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WBBSE For Class 9 Geography And Environment Chapter 4 Geomorphic Processes And Land Forms Of The Earth MCQS

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Chapter 4 Geomorphic Processes And Land Forms Of The Earth Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Fuzi is a________ mountain.
(1) volcanic
(2) Residual
(3) Fold
(4) Organic

Answer: (1) Volcanic

Question 2. _______mountain is a block mountain.
(1) Alps
(2) Satpura
(3) Mt. Fuzi
(4) Himalayas

Answer: (2)Satpura

Question 3._________ is an erosional mountain.
(1) Aravali
(2) Western Ghats
(3) Eastern Ghats
(4) Himalayas.

Answer: (1)Aravali

Question  4. Is a volcanic mountain.
(1) Vindhyas
(2) Cotopaxi
(3) Alps
(4) Satpura

Answer: (2)Cotopaxi

Question 5. The study that deals with landforms and the processes that shape them is called
(1) Biology
(2) Geomorphology
(3) Physics
(4) Chemistry

Answer: (2) Geomorphology

Question 6. The geomorphic processes which are active on the earth’s surface are called
(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Earthquake
(3) Terrestrial processes
(4) Volcanism

Answer: (3) Terrestrial processes

Question 7. The Geomorphic processes that act at the interior of the earth arc called
(1) Endogenous
(2) Exogenous
(3) Degradation
(4) Aggradation

Answer: (1) Endogenous

Question 8. The exogenetic force derives energy from
(1) Moon
(2) Sun
(3) Slope
(4) Running water

Answer: (4) Running water

Question 9. The mountain-building movement is known as :
(1) Epeirogenic movement
(2) Weathering
(3) Orogenic movement
(4) Volcanism

Answer: (3) Orogenic movement

Question 10. Mountains are those landforms that rise above________ from the sea level.
(1) 1000 m
(2) 600 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 200 m

Answer: (1) 1000 m

Question 11. The plate Tectonic theory advocates the formation of :
(1) Relict mountain
(2) Fold mountain
(3) Volcanic mountain
(4) Block mountain

Answer: (2) Fold mountain

Question 12. An example of old fold mountain is
(1) Alps
(2) Himalayas
(3) Aravalli
(4) Rockies

Answer: (3) Aravalli

Question 13. An example of new fold mountain is :
(1) Himalayas
(2) Aravalli
(3) Black Forest
(4) Nilgiri

Answer: (1) Himalayas

Question 14. The plateaus which have mountains surrounding them are called :
(1) Lava plateau
(2) Intermontane plateau
(3) Dissected plateau
(4) Continental plateau

Answer: (2) Intermontane plateau

Question 15. The plains which are formed by the deposition of rivers near their mouths are called :
(1) Floodplain
(2) Karst plain
(3) Deltaic plain
(4) Loess plain

Answer: (3) Deltaic plain

Question 16. The Vale of Kashmir is an example of
(1) Flood Plain
(2) Lacustrine plain
(3) Loess plain
(4) Till plain

Answer: (2) Lacustrine plain

Question 17. Endogenetic forces are also called—
(1) Earthquakes
(2) Internal processes
(3) Earth movement
(4) Volcanism

Answer: (2) Internal processes

Question 18. Greek word ‘epeiros’ means—
(1) A continent
(2) An Ocean
(3) A mountain
(4) None of these

Answer: (1) A continent

Question 19. Faults are due to—
(1) Tensional forces
(2) Contractional forces
(3) Compressional forces
(4) Concentric forces

Answer: (3) Compressional forces

Question 20. Faults are related to—
(1) Fold mountain
(2) Volcanic mountain
(3) Block mountain
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3) Block mountain

Question 21. Block mountains are formed by—
(1) Folding
(2) Faulting
(3) Volcanic eruption
(4) Earthquakes

Answer: (2) Faulting

Question 22. Aravalli, Pareshnath, Rajmahal hills are examples of —
(1) Block mountains
(2) Fold mountains
(3) Residual mountains
(4) Volcanic mountains

Answer: (3) Residual mountains

Question 23. Rocky, Alps, Himalayas are examples of —
(1) Residual mountains
(2) Block mountains
(3) Fold mountains
(4) Volcanic Mountains

Answer: (3) Fold mountains

Question 24. The Chhotanagpur plateaus are examples of —
(1) Intermontane plateaus
(2) dissected plateaus
(3) lava plateaus
(4) deltaic plateau

Answer: (2) dissected plateaus

Question 25. One of the most important aggradational processes is :
(1) diastrophism
(2) erosion
(3) deposition
(4) volcanism

Answer: (3) deposition

Question 26. The process which levels the land :
(1) Erosion
(2) Gradation
(3) Transportation
(4) Degradation

Answer: (2) Gradation

Question 27. The exogenetic force derives energy from :
(1) Moon
(2) Sun
(3) Slope
(4) Running water

Answer: (2) Sun

Question 28. Degradation and aggradation are integral parts of
(1) Solution
(2) Gradation
(3) Transportation
(4) Deformation

Answer: (2) Gradation

Question 29. Massive destruction at and below the earth’s surface is caused due to-
(1)Sudden forces and movement
(2) Diastrophic forces
(3) Epeirogenetic forces
(4) Exogenetic forces

Answer: (1) Sudden forces and movement

Question 30. Movement which is responsible for upliftment and subsidence of continental masses-
(1) Epeirogenic movement
(2) Sudden movement
(3) Orogenic movement
(4) Upward movement

Answer: (3) Orogenic movement

Question 31. Which one is the example of endogenous forces?
(1) Erosion
(2) Deposition
(3) Volcanicity
(4) isostasy

Answer: (3) Volcanicity

Question 32. Which one of the following is exogenetic process?
(1) Deposition
(2) Volcanicity
(3) Diastrophism
(4) Balance erosion

Answer: (1) Deposition

Question 33. Which of the following is not a factor of geomorphic process?
(1) River
(2) Glacier
(3) Wind
(4) Earthquake

Answer: (4) Earthquake

Question 34. Movement of endogenetic forces take place
(1) Horizontal
(2) vertical
(3) Both
(4) None

Answer: (3) Both

Question 35. A new land is formed due to combined efforts of
(1) Endogenetic forces
(2) Exogenetic forces
(3) Both
(4) None

Answer: (3) Both

Question 36. Diastrophic movement takes place
(1) slowly
(2) Fastly
(3) Sudden
(4) None

Answer: (1) Slowly

Question 37. Horizontal and vertical movement takes place in
(1) Sudden movement
(2) Diatrophic movement
(3) None
(4) None

Answer: (2) Diatrophic movement

Question 38. Epeirogenetic force is caused due to
(1) Horizontal movement
(2) Vertical movement
(3) Both
(4) None

Answer: (2) Vertical movement

Question 39. Orogenetic force is caused due to
(1) Horizontal movement
(2) Vertical movement
(3) Both
(4) None

Answer: (1) Horizontal movement

Question 40. Epigenetic force is also known as
(1) Radial force
(2) Orogenetic force
(3) Exogenous force
(4) Rapid force

Answer: (1) Radial force

Question 41. The theory to which the plate tectonic theory is very much related is
(1) Plate tectonic movement
(2) Diastrophism
(3) Orogenic movement
(4) Epeirogenic movement.

Answer: (2) Diastrophism

Question 42. Flat top lands get uplifted through which movement?
(1) volcanicity
(2) Epeirogenic
(3) Tectonics
(4) Orogenic.

Answer: (2) Epeirogenic

Question 43. Wrinkles appear on the earth’s surface by
(1) Tensional force
(2) Volcanic process
(3) Endogenous process
(4) Isostatic process.

Answer: (1) Tensional force

Question 44. Fold mountains are formed by
(1) Exogenous process
(2) Volcanic process
(3) Endogenous process
(4) Isostatic process.

Answer: (3) Endogenous process

Question 45. The process which acts vertically or radially is
(1) Tectonic
(2) Exogenic
(3) Orogenic
(4) Epeirogenic

Answer: (4) Epeirogenic

Question 46. Equal compression from both sides of a fold develops
(1) Symmetrical fold
(2) Asymmetrical fold
(3) Isoclinal fold
(4) None

Answer: (1) Symmetrical fold

Question 47. If both limbs of a fold are parallel and horizontal to each other, it is known as
(1) Plunging fold
(2) Recumbent fold
(3) Fan fold
(4) Upfold

Answer: (2) Recumbent fold

Question 48. The movement for which folding occurs
(1) Epeirogenic movement
(2) Earthquakes
(3) Bedding formation
(4) Orogenic movement

Answer: (4) Orogenic movement

Question 49. The portion of a fold which is concave
(1) Base
(2) Syncline
(3) Upfold
(4) Plate boundary

Answer: (2) Syncline

Question 50. Large recumbent fold is known as
(1) Overthrust fold
(2) Overfold
(3) Monoclinal fold
(4) Nappe

Answer: (4) Nappe

Question 51. ___is an example of intermontane plateau.
(1) Himalayas
(2) Andes
(3) Tibetan
(4) Deccan

Answer: (3) Tibetan

Question 52. A__fold is one in which one limb is pushed up on the other.
(1) Monoclinal
(2) Recumbent
(3) Overthrust
(4) Fan

Answer: (3) Overthrust

Question 53. The plate movement produces
(1) Pediments
(2) Fold mountains
(3) Residual mountains
(4) Block mountain

Answer: (2) Fold mountains

Question 54. Folding is caused by
(1) Tension
(2) Compression
(3) Upward force
(4) Downward force

Answer: (2) Compression

Question 55. Up folds are called
(1) Anticline
(2) Syncline
(3) Limbs
(4) None

Answer: (1) Anticline

Question 56. An example of block mountain is
(1) Rocky
(2) Andes
(3) Vosges
(4) Alps

Answer: (3) Vosges

Question 57. Vosges and Black Forest are two well-known examples of
(1) Horst
(2) Graben
(3) Monadnock
(4) Inselberg

Answer: (1) Horst

Question 58. The name of the highest volcano in the world is
(1) Mauna Loa in Hawali
(2) Fujiyama in Japan
(3) Vesuvius in Italy
(4) Mt. Everest in Nepal

Answer: (2) Fujiyama in Japan

Question 59. The faults in which rock beds are pushed upward on one side relative to the other is
(1) Normal faults
(2) Reverse faults
(3) Overthrust faults
(4) Step faults

Answer: (2) Reverse faults

Question 60.______ have broad flat top and steep slopes.
(1) Rift valley
(2) Block Mountain
(3) Faulted plateaus
(4) Fault scarp

Answer: (2) Block Mountain

Question 61. Block Mountains are formed by
(1) Exogenic process
(2) Endogenous process
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them

Answer: (2) Endogenous process

Question 62. Examples of Block Mountains are
(1) Satpuras
(2) Vindhyas
(3) Black Forest
(4) All

Answer: (4) All

 

WBBSE For Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 1 Exogenic Processes And Resultant Landforms MCQS

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Chapter 1 Exogenic Processes And Resultant Landforms MCQs

Question 1. The process by which, the elevation of the earth’s surface decreases, is called:
1. Volcanic
2. Aggradation
3. Deposition
4. Degradation

Answer: 4. Degradation

Question 2. The highland between two river basins is called:
1. Water divide
2. River terrace
3. Natural levee
4. Doad

Answer: 1. Water divide

Question 3. A lake carved out by glacier is:
1. Corrie lake
2. Playa lake
3. Ox-bow lake
4. Lagoon

Answer: 1. Corrie lake

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Geography Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. Plain formed by wind deposition is called:
1. Dune
2. Hamada
3. Dhiran
4. Loess

Answer: 4. Loess

Question 5. Lakes containing saline water in the Sahara desert are called:
1. Shotts
2. Balson
3. Dhand
4. Tal

Answer: 1. Shotts

Question 6. The process by which, soil and rock layers move down along the slope of highlands by gravity is called:
1. Weathering
2. Gradation Process
3. Endogenic processes
4. Mass wasting process

Answer: 4. Mass wasting process

Question 7. In peneplain, low-lying hills of hard rocks remain as residual landform is called:
1. Yardang
2. Zeugen
3. Sand Dunes
4. Inselberg

Answer: 4. Insellberg

Question 8. The process by which the height of the earth’s surface increases is:
1. Aggradation
2. Degradation
3. Weathering
4. Denudation

Answer: 1. Aggradation

Question 9. Deep cracks on the surface of the mountain glacier are called:
1. Nunatak
2. Crevasse
3. Arete
4. Cirque

Answer: 2. Crevasse

Question 10. The gorge formed in the arid regions is called as
1. Canyon
2. ‘V’ Shaped valley
3. Potholes
4. Dhand

Answer: 1. Canyon

Question 11. Bird-foot delta is formed at the mouth of
1. River Nile
2. Hwang Ho
3. Indus river
4. Mississippi-Missouri river

Answer: 4. Mississippi-Missouri river

Question 12. The process by which natural agents reshape the existing landscape over the earth’s surface is known as:
1. Exogenetic process
2. Endogenetic Process
3. Orogenetic process
4. Epeirogenetic Process

Answer: 1. Exogenetic process

Question 13. The geomorphic process that shapes and reshapes land externally is called:
1. Endogenicprocess
2. Exogenic process
3. Earthquake
4. Volcanism

Answer: 1. Exogenic process

Question 14. The factor responsible for the melting of ice caps and consequent rise in sea level is
1. Change in the ocean floor
2. Upliftment of land
3. Global warming
4. Subsidence of coastal areas

Answer: 3. Global warming

Question 15. The exogenetic processes are
1. Sudden
2. Fast
3. Slow
4. Very slow

Answer: 4. Very slow

Question 16. By graduation, the height of landforms is
1. Reduced
2. Remains the same
3. Increased
4. Subsided

Answer: 3. Increased

Question 17. Pothole is formed by
1. Hydraulic action
2. Corrasion
3. Abrasion
4. Attrition

Answer: 2. Abrasion

Question 18. The waterfall is found in the rivers in
1. Youthful stage
2. Mature stage
3. Old Stage
4. All Stages

Answer: 1. Youthful stage

Question 19. The main activity of a river in the lower course is
1. Vertical Erosion
2. Lateral Erosion
3. Deposition
4. Transportation

Answer: 3. Deposition

Question 20. Which one of these regions has continental glaciers?
1. Himalaya
2. Alps
3. Greenland
4. Antarctica

Answer: 3. Greenland

Question 21. Which landform is produced by glacial erosion?
1. Arete
2. Moraine
3. Drumlin
4. Water Fall

Answer: 1. Arete

Question 22. Which landform is produced by glacial deposition?
1. Cirque
2. Hanging Valley
3. Medial Moraine
4. Potholes

Answer: 3. Medial Moraine

Question 23. Wind acts as an agent of denudation in
1. Humid region
2. Arid region
3. Polar region
4. Deposition

Answer: 2. Arid region

Question 24. The process by which sand and dust are blown away from the surface is called
1. Corrasion
2. Deflation
3. Abrasion
4. Deposition

Answer: 4. Deposition

Question 24. The process by which sand and dust are blown away from the surface is called
1. Corrasion
2. Deflation
3. Abrasion
4. Deposition

Answer: 2. Deflation

Question 25. Yardangs are formed by
1. Wind Erosion
2. Arid deposition
3. Wave Erosion
4. Glacial deposition

Answer: 1. Wind Erosion

Question 26. Hamada refers to
1. Sandy desert
2. Gravelly desert
3. Rocky desert
4. Plain region

Answer: 1. Sandy desert

Question 27. Crescent-shaped sand dunes are called
1. Seifs
2. Barkhans
3. Loess
4. Moraine

Answer: 2. Barkhans

Question 28. Global warming affects delta regions by
1. Submerging coastal areas
2. Increasing Rainfall
3. Creating droughts
4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Submerging coastal areas

Question 29. The Sahara desert is extending towards the
1. North
2. South
3. East
4. West

Answer: 1. North

Question 30. The following landform is produced by a glacier:
1. Inselberg
2. Meander
3. Pyramidal peak
4. Waterfall

Answer: 3. Pyramidal peak

Question 31. Wind erosion produces:
1. Ox-bow lake
2. Sand dunes
3. Yardang
4. Moraines

Answer: 3. Yardang

Question 32. Ox-bow lake is formed due to
1. Erosion by river
2. Decrease of slope
3. Decrease of slope
4. Glacial deposition

Answer: 1. Erosion by river

Question 33. Waterfalls are formed by:
1. Glacial erosion
2. Wide deposition by the river
3. Decrease of slope
4. Transportation Of river

Answer: 3. Decrease of slope

Question 34. The extensive floodplain is found in the basin of the river
1. Narmada
2. Tapti
3. Ganga
4. Sabarmati

Answer: 3. Ganga

Question 35. The Gour is formed by the action of
1. River
2. Glacier
3. Wind
4. Ocean

Answer: 3. Wind

Question 36. The depositional feature of an almost triangular shape at the mouth of a river is called
1. Delta
2. Estuary
3. OX-bow lake
4. Hanging valley

Answer: 1. Delta

Question 37. The kettle-like small depressions in the rocky beds of the river valley are called
1. Potholes
2. Gorges
3. Yardangs
4. Floodplain

Answer: 1. Potholes

Question 38. In the middle course of a river
1. Gorges
2. Flood-plains
3. Delta
4. Estuary

Answer: 2. Flood-plains

Question 39. Lagoons are common in a river in
1. Valleys
2. Coastal regions
3. Plain region
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Coastal regions

Question 40. Waterfalls are common in the course of a
1. River
2. Glacier
3. Deposition
4. All

Answer: 1. River

Question 41. The main work of a river in its middle course is
1. Erosion
2. Transportation
3. Deposition
4. All

Answer: 2. Transportation

Question 42. The side-cutting of a river is mostly found in
1. Upper course
2. Middle course
3. Lower course
4. In all course

Answer: 1. Upper courses

Question 43. On the two sides of a river flood
1. Plains
2. Deltas
3. Meanders
4. Region

Answer: 1. Plains

Question 44. Roche mountaineer is created by the work of
1. River
2. Wind
3. Glacier
4. All
Answer: 3. Glacier

Question 45. The height of the snowline is affected by
1. Longitude
2. Latitude
3. Time
4. Pressure

Answer: 1. Latitude

Question 46. The snowline at the lowest height is found on the Poles due to
1. Low rainfall
2. Low temperature
3. Low humidity
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Low temperature

Question 47. The Greenland ice sheet is the best example of
1. Valley glacier
2. Continental glacier
3. Piedmont glacier
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Continental glacier.

Question 48. The Malaspina glacier of Alaska is an example of

1. Continentalgalcier
2. Running glacier
3. Valley glacier
4. Piedmont glacier

Answer: 4. Piedmont glacier

Question 49. The basket of eggs topography is related with
1. Eskers
2. Drumlins
3. Outwash plain
4. Corrie

Answer: 2. Drumlins

Question 50. In France Corrie is known as
1. Cirque
2. Arete
3. Drumlin
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Cirque

Question 51. Matterhorn of Switzerland is an example of
1. Corrie
2. Arete
3. Burgshrund
4. Potholes

Answer: 2. Arete

Question 52. Cresent-shaped sand dunes are common in the
1. Desert
2. River valley
3. Glacial Valley
4. Mountainous region

Answer: 1. Desert

Question 53. _______ valley is common in the mountain area.
1. U-shaped
2. V-shaped
3. T-shaped
4. D-shaped

Answer: 1. U-shaped

Question 54. Bars are common near the
1. Sea coast
2. Mountain areas
3. River basin
4. River mouth

Answer: 1. Sea coast

Question 55. Cirques are common in the
1. River Basin
2. Mountain Areas
3. Desert regions
4. All of these

Answer: 2. Mountain Areas

Question 56. The wind is an important agent of erosion in

1. Arid region
2. Mountain region
3. Coastal region
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Arid region

Question 57. A large depression formed by deflation is called
1. Blowhole
2. Blowout
3. Sinkhole
4. Sink out

Answer: 2. Blowout

Question 58. The steep-sided, dome-shaped pyramids formed by wind erosion are called
1. Yardangs
2. Inselbergs
3. Zeugens
4. Roche Moutonnee

Answer: 2. Inselbergs

Question 59. Sword-like long narrow ridges of sand in the Sahara are called
1. Barkhans
2. Seifs
3. Sand dunes
4. Loess

Answer: 2. Seifs

Question 60. Extensive deposits of loess is found in
1. North-West China
2. Thar desert
3. Sahara desert
4. Equatorial region

Answer: 1. North-West China.

Question 61. A stony desert is called an/a
1. Erg
2. Hamada
3. Reg
4. Sief

Answer: 3. Reg

Question 62. Atmospheric ozone gas is concentrated in the layer of
1. Stratosphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Ionosphere
4. Troposphere

Answer: 3. Ionosphere

Question 63. The temperature decreases by ______ for every 1000 m rise in height.
1. 5.4°C
2. 6.4°C
3. 6.7°C
4. 5.7°C

Answer: 2. 6.4°C

Question 64. The percentage of solar energy reflected back into space by the atmosphere and earth’s crust is
1. 35%
2. 64%
3. 34%
4. 66%

Answer: 3. 34%

Question 65. The layer of the atmosphere where the inversion of temperature is noticed is
1. Ionosphere
2. Troposphere
3. Stratosphere
4. Mesosphere

Answer: 2. Troposphere

Question 66. Rainfall is measured by
1. Rain Gauge
2. Barometer
3. Chronometer
4. Sextant

Answer: 1. Rain Gauge

Question 67. Relative humidity can be measured by
1. Hygrometer
2. Thermometer
3. Rain Gauge
4. Barometer

Answer: 1. Hygrometer

Question 68. Chinook is found in
1. Rockies
2. Rhine river valley
3. Rhone river valley
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Rockies

Question 69. The process by which water of rivers, lakes, and oceans turns into water vapour due to heat is called:
1. Precipitation
2. Saturation
3. Evaporation
4. Condensation

Answer: 3. Evaporation

Question 70. All the land drained by a river, its tributaries and distributaries, is called:
1. River basin
2. Water divide
3. Hanging Valley
4. Outwash plain

Answer: 1. River basin

Question 71. The isolated residual hill in the desert formed due to wind erosion is called:
1. Monadnock
2. Inselberg
3. Mesa & Butte
4. Gour

Answer: 2. Inselberg

Question 72. The fragments of rocks shattered by frost action and brought down the valley by a glacier are called:
1. Alluvium
2. Salt pans
3. Moraines
4. Pyroclasts

Answer: 3. Moraines

Question 73. The largest reservoir of freshwater on earth is
1. River
2. Glacial ice
3. Oceans
4. Groundwater

Answer: 2. Glacial ice

 

WBBSE For Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 2 Atmosphere MCQS

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Chapter 2 Atmosphere MCQs

Question 1. “Horse Latitude” is located at:
1. Equatorial low-pressure belt
2. Sub-tropical high-pressure belt
3. Sub-polar low-pressure belt
4. Polar high-pressure belt

Answer: 2. Sub-tropical high-pressure belt

Question 2. The diurnal range of temperature is maximum in:
1. Equatorial climatic region
2. Hot desert climatic region
3. Tropical Monsoon climatic region
4. Mediterranean climatic region

Answer: 2. Hot desert climatic region

Question 3. The annual range of temperature remains minimum in the:
1. Equatorial climatic region
2. Monsoon climatic region
3. Mediterranean climatic region
4. Steppe climatic region

Answer: 1. Equatorial climatic region

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Geography Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. The cold local wind that blows in the Rhone valley of France is called:
1. Chinook
2. Sirocco
3. Mistral
4. Bora

Answer: 3. Mistral

Question 5. The Meteors that come towards the earth get burnt in the layer of
1. ionosphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Mesosphere
4. Exosphere

Answer: 3. Mesosphere

Question 6. A Tornado, the most destructive cyclone of the world, is also called in the USA as
1. Cyclone
2. Twister
3. Typhoon
4. Hurricane

Answer: 2. Twister

Question 7. The uppermost layer of the heterosphere is
1. Hydrogen layer
2. Helium layer
3. Atomic oxygen layer
4. Molecular nitrogen layer

Answer: 1. Hydrogen layer

Question 8. The instrument by which the humidity of air mass is measured is
1. Thermometer
2. Barometer
3. Hygrometer
4. Anemometer

Answer: 3. Hygrometer

Question 9. The Louisa
1. Periodical wind
2. Local wind
3. Permanent wind
4. Sudden wind

Answer: 2. Local wind

Question 10. The subtropical high-pressure belt lies between latitudes.
1. 25°-35° North and South
2. 6€0°—70° North and South
3. 0°-10° North and South
4. 35°-65° North and South

Answer: 1. 25°-35° North and South

Question 11. The factor that increases the amount of rainfall is
1. Increase in humidity
2. Decrease in humidity
3. Rise in air temperature
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Rise in air temperature

Question 12. The slope of the Himalayas! in India that is warmer is
1. Eastern slope
2. Northern slope
3. Southern slope
4. Western slope

Answer: 3. Southern slope

Question 13. The amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere is
1. 87%
2. 70%
3. 78%
4. 67%

Answer: 3. 78%

Question 14. The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere is
1. 20.0%
2. 20.9%
3. 20.1%
4. 20.21%

Answer: 2. 20.9%

Question 15. The two most abundant gases in the atmosphere are
1. N, and water vapour
2. 0, and CO,
3. N, and O,
4. Helium & Argon

Answer: 3. N, and O,

Question 16. Radio waves are reflected by the
1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Ozonosphere
4. Mesosphere

Answer: 3. Ozonosphere

Question 17. About 34% of insolation returned to space is known as
1. Effective solar radiation
2. Earth’s Albedo
3. Heat balance
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Earth’s Albedo

Question 18. The lapse rate of temperature is
1. 4.6°C
2. 6.0°C
3. 6.4°C
4. 5.4°C

Answer: 3. 6.4°C

Question 19. The highest annual range of temperature will be seen in which region?
1. Chennai
2. Mumbai
3. Delhi
4. Kolkata

Answer: 1. Chennai

Question 20. The annual range of temperature is minimum in which region?
1. Equatorial
2. Tropical
3. Polar
4. Bothb&c

Answer: 3. Polar

Question 21. Standard sea level air pressure is
1. 1013.2
2. 1013.1
3. 1013.0
4. 1012.2

Answer: 1. 1013.2

Question 22. An imaginary line on a map joining places with the same air pressure is called
1. Isotherm
2. Isohyite
3. lobar
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Isobar

Question 23. Low pressure in the equatorial region is called
1. Horse Latitudes
2. Doldrums
3. Roaring Forties
4. Shocking Sixties

Answer: 2. Doldrums

Question 24. Westerlies are___ winds.
1. Local
2. Periodic
3. Planetary
4. Equatorial

Answer: 3. Planetary

Question 25. Trade winds blow in
1. Tropical regions
2. Polar regions
3. Equatorial regions
4. All regions

Answer: 1. Tropical regions

Question 26. Monsoons are
1. Periodic winds
2. Sudden winds
3. Local winds
4. Planetary winds

Answer: 1. Periodic winds

Question 27. Winds deflect according to
1. Ferrel’slaw
2. Buy Ballot’s law
3. Bergeson’slaw
4. Newton’s law

Answer: 1. Ferrel’s law

Question 28. Temperate cyclones form mainly during the season.
1. Summer
2. Winter
3. Autumn
4. Rainy

Answer: 2. Winter

Question 29. The actual mass of water vapour in the air is called
1. Relative humidity
2. Absolute humidity
3. Specific – humidity
4. Real humidity

Answer: 2. Absolute humidity

Question 30. The instrument used to measure humidity is
1. Barometer
2. Hygrometer
3. Anemometer
4. Thermometer

Answer: 2. Hygrometer

Question 31. Wind speed is measured by
1. Anemometer
2. Sextant
3. Hygrometer
4. Barometer

Answer: 1. Anemometer

Question 32. Smog is a combination of
1. Smoke and water
2. Smoke and fog
3. Water vapour and fog
4. Sulphur, Magnesium and Oxygen gas

Answer: 2. Smoke and fog

Question 33. The ratio of weight (in grams) of water vapour to the total weight (in Kilogram) of moist air is expressed as:
1. Specific humidity
2. Relative humidity
3. Absolute humidity
4. Dew point

Answer: 2. Relative humidity

Question 34. The disastrous storms which occur in West Indies (Tropical region) are:
1. Typhoon
2. Hurricane
3. Pampero
4. Tornado

Answer: 2. Hurricane

Question 35. Adry and warm air blowing from Sahara to Egypt is:
1. Harmattan
2. Sirocco
3. Khamsin
4. Phon

Answer: 3. Khamsin

Question 36. Land and sea breezes are
1. Planetary winds
2. Periodic winds
3. Local winds
4. Sudden winds

Answer: 2. Periodic winds

Question 37. Nor’westers occur over Gangetic West Bengal during:
1. October-November
2. August-September
3. January-February
4. April-May

Answer: 4. April-May

Question 38. The highest proportion among various gases in the atmosphere is occupied by:
1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Neon

Answer: 2. Nitrogen

Question 39. Katabatic wind
1. Glides down the snow-capped mountain
2. Blows in the desert area
3. Blows from the sea towards the land
4. Blows from land towards the sea

Answer: 1. Glides down the snow-capped mountain

Question 40. A sudden lowering of the barometer reading indicates:
1. Fairweather
2. Rainfall
3. Storm
4. Cold waves

Answer: 3. Storm

Question 41. The layer of the atmosphere where changes in daily weather take place is called:
1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Exosphere
4. ionosphere

Answer: 1. Troposphere

Question 42. The strongest insolation of a day is received
1. Early in the morning
2. At night
3. At noon
4. In the evening

Answer: 3. At noon

 

WBBSE For Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 3 Hydrosphere MCQS

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Chapter 3 Hydrosphere MCQs

Question 1. The formation of ocean currents depends on:
1. Prevailing winds
2. Earth’s revolution
3. Sandbanks
4. All of them are applicable

Answer: 1. Prevailing winds

Question 2. The time difference between high and low tides at a place is nearly:
1. More than two hours
2. More than six hours
3. More than four hours
4. More than eight hours

Answer: 2. More than six hours

Question 3. The place, where warm and cold ocean currents converge, is called:
1. Cold wall
2. Iceberg
3. Avalanches
4. Sargassum

Answer: 1. Cold wall

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Geography Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. When the distance between the earth and the moon is farthest, it is called:
1. Syzygy
2. Perigee
3. Apogee
4. Aphelion

Answer: 3. Apogee

Question 5. The merging of the cold Labrador current and warm Gulf stream current creates dense fogs and stormy weather conditions along
1. Newfoundland coast
2. Guinea coast
3. Florida cost
4. Peru coast

Answer: 1. Newfoundland coast

WBBSE For Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 3 Hydrosphere MCQS

Question 6. On the days of Neap Tides, the sun and the moon are at the following angle to each other in respect of the earth
1. 180°
2. 360°
3. 90°
4. 120°

Answer: 3. 90°

Question 7. The influence of El Nino is observed in:
1. Atlantic ocean
2. Pacific ocean
3. Indian ocean
4. Arctic ocean

Answer: 2. Pacific ocean

Question 8. When the distance between the earth and the moon becomes least, the generating tide is called:
1. Spring tide
2. Neap tide
3. Perigean tide
4. Apogean tide

Answer: 3. Perigean tide

Question 9. Spring tides occur:
1. Twice a month
2. Thrice a month
3. Once a month
4. Fourtimesina month

Answer: 1. Twice a month

Question 10. The regular movements of water from one part of the ocean to another are called:
1. Tide
2. Wave
3. Ocean current
4. Tsunami

Answer: 3. Ocean current

Question 11. The rise and fall of the surface of the ocean is called:
1. Tide
2. Wave
3. Ocean current
4. Tsunami

Answer: 2. Wave

Question 12. The currents that flow from tropical areas towards the Polar regions are:
1. Cold currents
2. Both warm and cold currents
3. Warm currents
4. Neither warm nor cold current

Answer: 3. Warm currents

Question 13. The warm, occasional Pacific surface water along the coast of Peru is called:
1. El Nino
2. Gulf stream
3. North Atlantic drift
4. Labrador’s current

Answer: 1. El Nino

Question 14. The ocean currents get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere due to the:
1. Earth’s revolution
2. Earth’s rotation
3. Salinity
4. Temperature

Answer: 2. Earth’s rotation

Question 15. The periodic rise and fall in the level of oceans is called
1. Tide
2. Wave
3. Ocean current
4. Tsunami

Answer: 1. Tide

Question 16. Peruvian Current flows through the:
1. Indian Ocean
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Pacific Ocean
4. Arctic Ocean

Answer: 3. Pacific Ocean.

Question 17. The interval between the two primary tides is
1. 6 hours 13 minutes
2. 12 hours 26 minutes
3. 24 hours 52 minutes
4. 12 hours 52 minutes

Answer: 3. 24 hours 52 minutes.

Question 18. Cold Wall is seen in the
1. North Atlantic
2. Pacific ocean
3. South Atlantic
4. Arctic circle

Answer: 1. North Atlantic.

Question 19. Sargasso sea is very prominent in the
1. Atlantic Ocean
2. Pacific ocean
3. Arctic Ocean
4. NorthernCoastofJapan

Answer: 1. Atlantic Ocean.

Question 20. Drifts are mainly caused by
1. Wind
2. Temperature
3. Pressure
4. Sea waves

Answer: 1. Wind.

Question 21. Grand Bank is a great
1. Fishing centre
2. Business centre
3. Banking hub
4. Tourist centre

Answer: 1. Fishing centre.

Question 22. The deflection of Ocean water in the Northern hemisphere is towards
1. Left
2. Right
3. Straight
4. None

Answer: 2. Right.

Question 23. The Gulf stream is one of the strongest warm currents of the____
1. Pacific Ocean
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Indian Ocean
4. Arctic Ocean

Answer: 2. Atlantic Ocean.

Question 24. The ocean current which is found on the north-west coast of the Atlantic is:
1. Brazilian Current
2. South Equatorial Current
3. Labrador Current
4. Guinea Current

Answer: 3. Labrador Current

Question 25. Warm Gulf Stream current originates in the:
1. Bay of Bengal
2. Bay of Biscay
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Gulf of Mexico

Answer: 4. Gulf of Mexico

Question 26. Canary current flows along the coast of:
1. Peru
2. Portugal
3. Japan
4. Canada

Answer: 2. Portugal

Question 27. ______is good for fishinhg.
1. Continental Shelf
2. Continental Slope
3. Continental Fishery
4. Continental Bay

Anwer: 1. Continental Shelf

Question 28. The major cause for the origin of ocean currents is
1. Earth’s rotation
2. Prevailing wind
3. Temperature differences
4. Salinity differences

Answer: 2. Prevailing wind

Question 29. The ocean current tends to move towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere due to
1. Temperature of ocean water
2. Salinity of ocean water
3. Rotation
4. Cold wall

Answer: 3. Rotation

Question 30. The Warm Gulf Stream current flows along the
1. North-East Australia
2. North-West Europe
3. North-East Asia
4. South-West Europe.

Answer: 2. North-West Europe

Question 31. The Benguela cold current flows along the
1. East coast of Africa
2. West coast of Africa
3. East coast of South America
4. West coast of South America.

Answer: 2. West coast of Africa

Question 32. The main controlling factor for ocean currents is
1. Rotation
2. Prevailing wind
3. Location of the continent
4. Salinity of water.

Answer: 2. Prevailing wind

Question 33. Give an example of a cold current.
1. West Australian Current
2. South Equatorial Current
3. Counter Equatorial Current
4. Agulhas Current

Answer: 1. West Australian Current

Question 34. The Coast Of Norway remains ice-free due to
1. Labrador Current
2. Agulhas current
3. Guinea’s current
4. Gulf stream current

Answer: 4. Gulf stream current

Question 35. A cold current also known as ‘Oyashio current’ is_____
1. Kuroshio’s current
2. Californian current
3. Kurile current
4. Humboldt current.

Answer: 3. Kurile’s current

Question 36. Kuroshio current is a current of
1. Arctic ocean
2. Antarctic ocean
3. Atlantic ocean
4. Pacific ocean.

Answer: 4. Pacific ocean.

Question 37. The amount of the earth’s surface covered by water is:
1. 30percent
2. 90percent
3. 50percent
4. 70percent

Answer: 4. 70 percent.

Question 38. A major pollutant for ozone depletion is
1. Water vapour
2. Dust
3. Chlorofluro carbon
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Chlorofluro carbon

Question 39. Acid rain is a serious problem in:
1. Cape town
2. New York
3. Rome
4. Greece

Answer: 2. New York

Question 40. Preventive measure for Air Pollution is_____
1. Controlled use of fossil fuels
2. Control of air pollution
3. Control of dust
4. All the above

Answer: 1. Controlled use of fossil fuels

Question 41. The ozone layer is found over a distance of
1. 5 to 6 km
2. 10 to 35 km
3. 55 to 69 miles
4. 80 to 100 km

Answer: 2. 10 to 35 km

Question 42. The gulf stream current is
1. Hot wind
2. Cold wind
3. Very cold in nature
4. Very mild in nature

Answer: 1. Hot wind

Question 43. The sea waves generated by tides are called:
1. Tidal current
2. Tidal waves
3. Tidal bores
4. Tidal shores

Answer: 2. Tidal waves

Question 44. The direction of ocean water movement in the northern hemisphere is:
1. Clockwise
2. Anti-clockwise
3. Straight
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Clockwise

 

WBBSE For Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 4 Waste Management MCQS

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Chapter 4 Waste Management MCQs

Question 1. Carbon particles emitted by vehicles are controlled by the use of:
1. Cyclone Separators
2. Electrostatic Precipitator
3. Scrubber
4. Coated Alumina

Answer: 1. Cyclone Separators

Question 2. In the human body contaminated water may cause:
1. Diarrhoea
2. Asthma
3. Lung cancer
4. Blindness

Answer: 1. Diarrhoea

Question 3. The following waste material is non-biodegradable by its nature:
1. Plastic wastes
2. Synthetic rubber wastes
3. Aluminium sheet
4. All are applicable

Answer: 4. All are applicable

Read and Learn More WBBSE Class 10 Geography Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 4. The process of waste management involves:
1. Reuse of waste
2. Recycling of waste
3. Reduction of waste
4. All of them

Answer: 4. All of them

Question 5. Cooked food is considered a:
1. Liquid waste
2. Gaseous waste
3. Solid waste
4. All of these

Answer: 3. Solid waste

Question 6. Vegetable peelings, bits of paper, etc. are
1. Non-toxic wastes
2. Toxic wastes
3. Liquid wastes
4. Gaseous wastes

Answer: 1. Non-toxic wastes

Question 7. The wastes that are generated from residential homes are called:
1. Industrial wastes
2. Domestic wastes
3. Agricultural wastes
4. Radioactive wastes

Answer: 2. Domestic wastes

Question 8. The wastes that are generated from hospitals are called:
1. Biomedical wastes
2. Industrial wastes
3. Domestic wastes
4. Radioactive wastes

Answer: 1. Biomedical wastes

Question 9. Hazardous and harmful wastes are called
1. Non-toxic wastes
2. Solid wastes
3. Toxic wastes
4. Liquid wastes

Answer: 3. Toxic wastes

Question 10. Burning of Uranium in nuclear reactors creates waste.
1. Radio-active
2. Toxic
3. Biomedical
4. Liquid

Answer: 1. Radio-active

Question 11. The method of using a liquid to remove waste is called
1. Composting
2. Scrubbing
3. Landfilling
4. Dumping

Answer: 2. Scrubbing

Question 12. The useless or worthless material stuff to be thrown away is called:
1. Resource
2. Waste
3. Neutral stuff
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Waste

 

WBBSE For Class 10 Geography And Environment Chapter 6 Satellite Imaginary And Topographical Map MCQS

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Chapter 6 Satellite Imaginary And Topographical Map MCQs

Question 1. The colour used for drawing contour lines in the topographical map is:
1. Brown
2. Black
3. Red
4. Blue

Answer: 1. Brown

Question 2. The latitudinal and longitudinal extension of million sheet topographical map is:
1. 15′ x 15′
2. 30′ x 30′
3. l°xl°
4. 4°x4°

Answer: 4. 4°x4°

Question 3. The satellite sent by India is ______
1. IRS
2. LANDSAT
3. SPOT
4. Station

Answer: 3. SPOT

Question 4. The R.F. of a topographical map with 15’xl5′ latitudinal and longitudinal extension is ______
1. 1: 2,50,000
2. 1:1,00,000
3. 1:50,000
4. 1: 25,000

Answer: 4. 1: 50,000

Question 5. Satellites images are powerful tools of Meteorology as they:
1. Forecast the behaviour of the atmosphere
2. Identify the shipping route
3. Do landuse mapping
4. Identify physiography

Answer: 1. Forecast the behaviour of the atmosphere

Question 6. The satellite that remains in a fixed location on the earth’s surface is called:
1. Polar-orbiting satellite
2. Geostationary satellite
3. Data collecting system
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Geostationary satellite

Question 7. The satellite images that can be viewed during the day are:
1. Infrared imagery
2. Water vapour Imagery
3. Analogue satellite images
4. Visible imagery

Answer: 4. Visible imagery

Question 8. Topographical maps usually are:
1. Small-scale maps
2. Large-scale maps
3. Cadastral maps
4. Weather maps

Answer: 2. Large-scale maps

Question 9. In order to describe surface features, topographical maps use:
1. Scale
2. North line
3. Conventional signs
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Conventional signs

Question 10. The sensors in the satellites use to take images.
1. Conventional Camera
2. Digital Camera with CD
3. A mobile phone
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Digital Camera with CD

Question 11. The link between the earth and the sensor is:
1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Electromagnetic wave
4. Short waves

Answer: 3. Electromagnetic wave

Question 12. Satellite imageries are photographs taken by______
1. Satellites
2. Planets
3. Manual cameras
4. Mobile phones

Answer: 1. Satellites

Question 13. Satellite imageries help to gather information regarding______
1. Only land bodies
2. Only water bodies
3. The earth as a whole
4. Mountains and Plateaus only

Answer: 3. The earth as a whole

Question 14. Satellites take photographs at _____ intervals.
1. Very small
2. Very long
3. Moderate
4. Not frequent

Answer: 1. Very small

Question 15. Topographical maps represent ______ features.
1. Physical
2. Cultural
3. Both physical and cultural
4. One of these

Answer: 3. Both physical and cultural

Question 16. Topographical maps are prepared by ______
1. Survey of India
2. Geological Survey of India
3. NAME
4. NATO

Answer: 1. Survey of India

Question 17. Weather forecasting is possible through_____
1. Satellite images
2. Topographical maps
3. Both
4. None

Answer: 1. Satellite images

Question 18. The images of earth and other planets collected by satellites are called:
1. Maps
2. Photographs
3. Satellite images
4. None of these

Answer: 3. Satellite images

 

WBBSE For Class 9 History And Environment Chapter 3 Europe In The 19th Century : Conflict Of Nationalist Andmonarchial Ideas MCQS

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Chapter 3 Europe In The 19th Century: Conflict Of Nationalist Andmonarchial Ideas MCQs

Question 1. After the fall of Napoleon, European statesmen assembled at a conference at the Austrian capital.
(1) Berlin
(2) Vienna
(3) Naples
(4) None of the above

Answer: (4) Vienna

Question 2. At the Congress of Vienna, Prussia was represented by.
(1) Castlereagh
(2) Frederick William
(3) Hardenburg
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3) Hardenburg

Question 3. In accordance with the principle of legitimacy, the —- dynasty was reestablished in France.
(1) Hohenzollern
(2) Bourbon
(3) Stuart
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) Bourbon

Question 4. The Second French Empire was founded by.
(1) Louis Napoleon
(2) Napoleon Bonaparte
(3) Louis XVI
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (1) Louis Napoleon

Question 5. The Second French empire was founded in.
(1) 1851
(2) 1852
(3) 1853
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (2) 1852

Question 6. The leader of the July Revolution was.
(1) Guizot
(2) Polignac
(3) Thiers
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3) Thiers

Question 7. The first stage in the unification of Germany was the creation of.
(1) Zollverein
(2) Philiki
(3) Hetaira
(4) Carbonari

Answer: (1) Zollverein

Question 8. In —- the German nationalists convened a Parliament called Frankfurt Parliament.
(1) 1848
(2) 1849
(3) 1850
(4) None of the above

Answer: (1) 1848

Question 9. Congress of Vienna was held in
(1) 1814
(2) 1815
(3) 1816
(4) 1817

Answer: (2) 1815

Question 10. —- was appointed by Charles X as his minister
(1) Theirs
(2) Polignac
(3) Guizot
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (3) Guizot

Question 11. The Emancipation Statute was passed by ——- of Russia.
(1) Alexander
(2) Alexander II
(3) Nicholas I
(3) None of the above

Answer: (1) Alexander II

Question 12. England and France participated directly in the Crimean War in support of
(1) Egypt
(2) Greece
(3) Turkey
(3) None of the above

Answer: (3) Turkey

Question 13. The Crimean War came to an end with the signing of the Treaty of
(1) Adrianople
(2) Versailles
(3) Paris
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3) Paris

Question 14. The Balkan means the hilly area between the Aegean Sea and the
(1) Danube
(2) Adriatic
(3) Mediterranean Sea
(4) None of the above

Answer: (1) Danube

Question 15. —– included vast areas of Africa and Europe and was known as the Ottoman Empire.
(1) Greece
(2) Turkey
(3) Austria
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) Turkey

Question 16. In 1821, the people of Greece revolted against
(1) Russia
(2) Turkey
(3) France
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) Turkey

Question 17. The Treaty of Adrianople was signed in
(1) 1829
(2) 1830
(3) 1840
(4) None of the above

Answer: (4) 1829

Question 18. According to the Principle of Legitimacy, the dominance of —- over Germany was revived.
(1) France
(2) Austria
(3) Italy
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) Austria

Question 19. In accordance with the Principle of Legitimacy, the House of Orange was restored in.
(1) France
(2) Sardinia
(3) Germany
(4) Holland

Answer: (4) Holland

Question 20. The Greek people, under the —- rule, began their national liberation movement.
(1) French
(2) British
(3) Spanish
(4) Turkish

Answer: (4) Turkish

Question 21. —- gave a call to the people of France to resist the illegal activities of the French Government.
(1) Guizot
(2) Polignac
(3) Theirs
(4) Louis Blanc

Answer: (3) Theirs

Question 22. In the Vienna note, Russian guardianship over the Greek Orthodox Church in — was admitted.
(1) France
(2) Britain
(3) Turkey
(4) Sardinia

Answer: (3) Turkey

Question 23. Louis Philippe came to the throne of France in —-
(1) 1830
(2) 1836
(3) 1840
(4) 1848

Answer: (1) 1830

Question 24. The year —- is known as the ‘Year of Revolution’.
(1) 1830
(2) 1848
(3) 1856
(4) 1864

Answer: (2) 1848

Question 25. Before the unification of Italy, Naples & Sicily in South Italy were ruled by the dynasty.
(1) Savoy
(2) Hapsburg
(3) Orleans
(4) Bourbon

Answer: (4) Bourbon

Question 26. In 1848, Metternich’s residence was attacked and he took shelter in 
(1) France
(2) Italy
(3) England
(4) Russia

Answer: (3) England

Question 27. The Treaty of Prague was signed in —
(1) 1865
(2) 1866
(3) 1867
(4) 1868

Answer: (2) 1866

Question 28. —- was the editor of the periodical ‘Risorgimento’.
(1) Cavour
(2) Garibaldi
(3) Mazzini
(4) Viota Emmanuel

Answer: (1) Cavour

Question 29. Louis Philippe, the ruler of France, abdicated to
(1) Prussia
(2) France
(3) England
(4) Russia

Answer: (3) England

Question 30. In 1860 some states of Central Italy like Perma, Modena, and Tuscany expressed their desire to join
(1) France
(2) Piedmonardinia
(3) Westphalia
(4) Montenegro

Answer: (2) Piedmonardinia

Question 31. —- after the Vienna Congress was reduced to a mere geographical expression.
(1) Italy
(2) France
(3) Germany
(4) England

Answer: (1) Italy

Question 32. A united and independent Italy was born in
(1) 1860
(2) 1865
(3) 1870
(4) 1872

Answer: (3) 1870

Question 33. Under the rule of ——— the Germans became acquainted with democratic and nationalist ideas
(1) Metternich
(2) Cavour
(3) Napoleon
(4) Bismarck

Answer: (3) Napoleon

Question 34. During the French Revolution France. was divided into —— states.
(1) 300
(2) 400
(3) 500
(4) 600

Answer: (1) 300

Question 35. The Confederation of the Rhine was inaugurated by
(1) Louis Philippe
(2) Cavour
(3) Napoleon
(4) Mazzini

Answer: (3) Napoleon

Question 36. The Treaty of Paris brought an end to the — War.
(1) Crimean
(2) First World
(3) Austro – Prussian
(4) Russo – Turkish

Answer: (1) Crimean

Question 37. The Congress of Vienna was held in the year
(1) 1814
(2) 1815
(3) 1816
(4) 1817

Answer: (2) 1815

Question 38. The most important person in the Vienna settlement was
(1) Lafayette
(2) Louis Philippe
(3) Metternich
(4) St. Simon

Answer: (3) Metternich

Question 39. The July Revolution broke out in
(1) 1820
(2) 1830
(3) 1840
(4) 1850

Answer: (3) 1840

Question 40. Garibaldi’s men were called
(1) Red Shirts
(2) Black Shirts
(3) Brown Shirts
(4) Blue Shits

Answer: (1) Red Shirts

Question 41. The foundation of the Second French Republic was laid in
(1) 1830
(2) 1848
(3) 1858
(4) none of the above

Answer: (2) 1848

Question 42. The February Revolution broke out in France against the autocracy of
(1) Napoleon III
(2) Metternich
(3) Louis Philippe
(4) Napoleon

Answer: (3) Louis Philippe

Question 43. Napoleon III was the ruler of
(1) Piedmont-Sardinia
(2) France
(3) Germany
(4) Austria

Answer: (2) France

Question 44. Phalke Hetaira was a secret society of
(1) Germany
(2) Turkey
(3) Italy
(4) Greece

Answer: (4) Greece

45. Carbonari was a secret society of
(1) Italy
(2) Russia
(3) France
(4) Austria

Answer: (1) Italy

Question 46. The Battle of Sadowa was fought in 
(1) 1856
(2) 1876
(3) 1866
(4) 1896

Answer: (3) 1866

Question 47. The Battle of Sedan was fought in
(1) 1856
(2) 1866
(3) 1870
(4) 1872

Answer: (3) 1870

Question 48. The Battle of Sadowa was fought between
(1) Austria and Prussia
(2) Austria and Russia
(3) Austria and Germany
(4) Austria and Italy

Answer: (1) Austria and Prussia

Question 49. The Battle of Sedan was fought between
(1) Austria and Prussia
(2) Russia and Prussia
(3) England and Prussia
(4) France and Prussia

Answer: (4) France and Prussia

Question 50. Nicholas, I was the ruler of
(1) Austria
(2) Russia
(3) Italy
(4) Prussia

Answer: (2) Russia

Question 51. Moldavia and Wallachia were invaded by 
(1) Britain
(2) Italy
(3) Russia
(4) Germany

Answer: (3) Russia

Question 52. How many wars did Bismarck fight to unify Germany?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

Answer: (1) Three

Question 53. The King of France during the July Revolution was
(1) Napoleon
(2) Charles X
(3) Louis XVI
(4) Louis Philippe

Answer: (1) Napoleon

Question 54. The King of France during the February Revolution was
(1) Charles X
(2) Napoleon Bonaparte
(3) Louis Napoleon
(4) Louis Philippe

Answer: (2) Napoleon Bonaparte

Question 55. Garibaldi, a great patriot of Italy, occupied
(1) Sicily and Naples
(2) Venetia
(3) Rome
(4) Austria

Answer: (1) Sicily and Naples

Question 56. The sick man of Europe was
(1) France
(2) Greece
(3) Italy
(4) Turkey

Answer: (4) Turkey

Question 57. In the famous Vienna Note, Russia was asked to withdraw her claims in
(1) Egypt
(2) Turkey
(3) Italy
(4) France

Answer: (2) Turkey

Question 58. Before unification, Central Italy was ruled by
(1) Austria
(2) King of Naples
(3) Pope
(4) France

Answer: (3) Pope

Question 59. Bismarck successfully waged war against Denmark in 
(1) 1862
(2) 1861
(3) 1864
(4) 1868

Answer: (3) 1864

Question 60. The main function of the Frankfurt Parliament was to frame a constitution for 
(1) Italy
(2) Germany
(3) France
(4) Russia

Answer: (2) Germany

Question 61. According to the decisions of the Frankfurt Parliament, the crown of a united Germany was offered to
(1) Alexander I
(2) Francis II
(3) Frederick William
(4) Louis Philippe

Answer: (3) Frederick William

Question 62. The decision of the leaders of the Vienna Congress was to divide Poland into
(1) One division
(2) Three divisions
(3) Two divisions
(4) Four divisions

Answer: (2) Three divisions

Question 63. In 1860, the Red Shirts under the leadership of Garibaldi went to
(1) Sicily
(2) Lombardy
(3) Tuscany
(4) Modena

Answer: (1) Sicily

Question 64. Polignac was appointed minister by
(1) Charles X
(2) Louis Philippe
(3) Napoleon
(4) Francis II

Answer: (1) Charles X

Question 65. The book ‘Organisation of labor’ was written by 
(1) Louis Blanc
(2) Guizot
(3) St. Simon
(4) Thiers

Answer: (1) Louis Blanc

Question 66. The Crimean War was fought by
(1) England and France against Russia.
(2) England and France against Austria.
(3) England and France against Italy.
(4) England and France against Germany.

Answer: (1) England and France against Russia.

Question 67. The principle which was devised in the  Congress of Vienna was 
(1) The principle of the social contract.
(2) The principle of separation of powers.
(3) The principle of legitimacy.
(4) The Monroe Doctrine.

Answer: (3) The principle of legitimacy.

Question 68. In Italy, a secret society ‘The Carbonari’ was established which wanted to
(1) Spread nationalist movement elsewhere in Europe.
(2) Unite Italy into a single state.
(3) Express discontent against the existing system.
(4) Create terror among the Austrians.

Answer: (2) Unite Italy into a single state.

Question 69. The Battle of Sadowa brought forth an important change which was
(1) The political center of central Europe shifted from Vienna to Berlin.
(2) The relationship between Prussia and France became bitter.
(3) Prussia and Spain came under the rule of the same dynasty.
(4) Victory in the battle greatly enhanced Prussia’s international prestige.

Answer: (1) The political center of central Europe shifted from Vienna to Berlin.

Question 70. The chief and decisive event of the Crimean War was the 
(1) Russian invasion of Moldavia.
(2) Death of Czar Nicholas I.
(3) The famous Vienna Note where Russian guardianship over the Greek Orthodox church in Turkey was admitted.
(4) Seige of Sebastopol.

Answer: (4) Seige of Sebastopol.

Question 71. After the fall of Napoleon and in accordance with the decision of the Vienna Congress
(1) Dictatorship was reinstated in France.
(2) Monarchy was restored in France.
(3) Democracy was restored in France.
(4) Republicanism was reinstated in France.

Answer: (2) Monarchy was restored in France.

Question 72. Before unification, Piedmont and the island of Sardinia were ruled by
(1) An Italian king in the north.
(2) A French king.
(3) Pope who was the head of the church
(4) Argentinian dictator Juan de Rosas.

Answer: (1) An Italian king in the north.

Question 73. After the Vienna settlement, Germany emerged as 
(1) The supreme power in Central Europe.
(2) A loose confederation of 39 states.
(3) The staunchest enemy of France.
(4) A stronger power than before.

Answer: (2) A loose confederation of 39 states.

Question 74. After the July Revolution in France in 1830
(1) Dictatorship was established in France.
(2) Democracy was established in France.
(3) Constitutional monarchy was established in France.
(4) Kingship was established in France.

Answer: (3) Constitutional monarchy was established in France.

Question 75. The leaders who took the most important part in defeating Napoleon met in Vienna to
(1) Reconstruct the political map of Europe.
(2) To establish a democratic Government in France.
(3) To liberate Italy from the hands of Austria.
(4) To establish a popular Government in Germany.

Answer: (1) Reconstruct the political map of Europe.

 

WBBSE for Class 9 History and Environment Chapter 1 Some Aspects of the French Revolution MCQS

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Chapter 1 Some Aspects of the French Revolution MCQs

Question 1. The burden of the financial activities of the state during the ‘ancient regime’ was borne by
(1) The king alone
(2) Nobles only
(3) Third estate alone
(4) Church alone

Answer: (3) Third estate alone

Question 2. France was defeated in the War of
(1) American Independence
(2) Austrian succession
(3) World War I
(4) World War II

Answer: (2) Austrian succession

Question 3. In 1774, Louis XVI of the Bourbon family ascended the throne of
(1) Germany
(2) Italy
(3) France
(4) Britain

Answer: (3) France

Question 4. The session of the States-General was summoned in 1789 in
(1) Berlin
(2) New York
(3) London
(4) Versailles

Answer: (4) Versailles

Question 5. Which one of the following refers to the political body representing the three estates of pre-revolutionary France?
(1) Reichstag
(2) Provincial Assembly
(3) States-General
(4) National Assembly

Answer: (3) States-General

Question 6. The Constitution of 1791 vested the power of making laws in the
(1) Lok Sabha
(2) Provincial Assembly
(3) General Assembly
(4) National Assembly

Answer: (4) National Assembly

Question 7. The Constitution of 1789 began with a Declaration of the Rights of 
(1) Women and Citizen
(2) Sans culottes
(3) Aristocrats
(4) Man and Citizen

Answer: (1) Man and Citizen

Question 8. The New Assembly elected in 1792 by general franchise came to be known as the 
(1) Constituent Assembly
(2) Legislative Assembly
(3) Local Council
(5) National Convention

Answer: (4) National Convention

Question 9. One very important reform introduced by the Jacobin regime was the abolition of
(1) Monarchy
(2) Slavery in French colonies
(3) Dictatorship
(4) Feudalism

Answer: (2) Slavery in French colonies

Question 10. Marie Antoinette, the queen of Louis XVI, was guillotined in 
(1) 1793
(2) 1795
(3) 1796
(4) 1801

Answer: (1) 1793

Question 11. Louis XVI was sentenced to death by a court on the charge of
(1) Murder
(2) Treason
(3) Plundering
(4) Wasting money

Answer: (2) Treason

Question 12. European coalition was formed against France by 
(1) Holland, Prussia, Austria, Britain
(2) Holland, Prussia, Russia, Britain
(3) Holland, Prussia, Austria, America
(4) Holland, Prussia, Austria, Italy

Answer: (1) Holland, Prussia, Austria, Britain

Question 13. The ideas of democratic rights and liberty were the most important legacy of the 
(1) Glorious Revolution
(2) Russian Revolution
(3) French Revolution
(4) Industrial Revolution

Answer: (3) French Revolution

Question 14. One of the directors of the Directory was 
(1) Abbe Sieyes
(2) Necker
(3) Napoleon
(4) Marat

Answer: (1) Abbe Sieyes

Question 15. The First Consul bestowed with administrative powers was 
(1) Mirabeau
(2) Calonne
(3) Napoleon
(4) Quesnay

Answer: (3) Napoleon

Question 16. The French Revolution broke out in 1789 because of 
(1) The excesses of King Louis XVI.
(2) Social causes.
(3) Economic causes.
(4) A combination of social, Economic, Political And Intellectual Causes.

Answer: (4) A combination of social, economic, political and intellectual causes.

Question 17. The aristocrats of France revolted because
(1) The privilege of not paying any tax was taken away.
(2) They were not allowed to speak in the States-General.
(3) They were not appointed to high posts.
(4) They were influenced by French philosophers.

Answer: (1) the privilege of not paying any tax was taken away.

Question 18. The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen stated that
(1) Passive citizens have the right to vote.
(2) Liberty is an inalienable birthright of a citizen.
(3) Active citizens alone could elect representatives.
(4) The King’s landed properties were to be taken away.

Answer: (2) Liberty is an inalienable birthright of a citizen.

Question 19. By the Civil Constitution of the Clergy
(1) The French Christian Church was brought under secular control.
(2) The French Christian Church came to be controlled by the king only.
(3) The French Christian Church came to be controlled by the people of France.
(4) The French Christian Church came to be controlled by priests only.

Answer: (1) The French Christian Church was brought under secular control.

Question 20. France lost her status as an international power in the 18th century because of
(1) The immense loss of men and money.
(2) Defeats in the War of Austrian Succession and the Seven Years’ War.
(3) An empty treasury.
(4) The introduction of the Reign of Terror.

Answer: (2) Defeats in the War of Austrian Succession and the Seven Years’ War.

Question 21. The three leaders of the Reign of Terror who together came to be called the Revolutionary Triumvirate were 
(1) Robespierre, Georges Couthon and Jean Paul Marat
(2) Robespierre, Georges Couthon and Saint- Just
(3) Robespierre, Abbe Sieyes and Saint Just
(4) Robespierre, Saint Just and Denis Diderot

Answer: (2) Robespierre, Georges Couthon and Saint-Just

Question 22. The ‘ancient regime’ was based on a social structure.
(1) Ancient
(2) Medieval
(3) Modern
(4) None of the above.

Answer:(2) Medieval

Question 23. The French monarchs were believers in 
(1) Divine Right of kingship
(2) Democracy
(3) Dictatorship
(4) None of the above

Answer: (1) Divine Right of kingship

Question 24. Those who were supporters of the king were known as 
(1) Girondins
(2) Royalists
(3) Monarchists
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) Royalists

Question 25. The French Revolution in its first phase was started by the 
(1) Third Estate
(2) Aristocracy
(3) Bourgeoisie
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) Aristocracy

Question 26. The States General in France met on 5 May 1789 after a long lapse of – years.
(1) 174
(2) 179
(3) 196
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (1) 174

Question 27. Remarked, “Man is born free but everywhere he is bound by chains.”
(1) Voltaire
(2) Rousseau
(3) Montesquieu
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (2) Rousseau

Question 28. The tithe was a tax on
(1) Religion
(2) Property
(3) Salt
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (1) Religion

Question 29. The Tennis Court Oath was taken in
(1) 1788
(2) 1789
(3) 1790
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) 1789

Question 30. One of the leaders associated with the task of drafting the Constitution of 1791 was 
(1) Louis XVI
(2) Talleyrand
(3) Montesquieu
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) Talleyrand

Question 31. Hibbert was an important leader of the
(1) Jacobins
(2) Girondins
(3) Centre Party
(4) None of the above

Answer: (1) Jacobins

Question 32. Tipu Sultan was the founder member of the Jacobin club that showed allegiance to the 
(1) French
(2) English
(3) Portuguese
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (1) French

Question 33. The was enforced to check the soaring prices of goods.
(1) Law of Suspects
(2) Law of Tribunal
(3) Law of Maximum
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3) Law of Maximum

Question 34. The September Massacre continued from 2 September to 6 September
(1) 1792
(2) 1793
(3) 1794
(4) None of the above

Answer: (1) 1792

Question 35. With the execution of, the Reign of Terror came to an end.
(1) Louis XVI
(2) Robespierre
(3) Napoleon
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (2) Robespierre

Question 36. The incident of the execution of his associates which brought an end to the Reign of Terror came to be known as the Thermidorian Reaction.
(1) Louis XVI
(2) Marie Antoinette
(3) Robespierre
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3) Robespierre

Question 37. France was under Directory rule from
(1) 1795 – 1799
(2) 1798 – 1799
(3) 1799 – 1804
(4) None of the above

Answer:  (1) 1795 – 1799

Question 38. The Directory had
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(d) None of these

Answer: (3)  5

Question 39. Among the Directors of France, was the most famous.
(1) Carnot
(2) Pache
(3) Dumoureiz
(4) None of the above.

Answer: (1) Carnot

Question 40. The French Government was divided into departments to streamline the administration.
(1) 80
(2) 82
(3) 83
(4)None of the above

Answer: (3) 83

Question 41) By military coup seized the administrative power of France in
(1)Louis XIV
(2)Robespierre
(3)Napoleon
(4)None of the above

Answer:(3) Napoleon

 

WBBSE For Class 9 History And Environment Chapter 7 The League Of Nations And The United Nations Organisation MCQS

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Chapter 7 The League Of Nations And The United Nations Organisation MCQs

Question 1. The League of Nations was formed after
(1) First World War
(2) Second World War
(3) First Balkan War
(4) Second Balkan War

Answer: (1) First World War

Question 2. President Wilson belonged to
(1) France
(2) U.S.A
(3) Germany
(4) Italy

Answer: (2) U.S.A

Question 3. Which of the following personalities was active in the establishment of the League of Nations?
(1) Woodrow Wilson
(2) Lloyd George
(3) Clemenceau
(4) Orlando

Answer: (1) Woodrow Wilson

Question 4. The country which did not join the League of Nations was
(1) Germany
(2) Britain
(3) America
(4) Spain

Answer: (3) America

Question 5. The session of the League of Nations was held in a year.
(1) Once
(2) Twice
(3) Thrice
(4) Weekly

Answer: (1) Once

Question 6. The executive body of the League of Nations was called
(1) Security Council
(2) Secretariat
(3) Executive Board
(4) Board of Directors

Answer: (1) Security Council

Question 7. The U.N.O. was founded on
(1) 24 October 1945
(2) 29 October 1946
(3) 24 October 1947
(4) 25 October 1946

Answer: (1) 24 October 1945

Question 8. The number of judges in the International Court of Justice is
(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) 18

Answer: (1) 15

Question 9. The highest officer of the Secretariat of the League of Nations was called
(1) Secretary General
(2) General Secretary
(3) Chairman
(4) Collector

Answer: (1) Secretary General

Question 10. The temporary members of the Security Council are elected for
(1) 2 years
(2) 3 years
(3) 4 years
(4) 5 years

Answer: (1) 2 years.

Question 11. The full form of ILO is
(1) Internal Labour Organisation
(2) International Labour Organisation
(3) International Lawyers’ Organisation
(4) Internal Labour Office

Answer: (2) International Labour Organisation

Question 12. U.N.O was established after
(1) Russo-Japanese war
(2) First World War
(3) Second World War
(4) The Battle of Waterloo

Answer: (3) Second World War

Question 13. Atlantic Charter was declared by
(1) Roosevelt and Churchill
(2) Churchill and Stalin
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru and Stalin
(4) None of the above

Answer: (1) Roosevelt and Churchill

Question 14. The UN Charter was ratified in 1945 by
(1) 25 nations
(2) 51 nations
(3) 33 nations
(4) 37 nations

Answer: (2) 51 nations

Question 15. Where and when was the UN Charter finalised and became effective?
(1) San Francisco, 24 October, 1945
(2) Paris, 5 March 1944
(3) Yalta, 2 February 1945
(4) None of these

Answer: (1) San Francisco, 24 October 1945

Question 16. Trygve Lie, the first Secretary General of U.N.O, was from
(1) U.S.A
(2) Korea
(3) Norway
(4) France

Answer: (3) Norway

Question 17. The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice is
(1) 6 years
(2) 7 years
(3) 8 years
(4) 9 years

Answer: (4) 9 years

Question 18. The number of principal organs of the United Nations is
(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

Answer: (1) 6

Question 19. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice are at
(1) Rome
(2) Vienna
(3) Hague
(4) None of these

Answer: (3) Hague

Question 20. The following is not associated with the UN
(1) ILO
(2) WHO
(3) ASEAN (Associations for South East Asian Nations)
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3) ASEAN (Associations for South East Asian Nations)

Question 21. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the U.N.O?
(1) International Labour Organisation
(2) Security Council
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) General Assembly

Answer: (1) International Labour Organisation

Question 22. The League of Nations was established to
(1) Solve the problems of the vanquished nations.
(2) Maintain peace and order in the world in future.
(3) Bring back peace temporarily.
(4) Solve the internal problems of the victorious powers.

Answer: (2) Maintain peace and order in the world in future.

Question 23. The number of permanent members of the League of Nations remained only four because
(1) The U.S.A. resigned its membership of the League.
(2) The U.S.A. did not accept the membership of the League.
(3) Germany was not accepted as a member of the League.
(4) Italy resigned its membership of the League.

Answer: (2) The U.S.A. did not accept the membership of the League.

Question 24. The International Court of Justice is
(1) The judicial organ of the U.N.O.
(2) The chief executive body of the U.N.O.
(3) General body of the labour organisation.
(4) The executive body of the League of Nations.

Answer: (1) The judicial organ of the U.N.O.

Question 25. The League of Nations was a part of the
(1) Treaty of Berlin.
(2) Treaty of San Stephano.
(3) Treaty of London.
(4) Treaty of Versailles.

Answer: (4) Treaty of Versailles.

Question 26. The heart and brain of the U.N.O. is
(1) The UNESCO.
(2) Trusteeship Council.
(3) The Security Council.
(4) The General Assembly.

Answer: (3) The Security Council.

Question 27. The League of Nations was established by the
(1) US Senate approval.
(2) Provisions included in the Treaty of Versailles.
(3) Efforts of the German representative at the Paris Peace Conference.
(4) Communist Youth Movement.

Answer: (2) provisions included in the Treaty of Versailles.

Question 28. The heads of state who worked to establish the League of Nations were
(1) Churchill, Stalin and Roosevelt.
(2) Clemenceau, Lloyd George and Wilson.
(3) Engels, Karl Marx and Stalin.
(4) Archduke Francis, Bismarck and Tsar Nicholas.

Answer: (2) Clemenceau, Lloyd George and Wilson.

Question 29. A major weakness of the League of Nations was that
(1) It was controlled by Third World countries.
(2) Neither Britain nor Germany were members.
(3) It was unable to apply military force.
(4) The League was dominated by the U.S.A. and the USSR.

Answer: (1) It was unable to apply military force.

Question 30. A major blow to the prestige of the League of Nations was
(1) Japan’s invasion of Manchuria.
(2) The murder of Archduke Francis Ferdinand.
(3) German attack on France.
(4) German entry into a bilateral military alliance.

Answer: (1) Japan’s invasion of Manchuria.

Question 31. Which nation was a member of the League of Nations during its entire existence?
(1) Japan
(2) Germany
(3) France
(4) Russia

Answer: (3) France

Question 32. Which of the following is not associated with the organisation of the Leagu?
(1) A Secretariat.
(2) A World Bank.
(3) A court of international justice.
(4) An assembly.

Answer: (2) A World Bank.

Question 33. The main purpose of the League of Nations was to
(1) To ask for more reparation from Germany.
(2) To promote international cooperation.
(3) To provide security to the newly independent nations.
(4) Bring together the victorious nations.

Answer: (2) To promote international cooperation.

Question 34. Germany joined the League of Nations in
(1) In 1925.
(2) After the Second World War.
(3) Since its formation – Germany was an original member of the League.
(4) Germany never joined the League of Nations.

Answer: (1) In 1925.

Question 35. Of the following statements that best summarises the insertion of the. Treaty of Versailles is
(1) All nations that participated in World War I must be treated fairly by the treaty.
(2) The treaty must punish all the losers of war.
(3) The input of all nations participating in the First World War must be taken into account by the treaty.
(4) The treaty must be signed by all the victorious powers of World War I.

Answer: (2) The treaty must punish all the losers of war.

Question 36. Territorial expansion to provide living space for a ‘master race’ was used to justify actions taken by
(1) China before the Second World War.
(2) France immediately after the First World War.
(3) The Soviet Union in the late 1940s.
(4) Germany in the late 1930s.

Answer: (4) Germany in the late 1930s.

Question 37. Among President Wilson’s Fourteen Points was the proposal to
(1) Disarm all magic powers.
(2) Create an alliance with Germany.
(3) Form a League of Nations.
(4) Make Great Britain repay her war debts.

Answer: (3) Form a League of Nations.

Question 38. The main purpose of President Wilson’s Fourteen Points at the end of World War I was to
(1) Assist the leaders of Europe to gain additional territory at Germany’s expense.
(2) Gain reparations from Germany to help pay for the cost of war.
(3) Assure peace in future by not treating Germany as a vanquished nation.
(4) Divide Germany into several parts so that she would not be a threat in the future.

Answer: (3) Assure peace in future by not treating Germany as a vanquished nation.

Question 39. After the end of the First World War, a peace conference was convened in
(1) Germany
(2) Poland
(3) Russia
(4) Paris

Answer: (4) Paris

Question 40. The first session of the League of Nations was
(1) 1920
(2) 1921
(3) 1922
(4) 1923

Answer: (1) 1920

Question 41. Wilson made the Covenant of the League of Nations as an integral part of the Treaty of
(1) San Stephano
(2) Sevres
(3) Versailles
(4) Toplitz

Answer: (3) Versailles

Question 42. The Second World War began in
(1) 1937
(2) 1938
(3) 1939
(4) 1940

Answer: (3) 1939

Question 43. The Headquarters of the League of Nations was at
(1) Versailles
(2) Geneva
(3) Berlin
(3) Rome

Answer: (2) Geneva

Question 44. The U.N.O was founded in
(1) 1945
(2) 1946
(3) 1947
(4) 1938

Answer: (1) 1945

Question 45. The U.N.O was established in
(1) New York, U.S.A
(2) London, Britain
(3) Paris, France
(4) Rome, Italy

Answer: (1) New York, U.S.A

Question 46. The International Court of Justice was established in
(1) Hague
(2) London
(3) New York
(4) Rome

Answer: (1) Hague

Question 47. The Headquarter of UNICEF is in
(1) New York
(2) London
(3) Paris
(4) Berlin

Answer: (1) New York

Question 48. The General Assembly appoints the Secretary-General for years.
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

Answer: (2) 5

Question 49. The UN Secretary-General heads of the U.N.O.
(1) General Assembly
(2) Security Council
(3) Economic & Social Council
(4) Secretariat

Answer: (4) Secretariat

Question 50. The General Assembly of the United Nations meets in a regular session in a year.
(1) Once
(2) Twice
(3) Once in two years
(4) Occasionally

Answer: (1) Once

Question 51. is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council.
(1) U.S.A
(2) U.K
(3) France
(4) Spain

Answer: (4) Spain

Question 52. is not the main organ of the U.N.O.
(1) General Assembly
(2) Security Council
(3) Trusteeship Council
(4) UNESCO

Answer: (4) UNESCO

Question 53. The Secretariat of the League consisted of the Secretary-General who was appointed by the
(1) League Assembly
(2) League Council
(3) Permanent Court of International Justice
(4) International Labour Organisation

Answer: (2) League Council

Question 54. World Disarmament Conference was convened in
(1) 1929-30
(2) 1932-33
(3) 1933-34
(4) 1934-35

Answer: (2) 1932-33

Question 55. At the Yalta Conference Russia was represented by
(1) Lenin
(2) Trotsky
(3) Stalin
(4) Karl Marx

Answer: (3) Stalin

Question 56. The U.N. Charter was amended during the Korean War.
(1) 1949
(2) 1950
(3) 1951
(4) 1952

Answer: (2) 1950

Question 57. This is the heart and perhaps the brain of the U.N.O.
(1) Security Council
(2) General Assembly
(3) Economic and Social Council
(4) World Health Organisation

Answer: (1) Security Council

Question 58. An autonomous body under the League of Nations was the
(1) International Labour Organisation
(2) League Assembly
(3) League Council
(4) Secretariat

Answer: (1) International Labour Organisation

WBBSE For Class 9 History And Environment Chapter 5 Europe In The Twentieth Century MCQS

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Chapter 5 Europe In The Twentieth Century MCQs

Question 1. The Paris Peace Conference took place in

(1) 1919
(2) 1920
(3) 1921
(4) 1922

Answer: (1) 1919

Question 2. ‘Fourteen Points’ were put before Germany by
(1) Lloyd Gorge
(2) Orlando
(3) Woodrow Wilson
(4) Clemenceau

Answer: (3) Woodrow Wilson

Question 3. Name the country which did not join the League of Nations.
(1) America
(2) Germany
(3) Spain
(4) England

Answer: (1) America

Question 4. The Bolshevik Revolution broke out in Russia in
(1) 1915
(2) 1916
(3) 1917
(4) 1918

Answer: (3) 1917

Question 5. Mussolini’s party came to be known as
(1) Fascist Party
(2) Socialist Party
(3) Nazi Party
(4) Communist Party

Answer: (1) Fascist Party

Question  6. The formation of Union of Soviet Socialist Republic was formally declared in
(1) 1920
(2) 1921
(3) 1922
(4) 1923
Answer: (3) 1922

Question 7. The Bolsheviks captured power in Russia by the
(1) November Revolution
(2) July Revolution
(3) February Revolution
(4) October Rovolution

Answer: (4) October Rovolution

Question 8. Lusitania was
(1) A country in Europe
(2) The name of a ship
(3) The name of a captain
(4) The name of an island.

Answer: (2) The name of a ship

Question 9. The American President during World War I was
(1) Woodrow Wilson
(2) Abraham Lincoln
(3) George Washington
(4) George Barlow

Answer: (1) Woodrow Wilson

Question 10. A special secret police was formed by the Bolsheviks called
(1) Duma
(2) Cheka
(3) Soviets
(4) Aurora

Answer: (2) Cheka

Question 11. President Wilson belonged to
(1) Britain
(2) China
(3) America
(4) Japan

Answer: (3) America

Question 12. The First World War broke out in
(1) 1912
(2) 1915
(3) 1913
(4) 1914

Answer: (4) 1914

Question 13. The First World War came to an end in
(1) 1919
(2) 1918
(3) 1913
(4) 1914

Answer: (2) 1918

Question 14. Who of the following was most active in the establishment of the League of Nations?
(1) Lloyd George
(2) Orlando
(3) Clemenceau
(4) Woodrow Wilson

Answer: (4) Woodrow Wilson

Question 15. The League of Nations was formed after
(1) First Balkan War
(2) World War I
(3) 2nd Balkan War
(4) World War II

Answer: (2) World War I

Question 16. What was the date and year of Bloody Sunday?
(1) 9 January 1905
(2) 12 January 1905
(3) 4 April 1906
(4) 9 August 1906

Answer: (1) 9 January 1905

Question 17. Rasputin was a
(1) Minister
(2) Czar of Russia
(3) Mystic Saint
(4) Close relative of Czar

Answer: (3) Mystic Saint

Question 18. Bolshevik Revolution was led by
(1) Stalin
(2) Lenin
(3) Trotsky
(4) None of them

Answer: (2) Lenin

Question 19. Nazism cropped up after the First World War in
(1) Italy
(2) Spain
(3) Russia
(4) Germany

Answer: (4) Germany

Question 20. Hitler became the Prime Minister of Germany in
(1) 1931
(2) 1932
(3) 1933
(4) 1934

Answer: (3) 1933

Question 21. Who was known as ‘Czar the Liberator’ ?
(1) Czar Alexander II
(2) Czar Nicholas II
(3) Czar Alexander III
(4) Czar Nicholas III

Answer: (2) Czar Alexander II

Question 22. Hitler concluded Non-Aggression Pact with
(1) England
(2) France
(3) Russia
(4) Italy

Answer: (3) Russia

Question 23. Achduke Francis Ferdinand was assassinated in
(1) Bosnia
(2) Serajevo
(3) Herzegovnia
(4) Poland

Answer: (2) Serajevo

Question 24. The leadership in the march to St. Petersburg by the workers was given by
(1) Stalin
(2) Father Gapon
(3) Trotsky
(4) Lenin

Answer: (2) Father Gapon

Question 25. The Great Depression of 1929 first started in
(1) Germany
(2) America
(3) France
(4) Spain

Answer: (2) America

Question 26. The members of the Fascist party were known as
(1) Red Shirts
(2) Brown Shirts
(3) Black Shirts
(4) Blue Shirts

Answer: (3) Black Shirts

Question 27. Swastika was the symbol of the
(1) Nazi Party
(2) Fascist Party
(3) Communist Party
(4) Socialist Party

Answer: (1) Nazi Party

Question 28. The leader of the Spanish Civil War was
(1) Goebels
(2) Hitler
(3) General Franco
(4) Himmler

Answer: (3) General Franco

Question 29. The Central Powers of World War I were
(1) France, Britain and Russia
(2) Russia, Italy and Romania
(3) Germany, Austria and Turkey
(4) Italy, France and Britain

Answer: (3) Germany, Austria and Turkey

Question 30. Germany was declared a ‘republic’ by the provisional Government set up under
(1) The leadership of Hitler
(2) The Chancellorship of Ebert
(3) The viceroyalty of Mussolini
(4) The Chancellorship of Lenin

Answer: (2) The Chancellorship of Ebert

Question 31. The Russian Revolution of 1917 brought an end to
(1) The autocratic rule of the Czar
(2) The rule of the Fascists in Russia
(3) Monarchical rule in Russia
(4) Democracy in Russia

Answer: (1) The autocratic rule of the Czar.

Question 32. A parallel Government was set up in St. Petersburg by
(1) The Kerensky Government
(2) Social Democratic Party of Russia
(3) The Mensheviks
(4) The Bolsheviks

Answer: (4) The Bolsheviks.

Question 33. The Treaty of Brest Litovsk was signed between Germany and
(1) The federal Government of Russia
(2) The independent Government of Russia
(3) The communist Government of Russia
(4) The democratic Government of Russia

Answer: (3) The communist Government of Russia

Question 34. USSR joined the League of Nations in 1934 but was expelled
(1) For aggression in 1939 when it invaded Finland
(2) When it invaded Abyssinia
(3) Because it lacked the power to solve disputes
(4) It was the root of Great Depression

Answer: (1) For aggression in 1939 when it invaded Finland

Question 35. The immediate cause of the First World War was
(1) The formation of secret and diplomatic alliances among the European powers
(2) The rise of the feeling of ultra-nationalism
(3) The problem of Bosnia-Herzegovina
(4) Because the murder of Archduke Francis Ferdinand

Answer: (4) Because the murder of Archduke Francis Ferdinand

Question 36. The League of Nations was established
(1) To find a way to maintain peace
(2) To end the First World War
(3) To try and improve the condition of the labourers
(4) To settle the dispute that arose between Sweden and Finland

Answer: (1) To find a way to maintain peace.

Question 37. One characteristic feature of the New Economic Policy of Lenin was
(1) Encouragement to artisan industry
(2) Emphasis on large scale heavy industry
(3) Special detachment sent to collect foodgrains
(4) Industrial establishment factory committee formed

Answer: (1) Encouragement to artisan industry

Question 38. America joined the First World War because
(1) American ships were destroyed by Germany
(2) Germany conquered America
(3) Germany joined France against America
(4) England pressurised America to join

Answer: (1) American ships were destroyed by Germany.

Question 39. By the Treaty of Versailles Germany was demilitarised
(1) To establish balance of power
(2) To take control of German arms
(3) So that Germany could not disturb peace in future
(4) So that Germany would not declare war against the allied powers

Answer: (3) So that Germany could not disturb peace in future.

Question 40. Which policy shows that appeasement does not always prevent war ?
(1) United States policy towards Cuba in the early 1960s
(2) Iraqi policy towards Iran in the 1980s
(3) British policy towards Germany during 1930s
(4) French policy towards Indo-China in the 1950s

Answer: (3) British policy towards Germany during 1930s

Question 41. The harsh conditions imposed by the Treaty of Versailles after World War I helped to lay the foundation for the
(1) Uprising during the French Revolution
(2) Bolshevik Revolution in Russia
(3) Rise of fascism in Germany
(4) Division of Korea along the 38th parallel

Answer: (3) Rise of fascism in Germany.

Question 42. One reason the Fascist Government of Adolf Hitler and Benito Mussolini came to power in Italy and Germany was that these nations
(1) Supported the civil liberties of people
(2) Faced economic and political difficulties
(3) Were threatened by the United States of America
(4) Failed to join the League of Nations

Answer: (2) Faced economic and political difficulties

Question 43. A major cause of the Russian Revolution of 1917 was the
(1) Appeal of Marxism to the Russians
(2) Defeat of Germany in the Russian campaign
(3) Existence of sharp economic differences between social classes
(4) Marriage of Czar Nicholas II to a German princess

Answer: (3) Existence of sharp economic differences between social classes

Question 44. The Russian peasants supported the Bolsheviks in the Russian Revolution of 1917 because the Bolsheviks promised to
(1) Redistribute the land owned by the nobility
(2) Introduce modern technology to Russian farms
(3) Redistribute the land owned by the Government
(4) Establish collection farms

Answer: (1) Redistribute the land owned by the Government

Question 45. A significant cause of the Great Depression of 1929 was that
(1) Some banking policies were unsound and had led to the over-expansion of credit
(2) Consumer goods were relatively inexpensive
(3) A wave of strikes had paralyzed the industries
(4) A decrease in protective tariff opened America to competition from abroad

Answer: (1) some banking policies were unsound and had led to the over-expansion of credit.

Question 46. During the First World War, the Emperor of Germany was
(1) Charles X
(2) Kaiser William II
(3) Frederick William IIT
(4) Kaiser William IIT

Answer: (2) Kaiser William II

Question 47. After the First World War, the humiliating treaty which was imposed on Germany was the Treaty of
(1) Brest-Litovsk
(2) Versailles
(3) Lussane
(4) Sevres

Answer: (2) Versailles

Question 48. People of the Weimer Republic lost confidence in the democratic
(1) Alliance
(2) Parliamentary
(3) Values
(4) Attitude

Answer: (2) Parliamentary

Question 49. After the First World War; the new Republican Government of Germany was established in
(1) Berlin
(2) Weimer
(3) Brussels
(4) Sicily

Answer: (2) Weimer

Question 50. By the October Revolution of 1917 they captured power in Russia.
(1) Mesheviks
(2) Bolsheviks
(3) Communists
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2) Bolsheviks

Question 51. The Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed between Germany and
(1) Britain
(2) Italy
(3) Russia
(4) Spain

Answer: (3) Russia

Question 52. The Red Army was organized by
(1) Stalin
(2) Trotsky
(3) Lenin
(4) Engels

Answer: (2) Trotsky

Question 53. The New Economic Policy of Lenin was a compromise between Socialism and
(1) Capitalism
(2) Communism
(3) Nazism
(4) Fascism

Answer: (1) Capitalism

Question 54. The Great Depression was a period of
(1) Political crisis
(2) Economic crisis
(3) Religious crisis
(4) Global Crisis
Answer: (2) Economic crisis

Question 55. General Franco was the dictator of
(1) Netherlands
(2) Sardinia
(3) Sicily
(4) Spain

Answer: (4) Spain

Question 56. The SAAR Valley was put under an international commission for
(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 16
Answer: (3) 15

Question 57. The Treaty of St. Germain was signed between the victorious allies and defeated Austria in
(1) 1916
(2) 1918
(3) 1919
(4) 1920

Answer: (3) 1919

Question 58. The Revolution of 1905 in Russia broke out during the reign of
(1) Czar Alexander II
(2) Nicholas I
(3) Peter the Great
(4) Catherine II

Answer: (1) Czar Alexander II

Question 59. The Treaty of Portsmouth was signed between Japan and
(1) China
(2) France
(3) Russia
(4) Italy

Answer: (3) Russia

Question 61. ‘Pravda’ was the mouthpiece of the party.
(1) Menshevik
(2) Bolshevik
(3) Communist
(4) Socialist

Answer: (2) Bolshevik

Question 62. formed the paramilitary force known as ‘Storm Trooper’.
(1) General Franco
(2) Mussolini
(3) Hitler
(4) Tojo

Answer: (3) Hitler

Question 63. The Treaty contained the seeds of the Second World War.
(1) Trianon
(2) Neuilly
(3) Versailles
(4) Portsmouth

Answer: (3) Versailles

Question 64. Morocco is in
(1) Africa
(2) America
(3) China
(4) Japan

Answer: (1) Africa

Question 65. The two factions of Social Democratic Party are the Bolsheviks and
(1) Communists
(2) Mensheviks
(3) Socialists
(4) Bonapartists

Answer: (2) Mensheviks

Question 66. Czar showed his liberalism by releasing the Dekabrists.
(1) Alexander I
(2) Alexander II
(3) Nicholas I
(4) Nicholas II

Answer: (2) Alexander II

Question 67. The Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis was signed in
(1) 1932
(2) 1933
(3) 1934
(4) 1935

Answer: (1) 1932

Question 68. Kaiser William II abdicated the throne in
(1) 1916
(2) 1917
(3) 1918
(4) 1919

Answer: (3) 1918

Question 69.  The Weimer Republic was established in
(1) 1915
(2) 1916
(3) 1918
(4) 1919

Answer: (4) 1919

Question 70. The U.S.A. entered the First World War in
(1) 1917
(2) 1918
(3) 1919
(4) 1920
Answer: (1) 1917

Question 71. Herbert Hoover was the President of
(1) Britain
(2) America
(3) France
(4) USSR

Answer: (2) America

Question 72. Archduke Francis Ferdinand was the heir to the throne of
(1) Spain
(2) Austria
(3) Bosnia
(4) Herzegovina

Answer: (2) Austria

Question 73. was called the ‘Father of the League of Nations’.
(1) Llyod George
(2) Woodrow Wilson
(3) Gorky
(4) Clemenceau

Answer: (2) Woodrow Wilson

Question 74. ‘War Communism’ was introduced by
(1) Trotsky
(2) Lenin
(3) Franco
(4) Hitler

Answer: (2) Lenin

Question 75. The American share market crashed.
(1) 1928
(2) 1929
(3) 1930
(4) 1932

Answer: (2) 1929

Question 76. is known as the Black Day in the history of the U.S.A.
(1) 24 October 1929
(2) 26 October 1929
(3) 22 October 1939
(4) 25 June 1930

Answer: (1) 24 October  1929