

Answer: Cutaneous respiration takes place in Earthworm.

Question 49. Respiratory organ of Periplanta americana is
(1) Skin
(2) External gills
(3) Lung
(4) Trachea

Answer: Respiratory organ of Periplanta americana is trachea.

Question 50. The respiratory organ of shark is
(1) Lungs
(2) Trachea
(3) Internal gills
(4) External gills

Answer: The respiratory organ of Shark is internal gills.

Question 51. How many ATP are produced from 1 gm mole glucose by aerobic
respiration ?
(1) 8 ATP
(2) 38 ATP
(3) 12 ATP
(4) 7 ATP

Answer: 38 ATP are produced from 1gm mole glucose by aerobic respiration.

Question 52. Glycolysis occurs within the
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Plastids
(4) Nucleus

Answer: Glycolysis occurs within the cytoplasm.

Question 53. Due to oxidation of how much glucose about 686 K cal of energy is generated in aerobic respiration.
(1) 1 Molecule of glucose
(2) 1 gm molecule of glucose
(3) 1. gm of glucose
(4) 180 kg of glucose

Answer: Due to oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose about 686 K cal of energy is generated in aerobic respiration.

Question 54. The biochemical pathway which produces pyruvic acid as an end product is —
(1) Photolysis
(2) Glycolysis
(3) Kreb’s cycle

Answer: The biochemical pathway which produces pyruvic acid as an end product is glycolysis.

Question 55. Lactobacillus is used for making
(1) Acetic acid
(2) Alcohol
(3) lactic acid from Lactose of milk.

Answer: Lactobacillus.is used for making lactic acid from lactose of milk.

Question 56. Labyrinthine organ is an accessory respiratory organ of
(1) Scorpion
(2) Koi
(3) Crocodile
(4) Frog

Answer: Labyrinthine organ is ari accessory respiratory organ of Koi.

Question 57. In which form of energy is the potential energy of the food usually liberated in respiration ?
(1 light energy
(2) heat and kinetic energy
(3) electric energy
(4) kinetic energy

Answer: The potential energy of food is usually liberated in the form of heat energy and kinetic energy in respiration.

Question 58. What is the respiratory organ of cockroach ?
(1) Cell Membrane
(2) Moist skin
(3) Trachea
(4) Gills

Answer: Trachea is the respiratory organ of cockroach.

Question 59. In anaerobic respiration___ Keal energy is produced.
(1) 150
(2) 686
(3) 574
(4) 50

Answer: In anaerobic respiration 50 Kcal energy is produced.

Chapter 3 Physiological Processes Of Life Nutrition MCQs

Question 1. The secretion of which of the following glands does not contain any enzyme necessary for digestion ?
(1) Liver
(2) Pancreas
(3) Salivary gland
(4) Glands of the small intestine

Answer: The secretion of Liver does not contain any enzyme necessary for digestion.

Question 2. Amongst the following types of food, which one has Nitrogen as an essential component ?
(1) Fats
(2) Carbohydrates
(3) Proteins

Answer: Protein has Nitrogen as an essential component

Question 3. An example of Symbiotic plant is —
(1) Cuscuta
(2) Agaricus
(3) Sundew
(4) Lichen

Answer: An example of Symbiotic plant is Lichen.

Question 4. From which part of human digestive system no carbohydrate digesting enzyme is secreted ?
(1) Buccal cavity
(2) Pancreas
(3) Intestine
(4) Stomach

Answer: From Stomach no carbohydrate digesting enzyme is secreted.

Question 5. Cuscuta is a –
(1) Autotroph
(2) Heterotroph
(3) Parasite

Answer: Cuscuta is a Parasite.

Question 6. The Vitamin that can be synthesized in human body is —
(1) K
(2) C
(3) A
(4) D

Answer: The Vitamin that can be synthesized in human body is D.

Question 7. Which of the following acts as source of energy in the body?
(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Vitamin
(3) Water
(4) Minerals

Answer: Carbohydrate acts as source of energy in the body.

Question 8. Which type of food provides nitrogen to the body?
(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Protein
(3) Fat
(4) Vitamin

Answer: Protein type of food provides nitrogen to the body.

Question 9. Which one of the following is the largest digestive gland in vertebrates?
(1) Salivary glands
(2) Pancreas
(3) Liver
(4) Intestinal gland

Answer: Liver is the largest digestive gland in vertebrates.

Question 10. The proteolytic enzyme in pancreatic juice is —
(1) Amylase
(2) Lipase
(3) Trypsin
(4) Pepsin

Answer: The proteolytic enzyme in pancreatic juice is Trypsin.

Question 11. Chemical name of Vitamin C is —
(1) Ascorbic acid
(2) Retinol
(3) Phylloquinone
(4) Nicotinic acid

Answer: Chemical name of Vitamin C is Ascorbic acid.

Question 12. Which of the following parts of human digestive system does not secrete protein and oil or fat digestive enzyme?
(1) Mouth
(2) Pancreas
(3) Small intestine
(4) Stomach

Answer: Mouth does not secrete protein and oil or fat digestive enzyme.

Question 13. Due to deficiency of which of the following demente chlorosis occurs in plants ?
(1) Calcium
(2) Oxygen
(3) Magnesium
(4) Sodium

Ans Due to deficiency Magnesium chlorosis occurs in plants.

Question 14. In which of the following parts of the digestive system of human body digested food substances are absorbed ?
(1 Oesophagus
(2) Liver
(3) Pancreas
(4) Small intestine

Ans Digested food substances are absorbed in Small intestine.

Question 15. Which of the following organs produces bile ?
(1) Gall bladder
(2) Pancreas
(3) Liver

Ans Liver produces bile.

Question 16. The name of the enzyme which is present in the saliva and which acts upon carbohydrate food is —
(1) Pepsin
(2) Ptyalin
(3) Amylase
(4) Erepsin

Answer: The name of the enzyme which is present in the saliva and which acts upon carbohydrate food is Ptyalin.

Question 17. The bile duct enters —
(1 Liver
(2) Pancreas
(3) Duodenum

Answer: The bile duct enters Duodenum.

Question 18. Deficiency of which vitamin produces anaemia?
(1) Vitamin B1
(2) Vitamin B12
(3) Vitamin B6
(4) Vitamin B2

Answer: Deficiency of Vitamin B12 produces anaemia.

Question 19. Which vitamin contains cobalt ?
(1) Vit B1
(2) Vit B2
(3) Vit B12
(4) Vit C

Answer: Vit B12contains cobalt.

Question 20. Which of the following diseases results due to deficiency of Vitamin ‘A’ ?
(1) Ricket
(2) Scurvy
(3) Night blindness
(4) Beri-Beri

Answer: Night blindness disease results due to deficiency of Vitamin ‘A’.

Question 21. Where are villi situated ?
(1) In kidney
(2) In lungs
(3) Buccal cavity
(4) Small intestine

Answer: Villi are situated in Small intestine.

Question 22. What is pepsin?
(1) Animal hormone
(2) Enzyme
(3) Plant hormone
(4) panes material

Answer: Pepsin is Enzyme.

Question 23. Which one of the following vitamins is water soluble?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D
(4) Vitamin E

Answer: Vitamin C is water soluble.

Question 24. Which one of the following elements is required as trace element in plant ?
(1 Carbon
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Boron
(4) Phosphorus

Answer: Boron is required as trace element in plant.

Question 25. Which one of the following is hindered due to deficiency of vitamin ‘A’ causing “night blindness” ?
(1) Rod cell construction
(2) Retina constfuction
(3) Cone cell construction
(4) Nerve cell construction

Answer: Rod cell construction is hindered due to deficiency of vitamin ‘A’ causing “night blindness”.

Question 26. The Vitamin sysnthesized in the human skin is —
(1) Vitamin K
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin A
(4) Vitamin D

Answer: The Vitamin synthesized in human skin is Vitamin D.

Question 27. An animal Starch is —
(1) Glycogen
(2) Albumin
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose

Answer: An animal Starch is Glycogen.

Question 28. Blood coagulation does not occur due to the deficiency of which Vitamin ?
(1) Vitamin A,
(2) Vitamin B12,
(3) Vitamin C,
(4) Vitamin K

Answer: Blood coagulatior does not occur due to the deficiency of Vitamin K.

Question 29. Mainly from which molecule of the following, energy is released ?
(1) Protein
(2) Glycerol
(3) Glucose
(4) Amino acid

Answer: Energy is released mainly from glucose molecule.

Question 30. A micro element helpful in plant nutrition is .
(1) Nitrogen
(2) Potassium
(3) Zine
(4) Phosphorus

Answer: A micro element helpful in Plant nutrition is Zinc.

Question 31. Due to the deficiency of which Vitamin the disease Ricket occurs in children ?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D
(4) Vitamin K

Answer: Due to the deficiency of Vitamin D the disease Ricket occurs in children.

Question 32. The component of food which does not yield energy is
(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Protein
(3) Fat
(4) Vitamin.

Answer: The component of food which does not yield energy is Vitamin.

Question 33. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of 3
(1) Amino acid
(2) Nicotinic aicd
(3) Citric acid
(4) Lactic acid

Answer: Pellagra is caused by due to deficiency of Nicotinic acid.

Question 34. The gland from which. three types of digestive enzymes are secreted is —
(1) Liver
(2) Pancreas
(3) Salivary gland
(4) Gastiric gland

Answer: The gland from which three types of digestive enzymes are
secreted is pancreas.

Question 35. Deficiency of which Vitamin causes Scurvy ?
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin C

Answer: Deficiency of Vitamin C causes scurvy.

Question 36. Which mineral is present in haemocyanin pigment ?
(1)Fe
(2) Mg
(3) Cu
(4) Co

Answer: Cu mineral is present in haemocyanin pigment.

Question 37. Which animal from the following organisms can prepare its own food ?.
(1) Toad
(2) Eugiena
(3) Mucor
(4) Mango tree

Answer: Euglena can prepare its own food.

Question 38. Proteins contain —
(1) Calcium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Iron
(4) Nitrsgen

Answer: Proteins contain Nitrogen,

Question 39. The substance which is nota carbonydrateis
(1) Cane sugar
(2) Sioumin
(3) Lactose
(4) Starcn

Answer: The substance which is not a carbohydrate is Albumin.

Question 40. The antivitamin preventing the action of biotin is
(1) Carotene
(2) Avidin
(3) Pyrithamine

Answer: The antivitamin preventing the action of biotin is avidin.

Question 41. Protein can be digested by —
(1) Ptyalin
(2) Lipase
(3) Pepsin
(4) Maltase

Answer: Protein can be digested by Pepsin.

Question 42. Which one of the following diseases is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin E ?
(1) Night blindness
(3) Infertility
(3) Ricket
(4) Scurvy

Answer: Infertility disease is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin E.

Question 43. The metallic ion essential for blood coagulationis—.
(1) Cat*
(2) Kt
(3) Mg**
(4) Na*

Answer: The metallic ion esser.: al for blood coagulaton is ca**.

Question 44. The major reasen of anaemia in human body is the deficiency of
(1) Iodine in food
(2 Calcium in food
(3) Magnesium in food
(4) Iron in food

Answer: The major reason of anaemia in human body is the deficiency of Iron in food.

Question 45. The digestion of carbohydrates occurs in which of the following in man ?
(1 Buccal cavity
(2) Stomach
(3) Buccal cavity and stomach
(4) Buccal cavity and Small intestine

Answer: The digestion of carbohydrates occurs in buccal cavity and small intestine.

Question 46. The enzyme which is not present in succus entericus is_
(1) Trypsin
(2) Maltase
(3) Sucrase
(4) Lactase

Answer: The enzyme which is not present in succus entericus is trypsin.

Question 47. Deficiency of Iodine leadsto.
(1) Anaemic
(2) Pelagra
(3) Goitre

Answer: Deficiency of iodine leads to goitre.

Question 48. Xeropthalmia is caused by the deficiency of ss.
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B12
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin D

Answer: Xeropthalmia is caused by deficiency of Vitamin A.

Question 49. Atotal Parasiteis_
(1) Mucor
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Swarnlata
(4) Agaricus

Answer: A total Parasite is Swarnlata.

Question 50. Citrus fruits like orange contain
(1 Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin D

Answer: Citrus fruits like orange contain Vitamin C.

Question 51. Oxyntic cells are responsible for the secretion of —
(1) Pepsin
(2) Ptyalin
(3) HCI
(4) None

Answer: Oxyntic cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl.

Question 52. Which element is known as enzyme activator ?
(1) Zinc
(2 Copper
(3) Molybdenum
(4) Iron

Answer: Zinc is known as enzyme activator.

Question 53. Osteomalacia is caused by the deficiency of —
(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin K

Answer: Osteomalacia is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin D.

Question 54. The organic substance from which energy is not obtained is —
(1 Protein
(2) Carbohydrate
(3) Fat
(4) Vitamins

Answer: The organic substance from which energy is not obtained is Vitamins.

Question 55. The metallic element which is required for the formation of
haemoglobin is —
(1) Iron (Fe)
(2) Calcium (Ca)
(3) Magnesium (Mg)
(4) Potassium (K)

Answer: The metallic element which is required for the formation of haemoglobin is Iron (Fe).

Question 56. Which digestive juice of your body would turn a blue litmus paper red?
(1) salivary juice
(2) bile juice
(3) pancreatic juice
(4) gastric juice

Answer: Gastric Juice turns a blue litmus paper red.

Question 57. Of the following, is a protective food.
(1) carbohydrate
(2) vitamin
(3) protein
(4) fat

Answer: Of the following, vitamin is a protective food.

Question 58. A child has swollen and bleeding gums. Which food could he be given to reduce the symptoms ?
(1) germinating gram seeds
(2) carrot
(3) egg
(4) lemon

Answer: Lemon should be given to him to reduce the symptoms.

Question 60. Deficiency of which mineral causes chlorosis in plant?
(1) Mg
(2) Ca
(3) Na
(4) Al

Answer: Deficiency of Magnesium causes chlorosis in plant.

Question 61. An enzyme which is secreted from stomach is —
(1) Trypsin
(2) Pepsin
(3) Ptyalin
(4) Erepsin

Answer: An enzyme which is secreted from stomach is Pepsin.

Question 62. Which one of the following is a fat soluble vitamin?
(1) vitamin ‘B1
(2) vitamin ‘D’ .
(3) vitamin ‘C’
(4) vitamin ‘B12

Answer: Vitamin ‘D’ is a fat soluble vitamin.

Question 63. The nutrients are —
(1) Vitamins
(2) Minerals
(3) Water
(4) all these

Answer: (4) all these.

Question 64. Fats provides more energy than carbohydrate because —
(1) Fat contains more hydrogen
(2) Fat contains more oxygen
(3) Fat contains more useful substances
(4) Fat contains more carbon.

Answer: (1) Fat contains more hydrogen.

Question 65. Monosacchrides are linked together by —
(1) hydrogen bond
(2) glucoside bond
(3) linkage bond
(4) none of these

Answer: (1) hydrogen bond.

Question 66. The chief stored form of carbohydrate in animals is —
(1) Starch
(2) Glycogen
(3) Sucrose
(4) Maltose

Answer: (2) Glycogen.

Question 67. A derived lipid is —
(1) sterols
(2) phospholipid
(3) glycolipids
(4) fatty acids

Answer: (1) sterols.

Question 68. Cod liver oil is a rich source of —
(1) Vit Band C
(2) Vit A and D
(3) Vit A and C
(4) Vit D and K

Answer: (2) Vit A and D.

Question 69. The calorific value of fat is —
(1) 4.3 kcal
(2) 9.7 kcal
(3) 9.3 kcal
(4) 4.1 kcal

Answer: (3) 9.3 kcal.

Question 70. The simplest form of protein is —
(1) Glucose
(2) Glycerol
(3) Amino acid
(4) Ester

Answer: (3) Amino acid.

Question 71. The essential amino acid is —
(1) Valine
(2) Histidine
(3) Methionine
(4) All

Answer: (4) All.

Question 72. Aderived protein is —
(1) Glycine
(2) Polypeptides
(3) Serine
(4) All

Answer: (2) Polypeptides.

Question 73.An element acts as growth promoter and is present in vit B-12. What is it ?
(1) Chlorine
(2) Copper
(3) Cobalt
(4) Calcium

Answer: (3) Cobalt.

Question 74. Vitamine acts as —
(1) enzyme
(2) co-enzyme
(3) solvent
(4) promoter

Answer: (2) co-enzyme.

Question 75. Caroten is the provitamin of —
(1) VitA
(2) Vit D
(3) Vit C
(4) Vit K

Answer: (1) Vit A.

Question 76. An example of antivitamin is —
(1) Ergosterol
(2) Avidin
(3) Carotene
(4) None of these

Answer: (2) Avidin.

Question 77. Nyctalopia is caused due to the deficiency of —
(1 VitC
(2) Vit D
(3) VitK
(4) VitA

Answer: (4) Vit A.

Question 78. A bone disease due to the deficiency of Vit D is —
(1) Xeropthalmia
(2) Osteomalacia
(3) Beri-beri
(4) Night blindness

Answer: (2) Osteomalacia.

Question 79. The symptoms 3D disease for
(1) Anaemia
(2) Scurvy
(3) Pellagra
(4) Rikets

Answer: (3) Pellagra.

Question 80. The chemical name of Vit E is —
(1) Calciferol
(2) Thiamine
(3) Tocopherol
(4) Riboflavin

Answer: (3) Tocopherol.

Question 81. A total stem parasite is
(1) Cuscuta
(2) Dodder
(3) Swarnlata
(4) All

Answer: (4) All.

Question 82. A partial saprophytic plant is
(1) Mucor
(2) Agaricus
(3) Montropa
(4) Pinus

Answer: (4) Pinus

Question 83. An insectivorous plant is
(1) Nepenthes
(2) Cascuta
(3) Orchid
(4) Cycas

Answer: (1) Nepenthes.

Question 84. The optimum temperature for enzyme activity is —
(1) 20-25°C
(2) 30-40°C
(3) 35-40°C
(4) 30-55°C

Answer: (3) 35—40°C

Question 85. The bile juice is stored in—
(1) Liver
(2) Pancreas
(3) Spleen
(4) Gall bladder

Answer: (4) Gall bladder.

Question 86. The proteolytic enzyme present in intestinal juice is —
(1) Pepsin
(2) Trypisn
(3) Erepsin
(4) Ptyalin

Answer: (3) Erepsin.

Question 87. Lacteals are present in—
(1 Villi
(2) Alveoli
(3) Stomach
(4) Mouth

Answer: (1) Villi.

Question 88. Milk does not contain ~
(1) Vit C
(2) Iron
(3) Calcium
(4) Both a and c

Answer: (1) Vit C.

Question 89. Which of the following supplies nitrogen to the body ?
(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Fat
(3) Protein
(4) Vitamin

Answer: (3) Protein.

Question 90. Which one of the following vitamins is water soluble ?
(1) VitA
(2) Vit C
(3) Vit D
(4) VitE

Answer: (3) Vit C.

Question 91. The major reason of anaemia in human body is the deficiency of
(1) Iodine in food
(2) Calcium in food
(3) Magnesium in food
(4) Iron in food

Answer: (4) Iron in food.

Question 92. The partly digested food in stomach is called —
(1) Chyte
(2) Chyme
(3) Mastication
(4) Chewing

Answer: (2) Chyme.

Question 93. Which one is non-functional in human ?
(1) Caecum
(2) Colon
(3) Gall bladder
(4) Rectum

Answer: (1) Caecum.

Question 94. The largest digestive gland in human body is =
(1) Pancreas
(2) Gastric gland
(3) Liver
(4) Salivary gland

Answer: (3) Liver.

Question 95. Asymbiontic association between plants and animals is —
(1) Algae and fungi
(2) Zoochlorella and hydra
(3) Bacteria and fungi
(4) None of these

Answer: (2) Zoochlorella and hydra.

Question 96. Which one is the heterotrophs from —
(1) Mango
(2) Neem
(3) Mucor
(4) Hibiscus

Answer: (3) Mucor.

Question 97. An organism who breaks up the food before ingestion is —
(1) Tapeworm
(2) Round worm
(3) Bacteria
(4) Cat

Answer: (3) Bacteria.

Question 98. Which one is the example of roughage ?
(1) Pulses
(2) Rice
(3) Dalia
(4) Mango

Answer: (3) Dalia.

Question 99. The process of formation of glycogen from glucose takes place in —
(1) Muscle
(2) Liver
(3) Stomach
(4) Both muscle and liver

Answer: (4) Both muscle and liver

Question 100. The process by which glycogen is breaking down to glucose is called—
(1) Glycogenesis
(2) Glycogenolysis
(3) Glucogenesis
(4) All of these

Answer: (2) Glycogenolysis.

Question 101. Simplest Carbohydrate is —
(1) Polysacchrides
(2) Disacchrides
(3) Monosacchrides
(4) Amino acids

Answer: (3) Monosacchrides.

Question 102. The protein part of an enzyme is —
(1) Co-enyme
(2) Apoenzyme
(3) Prosthetic group
(4) None of these

Answer: (1) Co-enyme.

Question 103. The scientist who first introduced the term enzyme is —
(1) Munch
(2) Lindeman
(3) Kuhn
(4) Loandsteiner

Answer: (3) Kuhn.

Question 104. The digestive juice that does not contain enzymes is —
(1) Saliva
(2) Gastric juice
(3) Bile juice
(4) Pancreatic juice

Answer: (3) Bile juice.

Chapter 3 Physiological Processes Of Life Circulation MCQs

Question 1. Blood of which of the following animals does not contain RBC ?
(1) Earthworm
(2) Toad
(3) Man
(4) Fish

Answer: Blood of Earthworm does not contain RBC.

Question 2. Which one of the following three is not seen in the open type of circulatory system ?
(1) Artery
(2) Haemocoel
(3) Capillary

Answer: Capillary is not seen in the open type of circulatory system.

Question 3. In the blood of which of the following animals, haemocyanin is present ?
(1) Earth worm
(2) Prawn
(3) Cockroach
(4) Toad

Answer: In the blood of Prawn haemocyanin is present.

Question 4. In which of the chambers of human heart, oxygenated blood is
received?
(1) Right ventricle
(2) Left auricle
(3) Right auricle
(4) Left ventricle

Answer: In Left auricle of human heart oxygenated blood is received.

Question 5. Main function of white blood corpuscles (WBC) is to —
(1) Produce Red Blood Corpuscles (RBC)
(2) Destroy bacteria
(3) Distribute heat
(4) Clotting of blood

Answer: Main function of white blood corpuscles (WBC) is to destroy bacteria.

Question 6. Lymph returns to blood through —
(1) Capillary
(2) Artery
(3) Vein
(4) Lymph vessel

Answer: Lymph returns to blood through Lymph vessel.

Question 7. The function of right ventricle is
(1) to transmit oxygenated blood
(2) to transmit blood rich in CO2
(3) to receive blood rich in CO2
(4) to receive oxygenated blood

Answer: The function of right ventricle is to transmit blood rich in CO2.

Question 8. Which one of the following in excessive numbers is responsible for Leukemia (Blood cancer) ?
(1) Microbes
(2) Blood platelets
(3) W.B.C
(4) R.B.C

Answer: W.B.C in excessive numbers is responsible for the Leukemia (Blood cancer).

Question 9. Respiratory pigment present in the blood of man is
(1) Haemocyanin
(2) Haemolymph
(3) Haemocyte
(4) Haemoglobin

Answer: Respiratory pigment present in the blood of man is haemoglobin.

Question 10. Open biood circulation is seen in—
(1) Earthworm
(2) Human
(3) Toad
(4) Cockroach

Answer: Open blood circulation is seen in Cockroach.

Question 11. What are the veins having capillaries at both ends called?
(1) Systemic veins
(2) Pulmonary veins
(3) Portal veins
(4) Vena cava

Answer: Veins having capillaries at both ends are called Portal veins.

Question 12. Which one of the following metallic elements is needed in the formation of haemoglobin molecule? [MP-2002]
(1) Magnesium
(2) Iron
(3) Potassium
(4) Calcium

Answer: Iron is needed in the formation of haemoglobin molecule.

Question 13. Lacteal contains —
(1) Deoxygenated blood
(2) Lymph
(3) Plasma

Answer: Lacteal contains lymph.

Question 14. Which vein of man carries oxygenated blood ?
(1) Portal vein
(2) Renal vein
(3) Pulmonary vein
(4) Facial vein

Answer: Pulmonary vein of man carries oxygenated blood.

Question 15. Mitral valve is present at the —
(1) Junction of right atrium and right ventricle
(2) Junction of left atrium and left ventricle
(3) Ventricle and aorta
(4) Ventricle and pulmonary artery

Ans Mitral valve is present at the junction of left atrium and left ventricle.

Question 16. An animal whose blood does not carry oxygen is
(1) Prawn
(2) Fish
(3) Amoeba
(4) Cockroach

Answer: Cockroach blood does not carry oxygen.

Question 17. In which of the following animals is open circulatory system found ?
(1) Prawn
(2) Earth worm
(3) Toad
(4) Man

Answer: Open circulatory system is found in Prawn.

Question 18. The largest cell of the blood is —
(1) Monocyte
(2) Neutrophil
(3) Eosinophil
(4) Lymphocyte

Answer: The largest cell of the bload is Monocyte.

Question 19. What is the name of the element that helps in blood coagulation?
(1) Sodium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Calcium
(4) Phosphorus

Answer: The element that helps in blood coagulation is Calcium.

Question 20. Which one is related with the other three?
(1) Lymphocyte
(2) Monocyte
(3) Leucocyte
(4) Eosinophil

Answer: Leucocyte is related with other three.

Question 21. Which protein is absent in serum?
(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Globulin
(3) Albumin
(4) Bilirubin

Answer: Fibrinogen protein is absent in serum.

Question 22. The function of left auricle in human heart is—
(1) to transmit oxygenated blood
(2) to transmit blood rich in CO2
(3) to receive blood rich in CO2,
(4) to receive oxygenated blood

Answer: The function of left auricle in human heart is to receive oxygenated blood.

Question 23. In the plasma of which of the following animals is hemoglobin present?
(1) Earthworm
(2) Prawn
(3) Cockroach
(4) Toad

Answer: Hemoglobin is present in the plasma of Earthworm.

Question 24. From which of the chambers of human heart is oxygenated blood transmitted to different parts of the body ?
(1) Right auricle
(2) left ventricle
(3) Right ventricle
(4) left auricle

Ans: From Left ventricle of human heart oxygenated blood is transmitted to different parts of the body.

Question 25.____ in the blood of group ‘0’.
(1) Agglutiongen is not present —_
(2) Agglutinin is not present
(3) Agglutinogen ‘A’, is present
(4) Agglutinogen ‘AB’ is present

Answer: Agglutinogen is not present in the blood of group ‘O’.

Question 26. In which pair of following animals haemoglobin is found ?
(1) Man and cockroach
(2) Cockroach and Earthworm
(3) Man and Earthworm
(4) Prawn and cockroach

Answer: Heamoglobin is found in the blood of man and Earthworm.

Question 27. Heparin is secreted from —
(1) Basophil
(2) Neutrophil
(3) Eosinophil

Answer: Heparin is secreted from basophil.

Question 28. Cardiac muscle is
(1) Voluntary striated
(2) Non voluntary striated muscle
(3) Voluntary smooth muscle
(4) Non voluntary smooth muscle

Answer: Cardiac muscle is non-voluntary striated muscle.

Question 29, Lecuocytes which help in antibody formation is
(1) Eosinophil
(2) Neutrophil
(3) Monocyte
(4) Lymphocyte

Answer: Leucocytes which help in antibody formation is lymphocyte.

Question 30. Lymph is a tissue fluid which contains ~
(1) Leucocytes
(2) Serum
(3) Erythrocytes
(4) None of the above

Answer: Lymph is a tissue fluid which contains leucocytes.

Question 31. Which one is the organic part of blood ?
(1) Albumin
(2).Fibrinogen
(3) Calcium
(4) Urea

Answer: Fibrinogen is the organic part of blood.

Question 32. Life of RBC in man is
(1) 90 days
(2) 120 days
(3) 60 days
(4) 220 days

Answer: Life span of RBC in man is 120 days.

Question 33. Suppose your blood group is ‘0’ you can receive blood from a person 1aving blood group —
(1) Group ‘A’
(2) Group ‘B’
(3) Group ‘AB’
(4) Group ‘0’

Answer: Suppose your blood group is ‘0’, You can receive blood from a person having dlood group ‘0’.

Question 34. The plasma protein that helps in clotting of bloodis—
(1) Prothrombin
(2) Albumin
(3) Fibrin

Answer: The plasma protein that helps in the clotting of blood is prothrombin.

Question 35. The kind of cell absent in lymph is —
(1) Monocyte
(2) Lymphocyte
(3) Basophil

Answer: The kind of cell absent in lymph is Basophil.

Question 36. The agglutinin present in Blood Group B is —
(1) Alpha
(2) Beta
(3) both Alpha and Beta
(4) no agglulitinin at all

Answer: The agglutinin present in Blood Group Bis is Alpha.

Question 37. Haemoglobin is dissolved in Plasma in —
(1) Toad
(2) Earthworm
(3) Man
(4) Camel

Answer: Haemoglobin is dissolved in Plasma in Earthworm.

Question 38. A person with ‘A’ blood group can take blood from ___ blood group
(1) A
(2) 0
(3) B
(4) AandO

Answer: A person with ‘A’ blood group can take blood from ‘A’ and ‘O’ blood groups.

Question 39. Blood coagulation is hampered due to the absence of ___.
(1) Vitamin A and Vitamin K
(2) Vitamin D.and Magnesium
(3) Vitamin K and Calcium
(4) Vitamin A and Calcipm

Answer: Blood coagulation is hampered due to absence of Vitamin K and Calcium.

Question 40. Which component of the blood carries O2 & CO2?
(1) red blood corpuscles
(2) white blood corpuscles
(3) red and white blood corpuscles
(4) platelets

Answer: Red blood corpuscles of blood carry O2 & CO2.

Question 41. The blood corpuscle that causes phagocytosis is
(1) RBC
(2) Platelets
(3) Lymphocyte
(4) Neutrophil

Answer: The blood corpuscle that causes phagocytosis is Neutrophil.

Question 42. In which pair of the following animals haemoglobin is found ?
(1) man and cockroach
(2) mosquito and earthworm
(3) man and earthworm
(4) Prawn and cockroach

Answer: Haemoglobin is found in the blood of man and earthworm.

Question 43. The existence of solvent molecules from the cell is called-
(1) Endosmosis
(2) Exosmosis
(3) Diffusion
(4) Turgidity

Answer: (2) Exosmosis

Question 44. The transport of food from leaf to different parts of the plant is called-
(1) Transpiration
(2) Translocation
(3) Guttation
(4) Circulation

Answer: (2) Translocation

Question 45. Instrument used to measure the rate of transpiration is —
(1) Sphygmomanometer
(2) Ganong’s potometer
(3) Spirometer
(4) Speedometer

Answer: (2) Ganong’s potometer

Question 46. In hydra and starfish, the medium of circulation is —
(1) blood
(2) lymph
(3) water
(3) salt

Answer: (3) water

Question 47. Non-protein nitrogenous substance (NPN) is —
(1) urea
(2) uric acid
(3) creatinine
(4)all

Answer: (4) all

Question 48. The life span of plateletes is —
(1) 1-5 days
(2) 15-20 days
(3) 5-9 days
(4) 100-150 days

Answer: (3) 5-9 days

Question 49. Bile pigments are —
(1) Haemoglobin and haemocyanin
(2) Bilirubin and biliverdin
(3) Plasma and Serum
(4) Platelets

Answer: (2) Bilirubin and biliverdin

Question 50. The ratio of WBC and RBC in our body is roughly —
(1) 1: 20
(2) 1: 100
(3) 1: 500
(4) 1: 700

Answer: (4) 1: 700

Question 51. The WBC cells which are phagocytic in nature are —
(1) Neutrophill
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Monocytes
(4) Both a and b

Answer: (4) Both a and b

Question 52. Serotonin is secreted from —
(1) Platelets
(2) Basophils
(3) Neutrophills
(4) Eosinophils

Answer: (1) Platelets

Question 53. Heparin, an anicoagulant, is secreted from —
(1) Eosinophil
(2) Basophil
(3) Neutrophil
(4) None of these

Answer: (2) Basophil

Question 54. Haemocyanin is a copper containing pigment of blood found in —
(1) Earthworm
(2) Crab
(3) Tape worm
(4) All of these

Answer: (2) Crab

Question 55. Blood circulation is described by —
(1) William Harvey
(2) Karl landsteiner
(3) August Weisman
(4) Lindemann

Answer: (1) William Harvey

Question 56. The breaking down of RBC is called —
(1) Phagocytosis
(2) Pinacytosis
(3) Haemolysis
(4) Blood clotting

Answer: (3) Haemolysis

Question 57. The elements used in blood clotting is—
(1) Sodium
(2) Potassium
(3) Calcium
(4) Carbon

Answer: (3) Calcium

Question 58. Open circulatory system is found in—
(1) Cockroach
(2) Grasshopper
(3) Snail
(4) All of these

Answer: (4) All of these.

Question 59. Mitral valve is located
(1) between left auricle and left veutricle
(2) between right auricle and right veutricle
(3) between left ventricle and Aorta
(4) none of these

Answer: (1) between left auricle and left ventricle

Question 60. Haemophilia is a –
(1) Bacterial disease
(2) Protozoan disease
(3) Genetic disorder
(4) Viral disease

Answer: (3) Genetic disorder

Question 61. Canal system as circulatory system is found in —
(1) hydra
(2) earthworm
(3) sponges
(4) tapeworm

Answer: (3) sponges

Question 62. In cockroach, the heart is made up of —
(1) four pairs of Pulsatile tubes
(2) asmall sac like
(3) thirteen funnel shaped chamber
(4) three chambered.

Answer: (3) thirteen funnel shaped chamber

Question 63. The covering membrane of heart is —
(1) Meninges
(2) Pleura
(3) Pericardium
(4) Peristoem

Answer: (3) Pericardium

Question 64. The wall of capillaries is formed by —
(1) Endothelium
(2) Exothelium
(3) Mesodirm
(4) All of these

Answer: (1) Endothelium

Question 65. The circulating medium of insect is called —
(1) haemoglobin
(2) haemocyanin
(3) haemolymph
(4) none of these

Answer: (3) haemolymph

Question 66. Ascent of sap in plants takes place through —
(1) Seive tube
(2) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Xylem vessels
(4) Companion cells

Answer: (3) xylem vessels

Question 67. Cohesive – adhesive force theory was proposed by —
(1) Stephan and Hales
(2) Curtis
(3) Dixon and jolly
(4) Munch

Answer: (3) Dixon and jolly

Question 68. Non-nucleated corpusecles present in human blood is —
(1) Leucocytes
(2) Erythrocytes
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) aandc

Answer: (2) Erythrocytes

Question 69. Smallest blood corpuscles is —
(1) Thrombocytes
(2) Erythrocytes
(3) Phagocytes
(4) Monocytes

Answer: (1) Thrombocytes

Question 70. Universal donor is —
(1) group ‘O’ individual
(2) group ‘AB’ individual
(3) group ‘B’ individual
(4) group ‘A’ individual

Answer: (1) group ‘O’ individual

Question 71. Largest artery is —
(1) Vena cava
(2) Aorta
(3) Capillaries
(4) Veins

Answer: (2) Aorta

Question 72. In the absence of which vitamin, blood coagulation does not take place?
(1) vit-A
(2) vit-B12
(3) vit-C
(4) vit-K

Answer: (4) vit-K

Question 73. Which of the following animals has hemoglobin in its plasma?
(1) Earthworm
(2) Prawn
(3) Cockroach
(4) Toad

Answer: (1) Earthworm

Question 74. Which two animals have hemoglobin in their blood?
(1) human and cockroach
(2) cockroach and earthworm
(3) prawn and cockroach
(4) human and earthworm.

Answer: (4) human and earthworm.

Question 75. Which of the follwing metallic elements is required for the synthesis of haemoglobin molecule?
(1) Magnesium
(2) Calcium
(3) Iron
(4) Potassium

Answer: (3) Iron

Chapter 3 Physiological Processes Of Life Excretion MCQs

Question 1. Which of the following alkaloids is found in Rauvolfia?
(1) Morphine
(2) Nicotine
(3) Reserpine
(4) Quinine

Answer: (3) Reserpine.

Question 2. Which one is not a nitrogenous waste product ?
(1) Quinine
(2) Creatin
(3) Daturine
(4) Tanin

Answer: (4) Tanin.

Question 3. Sweat gland is present in —
(1) Kidney
(2) Lungs
(3) Skin
(4) Liver

Answer: (3) Skin.

Question 4. Latex is the excretory product of —
(1) Arjuna
(2) Rubber
(3) Sajina
(4) Apple

Answer: (2) Rubber.

Question 5. The hormone produced in kidney is —
(1) Erythropoietin
(2) ADH
(3) Vassopressin
(4) None of these

Answer: (1) Erythropoietin.

Question 6. Cystolith contain —
(1) Oxylate
(2) Calcium Carbonate
(3) Potassium nitrate
(4) All of these

Answer: (2) Calcium Carbonate.

Question 7. Which of the following alkaloids is found in Cinchona ?
(1) Nicotin
(2) Reserpine
(3) Morphine
(4) Quinine

Answer: (4) Quinine.

Question 8. Raphide is found in —
(1) Banyan
(2) Arum
(3) Guava
(4) Apple

Answer: (2) Arum.

Question 9. Where does ornithine cycle operate ?
(1) In stomach
(2) In liver
(3) In kidney
(4) In spleen

Answer: (2) In liver.

Question 10. Which material makes urine faintly yellowish ?
(1) Blood
(2) Bilirubin
(3) Haemoglobin
(4) Bile pigment

Answer: (2) Bilirubin.

Question 11. Which animal has nephridia as excretory organ ?
(1) Cockroach
(2) Leech
(3) Toad
(4) Tape worm

Answer: (2) Leech.

Question 12. Which of the following alkaloids is used to decrease blood pressure in human ?
(1) Nicotine
(2) Reserpine
(3) Quinine
(4) Morphine

Answer: (2) Reserpine.

Chapter 3 Physiological Processes Of Life Transpiration

Question 1. The loss of unused water of the plant body liberated into the atmosphere in the form of vapour is called —
(1) Evaporation
(2) Transpiration
(3) Guttation
(4) None of these

Answer: (2) Transpiration

Question 2. Transpiration is least in —
(1) High wind velocity
(2) High atmospheric humidity
(3) Dry soil moisture
(4) Dry environment

Answer: (3) Dry soil moisture

Question 3. Which one is an internal factor transpiration ?
(1) Light
(2) Temperature
(3) Wind velocity
(4) Structure of leaf

Answer: (4) Stucture of leaf

Chapter 3 Physiological Processes Of Life Movement Of Water, Minerals, Food And Gases

Question 1. Movement of water in the cortex of root outside to inside is due to —
(1) gradient of chemical potential
(2) gradient of water potential
(3) accumlation of inorganic salts
(4) accumulation of organic solutes

Answer: (5) gradient of water potential

Question 2. The extracellular solutions which contain less concentration of the solutes and having higher solvent concentration than the cytoplasm are known as—
(1) Isotonic solution
(2) Hypertonic solution
(3) Hypotonic solution
(4) None of these

Answer: (3) Hypotonic solution

Question 3. The active hydrostatic pressure created in the parenchymatous cortical cells of the roots is called —
(1) Turgor pressure
(2) Osmotic pressure
(3) Suction pressure
(4) Root pressure

Answer: (1) Turgor pressure

Question 4. Membrane which allows all the molecules or ions of a solution (both solute and solvent molecules) to pass through itis called —
(1) Impermeable membrane
(2) Permeable membrane
(3) Semi-permeable membrane
(4) Selectively permeable membrane

Answer: (2) Permeable membrane

Question 5. Which one is largely responsible for ascent of sap ?
(1) capillary theory
(2) pulsation theory
(3) root pressure theory
(4) cohesion force and transpiration pull theory

Answer: (2) pulsation theory

Question 6. Whaich one of the following helps in ascent of sap ?
(1) capillarity
(2) root pressure
(3) transpiration
(4) all of these

Answer: (4) all of these

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity

Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Very Short Type Questions And Answers

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity

Question 1. What is the life span of tortoise?
Answer: About 200 years.

Question 2. What is the function of pneumatic bones in birds?
Answer: To reduce the body weight for flying.

Question 3. Define genetic drift.
Answer: The random changes in the allele frequency which is caused by chnce above.

Question 4. How many types of biodiversity are there?
Answer:
(1) Geneticdiversity
(2) species diversity
(3) Community and Ecosystem diversity.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science

Question 5. Who first proposed the term biology?
Answer: Lamarek and Treviranus in 1801

Question 6. Who is the “Father of Biology”?
Answer: Aristotle

Question 7. Who is the “Father of Botany”?
Answer: Theophrastus

Question 8. Who is the “Father of Medicine”?
Answer: Hippocrates

Question 9. What is the basic material of life?
Answer: Protoplasm.

Question 10. What is cybernetics?
Answer: The branch of science has been formed in Collaboration of biology with technology.

Question 11. What is palaentology?
Answer: Study of fossils.

Question 12. What is biogeography?
Answer: Branch of science that deals with the global distribution of plants and animals.

Question 13. What is space biology?
Answer: The study of survival problems of living things in outer space.

Question 14. Bacteria beiongs to which kingdom ?
Answer: Bacteria belongs to kingdom prokaryotae.

Question 15. Who proposed five kingdom classification of plants ?
Answer: R. Whittaker in 1969 proposed the five kingdom classification.

Question 16. Name one protista.
Answer: One Protista is Paramaecium.

Question 17. Who proposed binomial nomenclature ?
Answer: In the year 1753, the Swedish biologist Carolus Linnaeus formulated the method of Binomial (bi, two; nomen, name) nomenclature.

Question 18. Which type of leaf venations is noted in monocotyledonous plants ?
Answer: Leaves are provided with parallel venation.
Exception-Arum.

Question 19. Unicellular, eukaryotic and autotrophic plants are included in which kingdom ?
Answer: They are included in Protista.

Question 20. Name the lowest unit of taxonomy.
Answer: The lowest unit of taxonomy is species.

Question 21. Mention two groups under Thallophyta.
Answer: Plants under Thallophyta are again divided into two groups, e.g. — Algae and Fungi.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science

Question 22. What is the name of body cavity in sponges ?
Answer: The body cavity in sponges is called spongocoel.

Question 23. Which cell helps in canal system of sponges ?
Answer: The canal system is helped by Choanocytes / Collar cell / flagellate cell.

Question 24. In which group of animals gastrovascular cavity is found ?
Answer: It is found in group Cnidaria.

Question 25. Which group of animals are commonly called ‘sea walnut’ ?
Answer: Ctenophores are commonly known as ‘sea walnut’.

Question 26. What is the function of nephridia in earthworm ?
Answer: Nephridia is the excretory organ of earthworm.

Question 27. Name a bird that can not fly.
Answer: Penguin is a bird of Antarctica, which can not fly.

Question 28. Name the mammal that lays eggs.
Answer: Platypus is a mammal that lays eggs.

Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Short Type Questions And Answers

Question 1. What is life?
Answer:

Life

Life is defined as the external manifestation of the action and interaction between the living organism and its environment. :

Question 2. What are five basic mechanism which causes Variation?
Answer: Mutation, Recombination, Gene migration, genetic drift and natural selection.

Question 3. What is divergent evolution?
Answer:

Divergent evolution

Formation of different strueture from a common ancestral form is called divergent evolution.

Question 4. What is convergent evolution ?
Answer:

Convergent evolution

Formation of similar characters among the unrelated group of organism is regarded as convergent evolution.

Question 5. What is the role of gene flow or gene migration in evolution?
Answer: Genetic variation like gene flow is the pre-requisite of evolution. Then the naturalSelection act on this genetic variation.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science

Question 6. What is speciation?
Answer:

Speciation

The process by which one or more species are formed from an existing specis is called speciation.

Question 7. What is organic evolution?
Answer:

OOrganic evolution

The gradual process of change of one form of life into another and development of new type of living organism from pre-existing type over a long period of time.

Question 8. What is Eugenics? 
Answer:

Eugenics

Branch of science which deals with the improvement of human race genetically by Selective control of reproduction.

Question 9. What is chemical evolution?
Answer:

Chemical evolution

The process of development of complex organic molecule such as protein, Nueleic acid from simple inorganic molecule like methane, ammonia, hydrogen etc is called chemical evolution.

Question 10. Name the following branches of biology :
(a) Application of biological processes in technology
(b) Seience of growing fruits and vegetables
(c) Study of pre-historic form of life
(d) Study of causes of immunity
(e) Study of fishes.

Answer: (a) Biotechnology
(b) Horticulture
(c) Palaentology
(d) Immunology
(e) Pisciculture

Question 11. Define taxonomy.
Answer:

Taxonomy

Taxonomy is defined as the science dealing with identification, nomenclature and classification of organism. The term taxonomy was coined by De Condolle in 1813. Carolus Linnaeus is considered as the father of taxonomy.

Question 12. What are coacervates ?
Answer:

Coacervates

According to scientists, the first sign of life was noticed in some larger organic molecules. Oparin (1924) first suggested such a structure and named it coacervate. It is a minute (1 — 100 in diameter), spherical, bubble-like structure composed of a thin layer of organic molecules rich in lipids.

Question 13. What is Immunology ?
Answer:

Immunology :

It involves the study of the defense system in animals and the mechanism by which it is achieved.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science

Question 14. What is biostatistics ?
Answer:

Biostatistics :

The application of statistics in solving biological problems is called Biostatistics. :

Question 15. What are Hemichordates ?
Answer:

Hemichordates

Hemichordates are a small group of marine animals having gill slits, a structure sometimes regarded as notochord in the anterior region only and mostly solid nerve cord. Examples of hemichordates are—Balanoglossus sp. Saccoglossus sp. etc.

Question 16. Write two characteristic feature of amphibia.
Answer:
Class—Amphibia :

Characters: 1. Adults are terrestrial and lung—breathing, while larvae are aquatic and gill-breathing.

2. Skin is moist, glandular and naked (i.e., not provided with any exoskeleton).

Question 17. Write any two examples, each of phylum Mollusca and Phylum Echinodermata.
Answer:

Phylum — Mollusca :

Example: Garden snail, Octopus (Octopus vulgaris)

Phylum — Echinodermata :

Example: Sea cucumber, Starfish (Asterias rubens)

Question 18. Which group of animals are diploblastic and why ?
Answer:

Diploblastic :

When the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the animal is called a diploblastic animal. The two layers are ectoderm and endoderm.

Example : CnidariAnswer:

Question 19. Write two distinctive features of phylum Porifera.

Answer:

Phylum—Porifera :

(1) Body is multicellular, without well developed tissue system. Exoskeleton is hard and rigid, made up of calcium or silicon-rich cells, called spongin fibres or spicules.

(2) One large aperture, called osculum is present at the upper end of the body. There are numerous tiny pores, called ostia, spread all over their body.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science

Question 20. Mention two characters of phylum Anthropoda.
Answer:

Characters :

(1) Presence of externally jointed appendages is the reason for name arthropoda.

(2) Arthropoda is the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia and over two thirds of all known species on the earth are arthropods.

Question 21. How is porifera different to other animals ?
Answer: Prorifera is multicellular like other animals but porifera does not form any tissue hence all the cells are almost independent and living together like a colony of cells. In other multicellular animals, number of cells together form a tissue having specific structure and function.

Question 22. “All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates” —justifies the statement.
Answer:

“All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates”

In all vertebrates, chordate features are present in early embryonic life. Thus, there is notochord which is gradually replaced by vertebral column in course of development. They have pharyngeal gill slits which may be persistent or replaced by lungs— so all vertebrates are basically chordates.

But all chordates are not vertebrates — for example, in Urochordata and Cephalochordata, notochord is persistent throughout life and is never replaced by vertebrate column. Hence urochordates and cephalochordates are chordates but not vertebrates.

Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Life And Its Diversity Descriptive Type Questions And Answers :

Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 1. Define life. Write some characteristics of living beings.
Answer:

Life :

Life is unique, complex cellular organisation of molecules and the cells themselves that shows various types of chemical reactions which lead to availability of energy, growth development, responsiveness, adaptation and reproduction.

Characteristics of Living Beings :

(1) Protoplasm :
All living organisms contain a special type of viscous fluid called protoplasm. Huxley called it the “physical basis of life” because it has capability of performing vital functions. This is composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen.

(2) Cellular Organisation :
All living beings are composed of cell. Some are unicellular but some are multicellular. Cell is the structural and functional unit of life.

(3) Nutrition :
All organisms obtain food from environment material required for the metabolism and energy. Some are autotrophs but some are heterotrophs.

(4) Respiration :
Life is an energy-consuming process. This energy is obtained by breaking down energy-rich food substances through oxidation and it is called respiration.

(5) Metabolism :
The chemical changes through which living organisms acquire and utilize energy constitute metabolism. The process envolves anabolism and catabolism.

(6) Growth :
Young individuals grow in size. The growth is due to internal addition of protoplasmic materials by which cell enlarge and devide. Growth occures when anabolism exceeds catabolism.

(7) Definite shape and size :
Every living being has definite shape and size by which we can recognise it. A dog never looks like a monkey. A peepal tree differs from a mango tree.

(8) Execretion :
Metabolism produces a number of by-products which are useless to the body. The same are either expelled out of the body (in animals) or are stored inside ageing tissue (in plants)

(9) Movement and locomotion :
All living beings can shift either the whole of their body or a part of it from one place to another. It is called movement. When the whole of the body is displaced, it is called locomotion. Some movement occures due to purely internal forces and called autonomic movement. Others occur in response to external stimuli called paratonic movement.

(10) Irritability :
All the living beings respond to external stimuli such as cold, heat, wind, light, pinprick, etc. This is called irritability. Example – if a pin is pricked in a part ofour body, the part is immediately withdrawn. The plant bend in the direction of the light.

(11) Adaptability :
They are variations which help organisms to modify themselves according to changes in environment and specific requirements of their surroundings. Eg. birds have pneumatic bones and wings for flight and fishes have streamlined body to reduce water friction.

(12) Reproduction :
For the continued existence of the species, all living beings try to produce their own kind. The higher animal may produce young ones or may lay eggs from which hatch the young ones. :

(13) Ageing and death :
Every living being survives for a limited time and ultimately it dies. It has a definite lifespan.

(14) Life cycle :
Each individual passes through a definite life cycle of birth, growth, maturation, reproduction, ageing and death (80-100 years in humans, 200 years in Tortoise, more than 200 years in peepal trees).

Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 2. How does the origin of life take place through non living objects?
Answer:

Chemical Origin of Life from non-living objects :

The formation of complex organic molecules from simpler inorganic molecules through chemical reactions in the ocean during the early history of the earth is known as chemical evolution.

The first theory of chemical evolution is given by Oparin and Haldane. According to them, the first formed molecules were small carbon-containing compounds like formal- dehyde and hydrogen cyanide. The small molecules reacted to form sugar, amino acid and nitrogen bases. Small molecules linked together to form nucleic acid and protein. They had ability of self-replication to form first living entity. Oparin suggested that organic compounds could have undergone a series of reactions leading to more complex molecules and forming ‘Coacervates’. It absorb and assimilate organic compounds from environment and became the first life form. The theory of abiogenesis has been proved experimentally by Stanley Miller. He created electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH,, H,, NH, and water vapour at 800°C. He observed formation of Amino Acid. In similar experiments, others observed formation of sugar, nitrogen bases, pigment and fats. For the emergence of life the presence of small organic molecules is not sufficient. There must be assortment of macro molecules including enzymes, proteins and nucleic acid having the self-replicating property. Synthesis of RNA monomers that can be formed from simpler precursor molecules.

Reproduction and energy processing are the two important properties of life forms. Protocells are vesicles fluid-filled compartments can be produced spontaneously when lipid and other organic molecules are added to water. It may be said that the protein coacervates are believed to have given rise to the first living organism.

Photosynthetic organisms are believed to have evolved near about 3500 million years ago. These primitive organisms released oxygen to the atmosphere as a byproduct of photosynthesis. The free oxygen in the atmosphere prevented the abiotic origin of life. So, it can be concluded that life did not evolve from the inorganic substances rather it arose from the pre-existing living organisms.

Question 3. What are the sources of variation of life? Explain.
Answer:

Sources of Variation in life :

Generally, no.two members of a population are exactly alike. The differences of characteristics between members of the same species are called variation. It is the raw material for evolution. Variation is observed both at the phenotypic level and at the genotypic level.

There are five basic mechanisms which cause variation at the genetic level. These are mutation, recombination, gene migration, genetic drift and natural selection.

Mutation :
A sudden heritable change in the characteristics of the organism. Mutation not only creates variation but also helps in maintaining variations within population. It also introduces new genes and alleles into the gene pool. The variability of genes in a gene pool becomes the raw material for evolutionary change.

Recombination :
Combining of two different genes which in future provide new genes. It takes place due to independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis, crossing over and fertilization. Recombination acts as an agent of evolution.

Genetic drift :
The random changes in the allele frequency which is caused by chance alone are called genetic drift.

Natural Selection :
Selection is the consistent differences in the contribution of various genotypes to the next generation. It favours adaptation as a product of evolution.

Gene migration :
Sometimes few populations are completely isolated from the other population of the same species. If the migrating organisms breed within the new population, then the immigrants will transfer new alleles to the local gene pool of the host population. This is called gene migration.

Question 4. What are the different branches of Biology ? Define them.
Answer:

Biology :

Biology is mainly divided into two major branches, Botany and Zoology. In addition to these two broad categories, biology is divided into many other branches of study.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity BiologyBiochemistry :

It is a complementary branch of biology. Chemical combination and their reaction in the protoplasm are guided by the principles of chemistry. Synthesis and functions of enzymes, hormones, etc. can be explained from the knowledge of chemistry.

Histology :
Deals with the structure and composition of tissue.

Genetics :
Branch of biology deals with the heredity and variation of living organisms.

Anatomy :
Deals with the gross structure of internal organs which can be seen with the naked eye.

Physiology :
Study of various life procecses in the living organism.

Ecology :
Study of reciprocal relationship between the organism and their environment.

Evolution :
The study of the descent of recent, more complex, advanced type of organism from simpler, earlier and primitive type, over a period of time.

Immunology :
The science that deals with the phenomena and causes of immunity(defence against diseases)

Molecular Biology :
Study of shape, organization.and orientation of molecules that make the cellular system as a unit.

Question 5. Write the application of physics, chemistry, mathematics, computer in biology.
Answer:

Biophysics :

A new branch of science developed with the-collaboration of physics with biology. Physiological proceses like osmosis, diffusion occuring in the living body can be explained with the help of physical science. Microscope is a very important instrument for the biologist in the contribution of physicist.

Biometrics :
This new branch has been developed from the knowledge of mathematics. Problems of growth, size of population and other various concepts of biology can be explained with the principles of mathematics.

Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Question Answer WBBSE

Cybernetics :
This branch has been formed in collaboration of biology with that of technology. The cyber-world provides the information regarding the gene and protein sequence that can be utilised by genetic engineers in developing transgenic organisms.

Question 6. Write the application of Biology in Agriculture, Medicine, Space Science and in other fields.
Answer:

The application of Biology in Agriculture, Medicine, Space science and in other fields: In agriculture :

Agricultural production gradually increased by the application of modern tools and techniques. The expansion of land for cultivation, increase of irrigation facilities, improved varieties of seed, crop rotation, using fertilizers, the productivity of crop increased. Improvement of crops in quality and quantity has been done by hybridization technique. It caused green revolution in India. New breeds are also developed by mutation method. Micropropagation method is also applied for the improvement of crops. Production of seedless fruits is the gift of biology.

In medicine :
Experimentation and research in biological field help us to know about different types of diseases, their pathogen, symptoms, mode of transmission and control methods. Serums, vaccines, hormones which are used in many of the diseases of man, are produced from animal body. Discovery of antibiotics and vaccines are not possible without the knowledge. Primary knowledge and the progress of the surgery largely depend on the animals. Cloning of organs, organ transplantation, Bypass surgery are possible only with the help of biology.

In Space Science :
During exploration of the planet, Cosmonauts keep the green alga chlorella in the space craft for oxygen and food. Space biology is very useful in the field of space research. It deals with the behaviour of living organism in outer space.

Forensic Science :
Scientific knowledge about DNA finger prints, blood typing are applied to deal with criminal activities, civil and criminal laws, solving the issue of paternity problem, can be used to detect a person killed in plane crash by analyzing DNA recovered from the ash.

Biotechnology :
Biotechnology is an integrated application of knowledge and technique of biochemistry, microbiology and genetics to derive benefit in the technological level involving microorganism.

It has area of recombinant DNA technology in gene cloning , producing vaccine, enzyme, interferon waste treatment, producing fuels, producing vitamins antibiotics, producing transgenic plants and animals.

Question 6. Write very brief history regarding the birth of modern taxonomy.
Answer:

History regarding the birth of modern taxonomy

Vedic literature mentions 740 plants and 250 animals. Susruta Samhita has classified animals into oviparous, viviparous, herbivores, carnivores, while plants have been divided into herbs, shrubs, trees, creepers. Hippocrates divided animals into groups like insect, bird, fishes and whales. Aristotle (384-322 BC) divided living being into animals, plants and human being. He is the father of “zoology”. Theophrastus (370-285 BC) is considered as the “Father of Botany”. He classified 480 plants is Historia plantarum, in herb, undershrub, shrub and trees. John Ray (1627-1705) proposed the concept of species as basic unit. Carolus Linnoaeus (1707-1778) is known as the “Father of taxonomy” and “Father of Nomenclature”. He introduced the system of binomial nomenclature.

Modern taxonomy considers a species to be product of evolution. It takes into consideration traits and evidences from all types of studies like morphology, anatomy, cytology, physiology, genetics, biochemistry, etc. The concept was developed by Julian Huxley (1940)

Question 7. Explain the 7 steps of taxonomic hierarchy.
Answer:

7 steps of taxonomic hierarchy

Arranging various taxonomic units in their proper descending order on the basis of their taxonomic ranks, is called taxonomic hierarchy.

In this hierarchy, the kingdom represent the category of the highest rank, while the species represent the category of basic rank. It consists of
(1) species — basic unit of classification
(2) genus — a group of closely related species
(3) family — it is an assemblage of closely related genera
(4) order — itis a taxonomic unit formed by grouping together the closely related families.
(5) class — the order of plants and animals constitute class.
(6) divison — the class together constitute Division in plants and Phylum in animals.

Question 8. Write the systemic position of Human and Mango.
Answer:

systemic position of Human:
Kingdom — Animalia
Phylum — Chordata
Class — Mammalia
Order — Primate
Family — Hominidae
Genus — Homo
Species — Sapiens

Systemic position of Mango:
Kingdom — Plantae
Division — Spermatophyta
Subdivision — Angiospermae
Class — Dicotyledonae
Ordar — Sapindales
Family — Anacardiaceae
Genus — Mangifera
Species — indica

Question 9. Explain briefly binomial nomenclature with an example.
Answer:

B inomial nomenclature with an example

A system of nomenclature in which the scientific name of an organism consists of two parts, first part is the generic name and the second part is the specific name.
Eg : Gossypium herbaceum (cotton). Here Gossypium is the generic name and herbaceum is the specific name.

This system of nomenclature was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus in 1753 in his book “Species Plantarum”.

Generic name should come first and must begin with capital alphabet. Specific name should begin with small alphabet. The scientific name must be either underlined or written in italics. The name of the author who first decribed the species should be written in specific name.
eg. Homo – spiens linnaeus

Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 10. Write the significance of Binomial Nomenclature.
Answer:

Significance of Binomial Nomenclature :

(1) The system proved to be so convenient that it was universally accepted by the Biologist and approved by the International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN).

(2) It has avoided the confusion usually created by the usage of local name.

Question 11. Name five kingdoms of life.
Answer:

Five kingdoms of classification were proposed by R.H. Whittakar (1969).

There are three main criteria for this classification :

(1) Complexity of cell structure
(2) Complexity oforganism
(3) Mode of nutrition DNA strand Plasmid

The five kingdom of life are :-
(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Fungi
(5) Animalia

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Bacteria (1)Question 12. Write three salient features of Monera.
Answer:

Three salient features of Monera

(1) Prokaryotes with incipient unorganised Nucleus
(2) Absence of membrane-bound cell organelles
(3) Rigid cell wall composed of polysaccharide units eae eal
(4) They are useful as well as harmful.

Example — Bacteria and Cyanobacteria. Baden

Question 13. Write three salient features of Protista.
Answer:

Three salient features of Protista

(1) Unicellular organism.
(2) Cell organization — Eukaryotic
(3) Presence of membrane-bound cell organelles
(4) Presence of Mitosis, Meiosis and Sexual reproduction in life cycle.

Example — Amoeba, Paramoceium, Diatoms.

Question 14. Write three salient features of Fungi.
Answer:

Three salient features of Fungi

(1) Multicellular organism (yeast is unicellular)
(2) Eukaryotic heterotrophs
(3) Cell wall of fungal cellulose (Chitin)
(4) Reserve food is glycogen
(5) Nutrition by absorption
(6) They are useful as well as harmful and Cause diseases in plants, animals and humans.

Example — Yeast, Mushrooms, Puccinia.

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Mushrooms Question 15. Write the features of kingdom – Plantae and Animalia

Answer:

(1) Multicellular
(2) Eukaryotes with Cellulose walls
(3) Photosynthetic organism. (Producers)
(4) Main source of oxygen, organic food and food energy for all organisms.

Example :- Algae, Bryophyta, Angiosperms

Features of kingdom-Animalia
(1) Multicellular, Eukaryotic organism.
(2) Consumers with heterotrophic, holozoic nutrition
(3) Presence of locomotory organs
(4) Tissue system – such as muscular, nervous, etc.

Example — worms, insects, birds, mammals.

Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Question Answer WBBSE

Question 16. What are the characteristics of Algae ?
Answer:

Characteristics of Algae

(1) Simplest multicellular green plants
(2) Mostly aquatic-fresh as well as marine water
(3) Having chlorophyll, so main aquatic producer
(4) Mostly filamentous, branched or unbranched
(5) Thallus like body, not differentiated into root, stem and leaf.
(6) Based on photosynthetic pigment, classified as-
Chlorophyceae           (green alge)
Phaeophyceae            (Brown alge)
Rhodophyceae           (Red alge)

Question 17. Write the main features of Bryophyta.
Answer:

Characteristics of Bryophyta :

(1) First group of land plants
(2) Non-vascular and non-flowering plants
(3) known as amphibians of plant kingdom.
(4) Plant body small, green, delicate.
(5) Plant body differentiated into leaf and stem
(6) Rhizoides on lower surface for fixation and absorption. True roots are absent.
(7) Reproductive organs are Antheridium (male) and Archegonium (female organ)
(8) Alternation of generation takes place.

Example — Riccia, Marchantia, Mosses, etc.

Question 18. Write the characteristics of Pteriolophyta.
Answer:

Characteristics of Pteriolophyta

(1) First group of vascular land plants
(2) Non-flowering vascular embryophytes
(3) Presence of True roots, stem and leaves.
(4) Small, herbaceous or shrub like independent plant body.
(5) Xylem without vessels and phloem without sieve tube.
(6) Reproduction by vegetative, asexual and sexual method.
(7) Presnce of alternation of generation.

Example — Lycopodium, Selaginella

Question 19. What are the characteristics of Gymnosperm ?
Answer:

Characteristics of Gymnosperm

(1) Flowering plants (Phanerogams)
(2) Plants with naked seed.
(3) Plant body is adult sporophyte, mostly trees.
(4) Well-developed vascular tissue, xylem without vessel and phloem without Sieve tube and companion cell.
(5) Leaves mostly dimorphic —green photosynthetic foliage and non-green small scaly leaves.
(6) Stem woody and branched (except cycas).
(7) Presence of Cones, male and female separate.
(8) Alternation of generations present.

Example — Cycas, Pinus, Ephedra.

Question 20. What are the characteristics of angiosperm ?
Answer:

Characteristics of Angiosperm—

(1) Most evolved and specialized group of plant kingdom.
(2) Flowering plants, bears fruits.
(3) Flower as reproductive organs with closed carpel.
(4) Double fertilization and triple fusion.
(5) Well-developed conducting tissue-xylem & phloem.
(6) More complex and better adapted for terrestrial condition.
(7) Distinct alternation of generations.
(8) Classified into Dicotyledones and Monocotyledons.

Question 21. Write the differences in Monocot and Dicot plants.
Answer:

Differences in Monocot and Dicot plants

Monocots Dicots
1.    Adventitious root system. 1.    Tap root system.
2.    Parallel venation in leaf. 2.    Reticulate venation.
3.    Always alternate Phyllotaxi. 3.    Alternate , opposite or whorled.
4.    One cotyledon. 4.    Two cotyledones.
5.    Trimerous flower. 5.    Tetra or pentamerous flower.
Eg : maize, wheat, rice, coconut. Eg : chinarose, mango, neem.

 

Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Question Answer WBBSE

Q.22. Write down the characteristics of Phylum Protozoa.

Answer:

Phylum — Protozoa:

Characteristics —
(1) There are minute, mieroscopic in size and can not be seen with the naked eyes.
(2) These are unicellular or acellular or non – cellular,
(3) They may be free-living or parasite.
(4) Protoplasm is distinguished into outer ectoplasm and inner endoplasm.
(5) Nucleus may be one, two-or many in different protozoans.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Contractile vacuole in Amoeba(6) Locomotory organs are pseudopodia, flagella and cilia.
(7) Nutrition may be holozoic.
(8) Respiration takes place through the general surface of the body.
(9) Excretion takes place either through general surface of the body or through contractile vacuole.
(10). Respiration may be asexual or sexual or both.

Example — Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena, Plasmodium.

Question 23. Classify animal kingdom.
Answer:

Classification of Kingdom Animalia :

The animal kingdom is divided into two subkingdoms : Non-chordata and Chordata

Nonchordata Chordata
1.    Notochord is absent. 1.    Notochord is present.
2.    Visceral cleft is absent. 2.    Visceral cleft present in pharynx.
3.    Central nervous system ventral solid,double. 3.    Central nervous system dorsal, hollow, tubular.
4.    Heart is dorsal. 4.    Heart is ventral.
5.    Tail is unsegmented. 5.    Post anal, metamerically segmented tail.

 

Question 24. Write down the characteristics of Porifera.
Answer:

Phylum — Porifera :

1. These are sedentary. found in water. f Outgoin
2. These are multicellular animals but cellular level of organisation.
3. Body bears numerous minute pores, the ostia.
4. Skeleton is made up of calcareous spicules and of sponge in fibres.
5. Respiration, excretion, nutrition takes place with the help of water current.
6. sexual reproduction takes place by budding or gemmules.
7. Sexual reproduction by gamets, i.e., sperm and ova.
8. They have the power of regeneration.

Example — Spongilla, Scypha, Euplictella.

Question 25. Write down the characteristics of Cnidaria.
Answer:

Phylum—Coelenterata (Cnidaria)

1. Multicellular animals with tissue grade of organisation.
2. They are radially symenetrical and diploblastic.
3. Organs are entirely absent.
4. Digestion is partly intracellular, partly extracellular.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Spongilla5. Coclenteron represents the digestive tube.
6. Nervous system is primitive.
7. Their skeleton forms corals and coral reefs. :
8. Special stinging cells called Nematoblasts or Cnedoblist are present in groups in tentacles. These are used for food capture and defence.
9. Reproduction takes place by budding and games.

Example — Hydra, Sea anemone, Physalia, Aurelia,

Question 26. Write down the characteristics of Platyhelminthes.
Answer:

Phylum — Platyhelminthes :

1. Acoelomate (true body cavity absent).
2. Organ level of organisation.
3. Bilateral symmetry, dorsoventrally flattened.
4. Excretory organs are flame cells.
5. Skeletal, criculatory or respiratory organs are absent.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Tapeworm6. Hermaphrodite animals.
7. Nervous system is represented by a pair of anterior ganglia and 1-3 pairs of longitudinal nerve cords.

Example — Liver fluke, Tapeworm.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science Question and Answers

Question 27. Write down the characteristics of Aschelminthes.
Answer:

Phylum — Aschelminthes:

1. Multicellular, long, cylindrical, unsegmented worms.
2. Bilateral symmetry and Triploblastic.
3. They are Pseudocoelomate i.e. a coelom without lining of mesoderm.
4. Circulatory and respiratory organs are absent.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Ascaris5. Excretory organs are protonephridia.
6. Sexes are separate, i.e., dioecious.
7. Digestive system are mouth, pharynx and intestine.
8. Most of them are parasites. “Ascaris

Example — Ascaris, Filaria worm.

Question 28. Write down the characteristics of Annelida.
Answer:

Phylum — Annelida:

1. These are elongated, cylindrical, triploblastic and metamerically segmented worms.
2. Organ system level of organization.
3. Locomotory organs are Setae.
4. True coelom present (coelomate).

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science Question and Answers

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Earthworm

5. Circulatory and nervous system are present.
6. Excretory organs are Nephridia.
7. May be unisexual or bisexual. Earthworm

Example — Earthworm, Neries, Leech.

Question 29. Write down the characteristics of Arthropoda.
Answer:

Phylum — Arthropoda-

1. It is the largest and comprises of about 80% of the total species of the animals.
2. These are multicellular, triploblastic, bilateral symmetry.
3. Coelom is filled with blood (haemocoel).
4. Jointed legs.
5. Exoskeleton is in the form of chitin.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Prawn,Cockroach

6. Body vascular system is open type.
7. Excretion takes place through green gland and malpighian tubules.
8. Well developed nervous system.
9. Usually dioecious.
10. Body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen.

Example — Cockroach, Grasshopper, Dragonfly.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science Question and Answers

Question 30. Write down the characteristics of Mollusca.
Answer:

Phylum — Mollusca

1. Body is soft with variable shapes.
2. Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry and Coelomate.
3. Mantle, a thin fold of integument, serves respiration and protection.
4. Alimentary canal is complete.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Snail,Octopus

5. Open type of circulatory system
6. Respiratory organs are ctenidia, gills, mantle and air sacs.
7. Excretion takes place by kidneys.
8. Well-developed Nervous system with a pair of ganglia and nerves.

Exampie — Octopus, Snail, Oysters, Cuttlefish.

Question 31. Write down the characteristics of Echinodermata.
Answer:

Phylum — Echinodermata

1. It includes the animals which bear spine-like structures on their integuments.
2. Triploblastic and coelomate.
3. Organ system level of organisation.
4. Integument with calcareous spines.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Starfish5. Simple nervous system.
6. Respiration through tube feet, respiratory tree and brutal.
7. Sexes separate and possess power of regeneration.

Example — Starfish, Sea cucumber, Sea urchin

Question 32. Write down the characteristics of Phylum Chordata and their classes with example.
Answer:

Phylum — Chordata :

1. Presence of notochord.
2. Paired gill slits are present at any stage of life.
3. Dorsal tubular nerve cord is always present.,

Phylum chordata has been divided into five classes :

West Bengal Board Class 9 Life Science Question and Answers

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Chordata1. Class — Pisces
(1) Aquatic animals, fresh water as well as marine
(2) Cold blooded or Poikilo thermic
(3) Gills for respiration
(4) Exoskeleton in the form of scales or bony plates
(5) Paired and unpaired fins for locomotion
(6) Two chambered heart, oviparous

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Class-Pisces(7) lateral line sence organ present.

Example — Scoliodon, Shark, Labeo, etc.

2. Class — Amphibia
(1) Cold blooded animals, skin is soft, moist and glandular
(2) Eyelids are movable and nictitating membrane is present
(3) RBC are nucleated
(4) Respiration takes place through skin, buccal cavity and lungs
(5) External ear is absent. Oviparous animals.

Example — Frog, Toad, Salamander.WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Snake,Frog3. Class — Reptilia
1. Cold blooded animals, body is covered with Cornified skin.
2. These are tetrapods (having four legs) and Pentadactyle (having five fingers).
3. Lungs for respiration but in certain turtles cloacal respiration.
4, Internal fertilisation, mostly oviparous.

Example — Lizard, Snake, Turtle, Tortoise.

4. Class — Aves.
1. Warm blooded vertebrates
2. Arboreal habitat
3. Fore limbs modified for flying and hind limbs for walking.
4. Four chambered heart
5. Hollow bones, one ovary absent.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity PigeonExample — Duck, Pigeon.

Class 9th Life Science WBBSE

5. Class — Mammalia
1. Constant body temperature
2. Hair, ear pinna, mammary glands are present
3. RBC non-nucleated except camel
4. Four-chambered, well-developed heart
5. Viviparous — give birth to young ones
6. Internal fertilization.
7. The mother suckles her young ones on milk secreted by special glands called mammary glands.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Life Science Chapter 1 Life And Its Diversity Tiger

Example — Cat, Dog, Monkey, Man, Tiger.

Question 33. Discuss about the metabolism property of living organisms. What is irritability ?
Answer:

Metabolism :

The sum total of the biochemical changes involved in a two-fold process of waste and repair of the protoplasm is known as metabolism. The constructive anabolic phase is the one in which complex substances are formed and the destructive, catabolic phase is the one where substances are broken down and discharged. These processes occur constantly within the protoplasm of living organisms, where uptake and use of energy occurred.

The constructive (repair) phase is one in which food materials are built up into more complex substances and the process is known as anabolism, (GK, Ana = upper, balls = throw), while the other phase (waste) is destructive and is known as catabolism (cata =below, balls = throw). For instance, photosynthesis is an anabolic process in which sugar is formed in the cell and potential energy is captivated within the sugar molecule. Respiration is a catabolic process in which the captivated potential energy is released from the sugar molecule as kinetic energy with the oxidation of the sugar molecule.

Irritabillity :
The capacity to respond through internal changes to various exciting agents is commonly known as irritability. The changed environmental condition which excites responds to the living organism is known as stimulus, during which a living body reacts called as response. Thus the ability of living body in responding is known as irritability.

Question 34. What are the applied branches of biology ?
Answer:

Emergence of new branches of Biology :

Biology has enormous applications in other branches of science. It forms an important part of —

(1) Veterinary science — It deals with treatment and surgery of animals.
(2) Marine biology — It deals with the study of life in the sea.
(3) Horticulture — It deals with science of growing flowers, fruits, vegetables, ornamental plants.
(4) Sericulture — It is the technique of producing silk by rearing silkworms.
(5) Pisciculture — It deals with technique of growing fish.
(6) Cloning — It is the rapidly advancing branch of biotechnology introducing a body cell for producing an individual.
(7) Molecular biology — It is the science which deals with interpreting biological events in terms of the molecules in the cell.
(8) Biotechnology — It deals with the application of biological processes in technology such as biogas production from organic wastes; production of insulin through bacteria.
(9) Space biology — It the study of problems of living things in outer space.
(10) Nuclear biology — It is the study of effects of radioactivity on living things.
(11) Bioengineering — It include techniques like making of artificial limb, joints and other parts of from metals or plastic.

Question 35. Discuss the application of biology in genetics.
Answer:

In genetic engineering programmes, mapping of the whole genome of an organism has been possible. Synthesis of many products was possible through genetically engineered cells. Recombinant DNA technology aided in detecting genetic diseases and its cure. Production of vaccines of malarial and viral diseases; production of hybrid plants using protoplast fusion techniques through intergeneric crosses, production of encapsulated seeds, disease-resistant plants, herbicides, stress-resistant plants, essential oils, alkaloids, pigments are possible now. Use of biofertilizers resulted in greater yield of agricultural crops. Bacterial plasmids are being used to abate pollution, treat sewage and domestic wastes.

These plasmids are capable of degrading complex polymers into non-toxic forms. Technologies have been developed to seek an alternative source of energy from biomaterials generated from agricultural, industrial, forestry and municipal sources. Plant weeds are being used for production of biogas used for cooking and lighting purposes.

Tissue culture techniques help in culture of micro-organisms or plant or animal cells or tissues and organs in artificial media. Gene technology is used in the production of recombinant DNA and gene cloning. The use of insulin for diabetes and interferon for treatment against some tumour viruses has been possible. Monoclonal antibodies are used for diagnosis of various diseases. DNA fingerprinting and auto-antibody finger printing are used in the identification of criminals in murder and rape cases. Biotechnologists are producing organic compounds the ethanol, acetone, butanol, gluconic acid, enzymes, antibiotics like penicillin, streptomucin. Microbes are developed to be used as biopesticides and biofertilisers.

Application of gene therapy, anmniocentesis, genetic counselling cloning have gained importance in the present millennium. Using transgenic technique a genetic disease may be cured. Amniocentesis technique may be applied to understand the chromosomal abnormality of the foetus.

Class 9th Life Science WBBSE

Question 36. Mention the rules of writing scientific name of an organism.
Answer:

Rules of Nomenclature :

The following conventions of nomenclature may be noteworthy :

(1) Names given to plants or animals prior to publication of ‘systema nature! (10th edition) are not acceptable.
(2) Names should be written in Latin or its derivative.
(3) Both the genetic and specific names must be written in Italics, the genus starts with a capital letter and the species begins with a small letter, e.g., Solanum tuberosum (Potato).
(4) The specific name is usually a descriptive one, e.g., Hygrophilia spinosa (a plant with spines).
(5) Only a single valid name for each kind of organism is permitted. When two or more names are given correctly to a plant or animal, then the name used by the first author (the author who described the plant or animal first) is approved and the others would be treated as synonyms. This is known as the Law of Priority.
(6) The species must be mentioned for a newly established genus.
(7) The name of the author who first described a species is also added to an abbreviated from after the name of the species, e.g. Mangifera indica Linn. Here Linn. refers to the author Linnaeus who first described the species.
(8) In case of animals the suffix-idea must be added to the family name and suffix-inae to the sub-family name.

Question 37. Discuss the salient features and examples of the subphylums cephalochor data (Acraniata) and Vertebrata (Craniata).
Answer:

Subphylum Cephalochordata (Acranita) :

Salient features :
1. Notochord extends from head to tail.region and is persistent throughout life.
2. Fish like marine animals.
3. ‘V’ shaped myotome muscles are present.

Example : Amphioxus sp, Asymmetron sp.

Subphylum Vertebrata (Craniata) :
Salient features :
1. Presence of endoskeleton made of bones and cartilages.
2. Presence of cranium or brain box that accommodates brain.
3. Presence of dorsal vertebral column formed of vertebrae.

Example : Shark, Rohu, Frog, Lizard, Birds, Guineapig, etc.

Question 38. Compare any three features of all the five kingdoms of life.
Answer:

Comparing features of all the five kingdoms of life

Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia
1. Nature of Prokaryotic Eukaryotic, Plant body Multicelluar, Multicellular.
of Cell and unicellular, unicellular of fungi called most of them heterotrophic,
cellular orga- may be may be mycelium made are chlorophyll eukaryotes.
nization filamentous colonial up of fine thre- containing   cell wall
Membrane cell wall ads called hyp- autotrophic absent.
bound cell present, hae, cell wall eukaryotic
organelles some made up of fu- cell wall
absent,e.g. protists, ngal cellulose composed of
Mitochondria or chitin cellulose,
Golgi bodies, Multicellular single central
etc. achlorophyllous vacuole
In case of present,
 Mycoplasma cell organelles
Cell well absent present, are
Instead of cell- all double
 ulose cell wall membraned.
is made up of
Peptidoglycan
or murein
2. Metabolic process Both In unicellular Heterotrophic, may be Autotrophic Heterotrophic
autotrophic algae photosynthetic may be organisms, Mode of
and hetero- nutrition occurs, decomposers can able to nutritiond
 trophic mode e.g. Dinoflagell or saprophytes photosynth- generally
of nutrition ate. In Amoeba a few may be esize holozoic.
noted. holozoic and in parasite.
Entamoeba
absorptive
nutrition are noted
3. Ecological role Some of Dual nutrition Live their lives Lot of diveris- Include large
them are noted called as saprophytes  ity noted grows variety of
nitrogen mixotrophic or parasites, on different animals, living in
fixing; some nutrition, saprophytic habitats act different
Monerians they are fungi derive as producers environments act
perform the called as   their food as consumers.
functions of plant animal. matter from
ammonifica- dead, decaying
tions, organic matters
nitrification
and denitrifi-
cation.
Two common Bacterium Paramaecium Penicillium Pinus, Hibiscus Earthworm Human
 examples Anabaena Euglena Aspergillus (China rose) (Homo sapiens)

 

Question 39. Discuss the salient features and examples of divisions Agnatha and Gnathos tomala.
Answer:

Division Agnatha :

(A = without; ganathos = Jaw)
(Jawless animal)

Salient features :
1. Mouth is circular (Cyclostomata : Cyclos = circular; stoma = mouth).
2. Absence of jaws surrounding mouth.
3. No paired fins and fins are without fin rays.

Example : Lamprey (Petromyzon marinus )
Hag fish (Myxine glutinosa)

Division Gnathostomata :
(Gnathos = Jaw; stoma = mouth)
(Animals with jaw)

Class 9th Life Science WBBSE

Salient features :
1. Mouth is guarded by upper and lower jaw.
2. Skeleton is mostly made of bones.
3. Respiration occurs by gills or lungs.

Example: Fish, Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves, Mammalia.

Class 1. Chondrichthyes (Gr. chondros = Cartilage; icthyes = Fish)
(Fishes having cartilaginous skeleton)

Salient features :
1. Endoskeleton completely cartilaginous; bone absent.
2. Gill slits are without aperculum; mouth ventrally placed.
3. Marine animals where body is covered with placoid scales; no air bladder.

Example : Dogfish/shark (Scoliodon sp.)
Sting ray (Trygon sp.)
Electric ray fish can cause electric shock for defence.

Question 40. Explain the basis of classification of animals.
Answer:

Basis of Classification of Animals : A few fundamental bases of classifying animals are given below.

I. Levels of Organization :
(1) Cellular level :
In case of cellular-level organization, a single cell is responsible for all the metabolic activities. Cellular level organization is present in some of the animals like sponges.

(2) Tissue level :
In case of tissue-level organization, a group of cells is responsible
for all the metabolic activities, e.g. cnidarians.

(3) Organ level :
In case of organ-level organization, some specialized organs are
present for some specific functions, e.g. platyhelminthes.

(4) Organ System level :
In organ system level organization, complex organ systems are present for various functions, e.g. mollusca, chordate.

II. Symmetry :
(1) Asymmetrical :
Some of the animals are almost asymmetrical. Their body cannot
be divided into two equal halves from any plane, e.g. sponges.

(2) Radial Symmetry :
In case of radial symmetry, any plane passing through the
central axis divides the body into two identical halves, e.g. cnidarians, oo sae echinoderms, etc.

(3) Bilateral Symmetry :
In case of bilateral symmetry, the body can be divided into two identical halves only through a single plane, e.g. annelida, arthropoda, etc.

III. Body Organization :
1. Diploblastic :
When the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the animal is called a diploblastic animal. The two layers are——ectoderm and endoderm.
Example : cnidarians :

Class 9th Life Science WBBSE

2. Triploblastic :
When the cells are arranged in three embryonic layers, the animal is called triploblastic animal. The three layers are——ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
Examples : platyhelminthes to chordates.

IV. Coelom :
The body cavity which is lined by mesoderm is called coelom. Animals may be-

(1) Coelomates :
If coelom is present, the animal is called coelomate, e.g. annelids, molluscs, arthropods, echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

(2) Pseudocoelomates :
If the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm but the mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ect oderm and endoderm, the animal is called pseudocoelomate, e.g. aschelminthes.

(3) Acoelomates :
When the body cavity i is absent, the animal is called acoelomate, e.g. platyheminthes.

V. Notochord :
Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure. It is formed on the dorsal side during embryonic development in some animals.

(1) Chordates :
If notochord is present then the animal comes under chordates.

(2) Non-Chordates :
An animal without notochord is called non-chordate, e.g. porifera to echinoderms.

Question 41. Distinguish between Algae and Fungi.
Answer:

Difference between Algae and Fungi

Alagae Fungi
1.    Mostly aquatic, some are terrestrial. 1.    Mostly terrestrial, some are aquatic.
2.    Light is necessary for their growth. 2.    They can grow either in presence
or absence of light.
3.    Algae possess chlorophyll in addition 3.    Fungi do not possess chlorophyll
to other pigments. and other pigments.
4.    Algae are autophytes. 4.    Fungi are heterophytes. They may
be either parasite or saprophyte.
5.    Body is composed of parenchymatous 5.    Body composed of pseudoparenc-
tissue. hymatous tissue, made up of fine tub-
ular hyphal cells.
6.    The principal cell wall material is cellul-ose. 6.    The principal cel wall material is ctutin.
7.    Algal body may be unicellular or mul- 7.    Fungal body may be unicellular or
ticellular. In case of multicellular algae, the multicellular. In case of miriticellular
filamentous body may be unbranched fungi, the body is composed of myceli-
or branched. um. Hyphae collectively forms mycel-
ium.
8.    Starch is the main storage food. 8.    Glycogen is the main storage food.

 

Question 42. Distinguish between Bryophta and Pteridophyta.
Answer:

Difference between Bryophta and Pteridophyta

Bryophyta Pteridophyta
1.    Non- vascular cryptogamic plants. 1.    Vascular cryptogamic plants.
2.    Plant body is the ha plod (n) garn- 2.    Plant body is the diploid (2n) sporo-
et ophyte. phyte.
3.    Gametophytic plants possess rhizoids. 3.  Gametophtic plant does not possess
rhizokJs, except certain Ptendophytes
(eg- Dryoptens).
4.    Sporophytic plants are not differen- 4.    Sporophytic plants differentiated into
tiated into root, stem and leaves. root, stem and leaves.
5.    Sporophytcs are always dependent 5.    Sporophytcs are always independent.
upon the gametophyte.

 

Question 43. Distinguish between Angiosperms and Gymnosperms.
Answer:

Difference between Angiosperms and Gymnosperms

Angiosperm Gymnosperm
1.The reproductive organ of angiosperm 1.    The reproductive organ of gymnosperm is cone
is flower; it is composed of calyx, corolla, or stroWus. Flowers are unisexual and naked,
ardroeoum and gynoedum. Rowers are calyx and corolla absent. Perianth generally
unisexual or bisexual. Perianth may be present. absent, exception – Gnetum.
2.    In case of unisexual flower, calyx, co- 2.    The male flower (mate cone) of gymnosperm
rolla and androedum or gynoedum and is composed of only microsporophyll equivalent
in case of txsexual flower calyx, coroia, to stamen and the female flower 6 composed of
andrcedum and gyncecium are present. only megasporophyll equivalent to carpel.
The microsporophyils are compactly arranged
spra&y over a central axis formrg a cone like
structure- the male cone and the megaspocoph-
ylls in most cases are compactly arranged to
form the female cone (exception-Cycas).
3.    In case of angiosperms, except wind, 3. In case of gymnosperms, poinabon occurs
pohnabon also occurs by means of other only by means of wind.
agents.
4.    The carpel s composed of ovary, style 4.    The structure of the carpel is very simple.
and sigma. Ovules lies within the ovary. The carpel is not composed of ovary, style and
Herce seeds remain covered by fruit stgmsa (a so called style present in Gnetum).
(closed seeded). One or many carpels take The megasporangium or ovule rot formed within
part m the formation of fruit. the ovary, reman exposed. Hence seeds remain
exposed (naked seeded). The naked seeds lies
over the megasporophylls.
5.    The pollen grains are transferred to the bp 5.    Due to poltnaton the mcrospores (polien grai-
of the stigma by help of different agents but ns) are directly transferred into the ovule.
never falls over the ovules directly. The pollen
tube formed from the pollen grans gradually
penetrates the style and ovary and ultimately
reaches the ovule.
6.    The endosperm tissue formed during double 6. Ther endosperm is haptetd (n) in gymnosperms
fertilization is tnploid (3n), because a hapDid because endosperm s a part of the female
male gamete (n) unties with a dpkod defintve gametophyte formed before fertilization. But
nucleus (2n) to form finally the endosperm. endosperm s partly formed after fertilization m
case of Gnetum.

 

Class 9th Life Science WBBSE Question 44.

Compare between Cnidaria and Ctenophora.

Answer:

Comparison between Cnidaria and Ctenophora :

Similarities:

1. Both of them are diploblasitc
2. Almost all of them are marine animals.

Dissimilarities:

Cnidaria Ctenophora
1.    Presence of Cnidobtast cell 1.    Presence of colloblastcetl.
2.    Presence of namatocyst. 2.    Presence of comb plates.

 

Question 45. Compare between Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes.
Answer:

Comparison between Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes

Similarities:

1. Almost all of them are parasitic.

Differences :

Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
1.    Bodytape like, Flat, 1.    Body cylindrical,elongated.
2.    Alimentary canal is eittar absent 2.    Alimentary canal is complete.
Or incomplete.
3. Mostly hermapbrotfits (bisexu&l). 3. AH a re unisexual (sexes are separate).

 

Question 46. Compare between Annelida and Arthropoda.

Answer:

Comparing between Annelida and Arthropod

Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
1. Body segments ring like and separated 1. Body segments are not separated by
by septum. septum.
2. Body is not covered by hard exoskel- 2. Body is covered by hard chitinous
eton. exoskeleton.
3. No jointed appendages. 3. Appendages are joined with the body by arthrodial membrane.
Haemocoel absent, 4. Haemocoel is present,
g. Earthworm, Leech. e.g. Prawn, Cockroach.

 

Question 47 Distinguish between — (a) Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes, (b) Amphibia and Reptilia.
Answer:

Difference between Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes :

Angiosperm Gymn-osperm
1.    Endoskeleton cartilaginous. 1.    Endoskeleton mostly bony,
2.    Mouth ventrally placed in the head. 2.    Mouth at the bp of the head.
3.    Air hladded abseht. 3.    Air bladder present.
4. Gills not cohered by operculum. 4.    Gills covered by operculum.

 

Difference between Amphibia and Reptilia :

Amphibia Reptilia
1    Fore limb with four digits and hind limbwith
five digits—digits are without claws.
1.    Both fore limbs and hind limbs are provided with five clawed digits.
2    Skin glandular, naked and moist. 2.    Skin dry, with homy epidermal scales.
3    Heart three chambered. 3.    Heart three and half chambered(ventricle incompletely divided);
only incrocodile heart is four chambered (ventricle completely divided).


Question 48. Distinguish between Cryptogamae and Phanerogamae.

Answer:

Difference between Cryptogamae and Phanerogamae

Features Cryptogamae Phanerogamae
1. Seeds Do not produce seeds. Produce seeds.
2. Vascular system May or nwy not be present. Always present,
. 3. Fertilization Externa: water serve as metfum. Do not wed external water.
4. Evolutionary status Primitive. Advanced
S Example Algae, muss, fern. Fine, mango.

 

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