Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Notes

Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Introduction

If you hold your breath, even for a few seconds, you will gasp for air. Thus, breathing is an indispensable process in our body.

Through breathing, we take in oxygen. It reaches the cells and oxidises organic food substances to release energy.

This is called respiration also known as cellular respiration. The organ system concerned with breathing and respiration is called the respiratory system.

Breathing

Breathing Definition: The process by which air from the environment enters the body and after an exchange of gases in the tissues, goes out of the body is known as breathing.

Breathing is also known as ventilation.

Breathing Stages: There are two stages of breathing—

  1. Inspiration— intake of air from the environment into the body;
  2. Expiration— release of air from the body to the environment.

Breathing Importance: Breathing helps in the intake of oxygen from the environment into the body (specifically into the lungs of terrestrial animals including humans), through inspiration.

Within the lungs, the gaseous exchange takes place and carbon dioxide is released from the body into the environment through expiration.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Differences Between Cellular Respiration And Breathing

Respiratory Organs In Animals

Respiratory organs have evolved in animals according to their physical requirement and adaptation to the environment. According to their requirement, these organs are of various types. The following table shows various types of respiratory organs in different organisms.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Respiratory Organs Of Some Animals

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Amoeba

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Hydra

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Respiratory System In Cockroach

Respiratory Organs In Human Beings

The organ system of the human body through which the exchange of gases occurs between the body and the environment is called the respiratory system.

Components of the respiratory system: The organs and structures of the human respiratory system are—

  1. Nostrils and nasal passage,
  2. Pharynx
  3. Larynx,
  4. Trachea,
  5. Bronchi and bronchioles
  6. Lungs

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Human respiratory System

Nostril And Nasal Passage

Nostril And Nasal Passage Definition: The openings by which the nose opens outward are known as nostrils or external nares and two cavities that extend from the external nares to the pharynx at the posterior end is called nasal passage or nasal cavity

Nostril And Nasal Passage Structural Features:

  1. Nostrils or external nares are present as two small openings at the base of the nose.
  2. The two openings through which nasal passages are connected to the pharynx are called internal nares.
  3. Each nostril leads into a nasal passage. The two nasal passages are separated from each other by a cartilaginous partition called nasal septum.
  4. Each nasal passage or cavity is divided into three parts— the lower vestibular region, middle respiratory region and upper olfactory region.
  5. The dilated chamber inside the nasal cavity is the vestibule. The inner surface of the vestibular region is made up of stratified squamous epithelium.
  6. This surface contains sebaceous glands and nose hairs (vibrissae) which serve to filter out inhaled particulates.
  7. The next region is the middle region called the respiratory region. The walls of the respiratory region are lined with respiratory mucosa. This respiratory mucosa is made up of pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium containing mucous cells.
  8. The mucous cells produce mucus, while the serous cells produce a watery fluid containing an anti-bacterial enzyme.
  9. The respiratory region is highly vascular and hence appears reddish. This region helps to condition the inhaled air.
  10. The upper region of the nasal chamber is called an olfactory region. The wall of this region is lined by olfactory epithelium.
  11. The olfactory region appears yellowish-brown in colour. It helps to detect the odour of the inspired air.

Nostril And Nasal Passage Functions:

  1. The nostrils and nasal passages provide a pathway for the air to enter the body.
  2. The nose and nasal cavity filter and clean any foreign particles present in the inhaled air.
  3. These particles get stuck into the mucus, which prevents them from entering the lungs.

Pharynx

Pharynx Definition: The tube-like structure that connects posterior nasal and oral cavities to the larynx and oesophagus is known as the pharynx.

It extends from the base of the skull to the level of the sixth cervical vertebrae.

Pharynx Structural features:

  1. The pharynx is the common part of both the digestive and respiratory systems. Its length is approximately 12-14 cm.
  2. Structurally, the pharynx can be divided into three parts according to its location. These three parts are nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.
  3. The nasopharynx is located between the internal nares and the soft palate and lies superior to the oral cavity.
  4. The oropharynx is a space present between the soft palate and the root of the tongue that extends inferiorly as far as the hyoid bone. The palatine and lingual tonsils are present in this region.
  5. The laryngopharynx is the part of the throat that connects to the oesophagus. It is located between the mouth and sixth cervical vertebrae. The superior boundary of this structure is at the level of the hyoid bone.
  6. The ventral face of the pharynx possesses an opening known as the glottis. Through this opening pharynx is connected with the larynx.
  7. The anterior part of the glottis has a cartilaginous outgrowth, known as epiglottis. When food is swallowed, epiglottis prevents food from entering the larynx by covering the glottis as a lid.
  8. The upper part of the pharynx contains a small muscular structure known as the uvula.

Pharynx Functions:

  1. The pharynx serves as a pathway for both the digestive system and respiratory system since both food and air passes through it.
  2. The surface of the nasopharynx is covered with pseudostratified ciliated epithelium tissue. It filters the inhaled air.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases upper respiratory tract

The Larynx

The Larynx Definition: The cartilaginous structure located between the pharynx and the trachea that helps to produce sound is called the larynx.

Larynx Structural features:

  1. The larynx is a cartilaginous triangular box whose apex, known as the Adam’s apple in males, is visible at the front of the neck. The larynx is also known as the voice box. The size of the larynx is larger in men at puberty than in females. For an adult male, it is 4.5 cm but for a female, it is 3.5 cm.
  2. The laryngeal skeleton is composed of nine cartilages—three unpaired (thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottis) and three paired (arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform) that are connected by membranes and ligaments.
  3. The thyroid cartilage is larger in size. It has two parts or laminae. A clear groove is visible between the two laminae, known as the thyroid notch.
  4. The upper part of the larynx bears a ‘U’ shaped bone known as hyoid bone. This bone remains connected with the larynx by a flat, extended membrane.
  5. Ligaments of the larynx are paired. The upper two pairs are known as ventricular folds (also known as false vocal cords) and the lower two pairs are known as vocal folds.
  6. The vocal folds are responsible for producing sound. These are known as vocal cords. During expiration, air comes out through the vocal cord creating vibrations which produce sound.
  7. Below vocal folds, the epithelium is of pseudostratified ciliated columnar type. Here, the action of the cilia directs mucus movement upward towards the pharynx. This helps in removing mucus from the lungs.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Structure Of Larynx

Larynx Functions:

  1. The ciliated mucous lining of the larynx has the ability to remove foreign particles and to warm and moisten the inhaled air.
  2. The other important function of the larynx is sound generation (phonation).

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Different Between Pharynx And Larynx

Trachea

Trachea Definition: The membranous tube-like structure, surrounded by rings of cartilage and extends from the posterior end of the larynx to the bronchial tubes and conveys air to and from the lungs, is known as the trachea or windpipe.

Trachea Structural Features:

  1. The trachea is a rigid tube, about 12 cm long and 2.5 cm in diameter.
  2. The trachea is encircled by 16-20, C-shaped cartilaginous rings, made up of hyaline cartilage.
  3. Posteriorly, it has a flat band of muscle and elastic connective tissue. This is called the posterior tracheal membrane. It closes the C-shaped rings.
  4. The cartilaginous rings hold and support the trachea preventing it from collapsing in the absence of air. However, it also provides some flexibility for any neck movement.
  5. The tracheal mucosa consists of pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium tissue. The mucous layer has goblet cells that secrete mucus. Its submucosa contains cartilage, smooth muscle and seromucous glands.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Incomplete rings Of Cartilage Of Trachea

Trachea Functions: The ciliated epithelium of the trachea washes out the mucus-containing debris towards the pharynx. This prevents their accumulation in the lungs.

On coughing, the wall of the trachea contracts, narrowing its diameter. Therefore, coughing causes air to move out faster through the trachea, thus expelling mucus and foreign objects.

Bronchi

Bronchi Definition: The two channels, formed by the branching of the trachea and leading to the lungs at the level of the 5th thoracic vertebra, are known as bronchi.

Bronchi Structural features:

  1. The two primary bronchi arise from bifurcation of the trachea. The right bronchus is wider (2.5 cm), shorter in length and more vertical than the left bronchus. Its length is approximately 5 cm.
  2. Each bronchus continues for 2 to 3 cm and enters the hilum (a slit in the lung) of each lung, respectively. Like the trachea, the primary bronchi are also surrounded by C-shaped hyaline cartilages.
  3. The main right bronchus (primary bronchus) is further subdivided into three secondary bronchi while the main left bronchus (primary bronchus) divides into two secondary bronchi.
  4. Each of the secondary bronchus again divides into branches forming tertiary bronchi and finally smaller terminal bronchi.
  5. The divisions of the respiratory passageways are known as the bronchial tree.
  6. The bronchial tree has a substantial amount of elastic connective tissue, which is important in expelling air from the lungs. The inner wall of the bronchus possesses ciliated epithelium.

Functions: Bronchi carry the air from the trachea, all the way to the alveolar air sacs.

Tracheobronchial tree

The structure consisting of the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles that form the airways in the upper part of the lung is called a tracheobronchial tree. It is referred to as a tree because its branching pattern resembles that of a tree.

Bronchioles

Bronchioles Definition: The numerous branches into which a bronchus divides are known as bronchioles.

Structural features:

The bronchioles are of three types, each becoming progressively smaller in size. These are—

  1. Lobular
  2. Terminal bronchioles,
  3. Respiratory bronchioles.
  4. The terminal or transitional bronchioles divide into respiratory bronchioles. Apart from air conduction, they are also involved in gaseous exchange between blood and air.
  5. These respiratory bronchioles divide further into smaller branches to form alveolar ducts.
  6. The terminal end of these ducts forms a sac-like structure known as alveoli (singular: alveolus).
  7. Human lungs contain approximately 300-500 million alveoli.
  8. Bronchioles are lined with muscular walls.

Bronchi Functions:

  1. The bronchioles conduct air from the bronchi to the alveoli. They also regulate the amount of air that passes through the lungs during inspiration and expiration.
  2. The lobular and terminal bronchioles are known as dead space—as no gaseous exchange occurs in these places.
  3. The respiratory zone begins with the respiratory bronchioles, leading to the alveoli where the exchange of gases takes place.
  4. There are very small alveoli present at certain points on the wall of the respiratory bronchiole. These help to carry out gaseous exchange within the respiratory bronchioles.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Division Of human Respiratory Tract On The Basis Of Functions

Bronchi Conducting and Respiratory zones

The airways beyond the larynx can be divided into two zones. The conducting zone extends from the top of the trachea to the beginning of the respiratory bronchioles.

It contains no alveoli and so, no gaseous exchange with blood occurs. The respiratory zone extends downwards starting from the respiratory bronchioles. It contains alveoli and is the region where gas exchange occurs with the blood.

Lungs

Lungs Definition: The paired, cone-shaped spongy organs required for breathing, present on both sides of the human heart in the thoracic cavity are known as lungs.

Lungs Structural features:

  1. Lungs occupy a considerable portion of the thoracic cavity. A muscular partition called the diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.
  2. The lungs do not fill the entire rib cage. Most of the space within the rib cage, inferior to the lungs, is occupied by organs like the liver, stomach and spleen.
  3. The right lung is divided by an oblique fissure and a horizontal fissure into three lobes—superior, middle and inferior.
  4. The left lung is divided by an oblique fissure into two lobes—superior and inferior. Each lobe is subdivided into lobules, and each lobule contains a bronchiole serving many alveoli.
  5. The left lung is slightly smaller than the right lung. The anterior part of the left lung has an indentation called the cardiac notch to accommodate the heart.
  6. Lungs are enclosed within a thin, transparent, double-layered membrane called pleura. The space between the two layers of pleurae is called the pleural cavity.
  7. The pleural cavity is filled with a film of watery fluid, called the pleural fluid.
  8. The space between the pleural sacs of the two lungs is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity. This is called the mediastinum.
  9. Bronchus, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves enter into the lungs through a slit in the mediastinal surface of the lungs, called the hilum.
  10. The outer pleural layer (attached to the chest wall) is called the parietal pleura, while the inner layer (attached to the surface of the lung) is called the visceral pleura.

Functions of pleurae and pleural fluid

Lungs Reduce friction: Pleural fluid acts as a lubricant that enables the lungs to expand and contract with minimal friction.

Creation of pressure gradient: Pressure in the pleural cavity is lower than atmospheric pressure. This creates a pressure gradient, which actually assists in the inflation of the lungs.

Compartmentalisation: Pleurae, mediastinum and pericardium compartmentalise the thoracic organiser This compartment formation prevents the spreading of infections to another organiser

The inner wall of the lungs is lined by numerous alveoli. It lacks any cartilage or smooth muscle. The wall of the alveoli and alveolar duct is lined by a single layer of squamous epithelial tissue.

The cells that remain lining the alveoli are called pneumocytes which include four types of cells, such as—

Type 1 alveolar cell: The walls of alveoli are mainly composed of these cells. These are flat and elongated cells with extremely thin cytoplasm and flattened nuclei. They are mainly involved in gaseous exchange. It occupies around 95% of the surface area of the alveolus,

Type 2 alveolar cells: It occupies around 2% of the surface area. These cells are small, cuboidal cells that are usually found scattered in the squamous epithelium of the alveolus.

Type 2 cells secrete a detergent-like lipoprotein called pulmonary surfactant. This surfactant forms a thin film inside the alveoli and bronchioles. It is also responsible for regeneration of the normal alveolar structure subsequent to injury,

Type 3 alveolar cells: They are also known as brush cells, due to their characteristic appearance under the electron microscope. These cells remain scattered throughout the lungs, closely associated with nerves.

Type 3 cells may function as chemoreceptors.

Macrophage cells: These cells kill pathogens that enter the respiratory system.

Function Of Alveolar Or Pulmonary Surfactant

  • Pulmonary surfactant is a lipoprotein complex produced by type II alveolar cells. The surfactant reduces the surface tension of the alveoli.
  • As a result, alveoli do not collapse due to surface tension, even though, they are very small in size. The alveoli can, thus, always remain open, to make breathing easier.
  • Moreover, due to the reduction in surface tension, fluid cannot enter the alveoli from the surrounding blood capillaries. In this way, surfactant prevents pulmonary oedema.
  • The most studied surfactant protein is SP-A, which is mostly found in Clara cells (dome-shaped cells with short microvilli, found in bronchioles) and Type II alveolar cells.

Macrophage cells Functions:

  • Lungs are the main components of the respiratory system, as they carry out the gaseous exchange (which takes place within the alveoli).
  • Lungs may also release certain useful substances into the blood. Some of these substances play local regulatory roles within the lungs.
  • Lungs also act as a “sieve” that traps and dissolves small blood clots generated in the systemic circulation. Thus, the lungs prevent them from reaching the systemic arterial blood.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Pulmonary Alveoli

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Diseases Related To Pleura Of Lungs

Mechanism Of Breathing And Its Regulation In Humans

The mechanism of breathing involves oxygen-rich air entering the alveoli within the lungs and carbon dioxide from the alveoli being expelled out of the body.

Bones And Muscles Associated With Breathing

During breathing, the bones of the rib cage that play major roles, are—

  1. Sternum, present at the front of the rib cage,
  2. 12 thoracic vertebrae and
  3. 12 pairs of ribs.

The muscles that are necessary to carry out breathing are called respiratory muscles. The main respiratory muscles are—

  1. Diaphragm And
  2. Intercostal Muscles

Diaphragm

  • Thin, dome-shaped muscle, attached to the lower ribs and vertebral column is the diaphragm. When the diaphragm contracts, it moves downward which increases the vertical dimensions of the chest cavity and inspiration occurs.
  • The diameter of the thorax also increases as the ribs are lifted outward.
  • During expiration, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upward which decreases the volume of the chest cavity. Generally, in normal breathing, the diaphragm moves about 1 cm.
  • It may move up to 10 cm during forced expiration. Paralysis of the diaphragm causes paradoxical movement.
  • During this movement, the diaphragm moves up rather than down, with inspiration. This occurs when a person sniffs.
  • The phrenic nerve is the nerve associated with the diaphragm, that controls its functioning.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Diaphragm

Intercostal muscles

Muscles associated with the rib cage are called intercostal muscles. There are 11 pairs of internal intercostal muscles and 11 pairs of external intercostal muscles, located adjacently, at an angle of 90° to each other.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Intercostal Muscles

External Intercostal Muscles: Due to the action of these muscles, ribs move upward and forward at the time of contraction of the muscles during inhalation.

Cough and sneeze

These are a type of reflex action controlled by the nervous system. Generally, a sneeze occurs when the inner surface of nasal passages gets stimulated or irritated and a cough occurs when the inner surface of the trachea gets stimulated.

Hiccup

A hiccup is a sudden inspiration due to the contraction of the diaphragm. This phenomenon is observed when the phrenic nerve of the diaphragm becomes stimulated.

During this sudden inspiration, the air strikes the vocal cord, which produces the sound.

Internal Intercostal Muscles: The action of these muscles pulls the ribs downward and inward (antagonistic function to external intercostal muscles) during Exhalation.

Mechanism Of Breathing

There are two stages of breathing—inspiration and expiration. The mechanism of breathing is discussed on the basis of these two stages.

Inspiration

Inspiration Definition: The active phase of breathing in which O2 rich atmospheric air enters into alveoli is called inspiration.

Inspiration Mechanism:

The diaphragm is dome-shaped in its relaxed state. During deep inspiration, it contracts and i move downward.

Simultaneously, the external intercostal muscles contract and the rib cage moves upward and outward.

Due to the contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles, the volume of the thoracic cavity increases.

The sternum moves upward and forward. This also causes a further increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity.

An increase in the thoracic cavity increases intrathoracic pressure by 3 mm Hg with respect to atmospheric pressure.

The lungs expand as the thoracic volume increases. As a result, a partial vacuum is generated in the alveoli, since the air pressure within the alveoli decreases.

As the alveolar pressure is now less than atmospheric pressure (air pressure outside the lungs), air naturally flows into the Alveoli, Via the respiratory passages.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Inspiration And Expiration

Expiration

Expiration Definition: The passive phase of breathing, in which CO2 rich air is expelled from alveoli to the atmosphere is called expiration.

Expiration Mechanism:

  1. During expiration, the thoracic wall and lungs recoil due to their elastic properties.
  2. The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles move upward and relax. As a result, the rib cage and sternum move down and inward.
  3. Contraction of internal intercostal muscles moves the rib cage and sternum more downward and inward.
  4. This causes a reduction in the thoracic cavity volume.
  5. The intrapulmonary pressure in the alveoli increases by 3 mm Hg with respect to the atmospheric pressure. Then, CO2 rich air flows through respiratory passages and is expelled out.

Path Of Expiration

CO2 rich air → alveoli → alveolar duct → bronchiole bronchi → trachea → larynx → open glottis → internal nares pharynx → nasal passage → external nares.

Inspired Air, Expried Air, Alveolar Air

Inspired air

Inspired air Definition: The volume of air taken in the respiratory system under resting conditions, during normal inspiration or forceful inspiration, is called inspired air.

Volume: A person can normally inspire 500 ml of air under resting conditions, but the volume increases to 3500 ml during forceful inspiration.

Expired air

Expired air Definition: The volume of air released by the respiratory system under resting conditions, during normal expiration or forceful expiration, is called expired air.

Volume: A person can normally expire 500 ml of air under resting conditions, but the volume increases to 1000 ml or 1500 ml during forceful expiration.

Alveolar air

Alveolar air Definition: The volume of air that enters the alveoli, located in both the lungs, during inspiration, is called alveolar air.

Volume: During normal inspiration, out of the 500 ml of inspired air, 150 ml remains as anatomical dead space air and the remaining 350 ml enters the alveoli.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Different Constituents Of Air

Regulation Of Breathing

Unlike all other organ systems, the respiratory system demonstrates both involuntary as well as voluntary modulation. We breathe involuntarily, but we can willingly modify our breathing pattern.

We can hold our breath up to a certain point called “breaking point.” Beyond this point, we can no longer hold our breath.

Our breathing pattern is also modulated by the activities of speech and singing. Respiration is regulated by two mechanisms— The nervous or neural mechanism and the Chemical mechanism.

Nervous mechanism

The nervous mechanism involves respiratory centres and afferent and efferent nerves. The respiratory centres are stimulated by impulses received from various receptors.

Respiratory centres: The rhythmic pattern of breathing is carried out by four separate respiratory centres, located in the medulla oblongata and pons.

These centres in the medulla are divided into the Dorsal Respiratory Group (DRG) and the Ventral Respiratory Group (VRG). The respiratory centres in the pons are the pneumatic centre and the apneustic centre.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Respiratory Centers

Dorsal respiratory groups (DRG): Dorsal group of respiratory neurons (DRG), also known as the inspiratory centre, is located in the dorsal part of the medulla oblongata. Apart from their voluntary control over respiration DRG centre, is located in the dorsal part of the medulla oblongata.

Apart from their voluntary control over respiration DRG also has a role in controlling speaking, crying, laughing, singing and other physical activities. However, the impulses originating from the DRG neurons are primarily responsible for inspiration.

Inspiration is initiated by a rhythmical on-off pattern. During the “on” part of the cycle, neurons in the DRG cause the inspiratory muscles to contract. This, in turn, initiates inspiration.

During the I “off” part of respiratory cycles, the neurons from the DRG stop sending impulses.

The inspiratory muscles relax and passive expiration occurs.

Ventral respiratory groups (VRG): The VRG, also known as the expiratory centre, is located in the central part of the medulla. It consists of both inspiratory and expiratory neurons. Although it receives nerve impulses from DRG, it is mainly responsible for expiration.

Apneustic centre: It is located in the posterior part of the pons. It has a stimulatory effect on the inspiratory centre. Thus, it lengthens inspiration by preventing inspiratory neurons from being “switched off”. This is accomplished by providing a constant stimulus to continue inspiration.

Pneumotaxic centre: It is located in the anterior part of the pons. It is a collection of neurons called the pontine respiratory group. Its primary role is to decrease inspiration or “switch off” the inspiratory neurons and initiate expiration.

It inhibits the impulses from the apneustic centre, which helps to slow inspiration and control the rate of respiration. Chemical control mechanism Chemical control of breathing is carried out by chemoreceptors.

The chemoreceptors are sensory nerve endings that are stimulated by changes in the chemical composition of blood. These changes in the composition of blood may be due to changes in the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

There are two groups of chemoreceptors—central and peripheral chemoreceptors. The central chemoreceptor is in the central nervous system. The other group, the peripheral chemoreceptor, is located in the periphery of the body and is exposed to the arterial blood.

Central chemoreceptor: These are specialised cells, present on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata. At rest, most respiratory responses are mediated by these central chemoreceptors.

These cells are sensitive to CO2-induced changes in hydrogen ion concentration in the brain interstitial fluid.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Central Chemoreceptors

Hydrogen ion is not able to cross the blood-brain barrier but CO2 can. This CO2 enter into the CSF and reacts with a water molecule to form carbonic acid. Carbonic acid is broken down into H+ and HC03″.

So, increasing CO2 concentration in blood also increases H+ concentration in CSF. The CSF has a very small amount of buffers; the excess of hydrogen ions (or low pH) in the CSF stimulates the central chemoreceptor in the medulla.

As a result, respiratory rate and tidal volume increase to decrease acidity (i.e., increased pH). The remaining carbon dioxide is exhaled into the atmosphere.

The arterial partial pressure of CO2 ( Pco ) and hydrogen ion concentration of the CSF return to normal to maintain homeostasis of the gases.

In contrast, if the level of CO2 and hydrogen ion concentration is low, then the respiratory rate decreases. This allows the concentration of CO2 and H+ in the blood to increase.

Peripheral chemoreceptors: These are located in the arch of the aorta (aortic bodies) and in the bifurcation of carotid arteries (carotid bodies) in the neck.

They sense changes in pcO2 and H+ concentration in the arterial blood. If pCO2 and H+ concentrations increase (with a decrease in pH), the peripheral chemoreceptors sense hypoxia in the arterial blood.

The glossopharyngeal nerve carries the impulses from the carotid bodies, while the vagus nerve carries those from the aortic bodies.

This network of neurons in the medullary respiratory centre sends signals through motor neurons to the respiratory muscles.

These signals help to restore Pco to a relatively constant level. This is done by increasing the rate of respiration to increase carbon dioxide elimination from the body and increase blood pH.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Peripheral Chemoreceptors

Exchange Of Gases

The exchange of gases takes place inside the lungs and in the tissues. Transportation of sufficient O2 from the lungs to the tissues is carried out by both the respiratory and circulatory systems simultaneously.

O2 is transported to the tissues, CO2 is transported from the tissues to the blood and eventually exhaled by the lungs.

Unique transport mechanisms not only enable these two processes (O2 uptake and CO2 release) to occur simultaneously, but they also facilitate each other. This exchange of gases in the tissues occurs by simple diffusion.

Exchange Of Gases In Lungs

The exchange of gases in the lungs occurs through two steps, which are discussed below. Entry of oxygen from alveolar air to pulmonary capillaries Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood (arterial blood) contains 19-20 ml of oxygen and 100 ml of deoxygenated blood (venous blood) contains 14-15 ml of oxygen.

Therefore, the average difference in oxygen content between the arterial and venous blood is approximately 4.5 ml.

Hence, it is to be noted that during the circulation of blood in pulmonary capillaries, approximately 4.5 ml of oxygen (per 100 ml) from the alveolar air diffuses to pulmonary capillaries.

The partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in alveolar air is 104 mm Hg. But PO2 in deoxygenated blood of pulmonary capillaries is 40 mm Hg. Due to this difference, oxygen diffuses through the squamous epithelium layer of the alveolus and enters into the blood of pulmonary capillaries.

This process of diffusion continues until PO2 in pulmonary capillaries increases to 100-104 mm Hg.

But, generally, this does not happen because some amount of oxygen gets absorbed by the alveolar tissue layer. So, the PO2 in pulmonary capillaries is approximately 90-95 mm Hg.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Gaseous Exchange Between Alveolar Air And Blood In Lung Capillaries

Pulmonary shunt

Pulmonary shunt occurs when the alveoli and lungs are perfused with blood but due to some reason gaseous exchange (ventilation) cannot take place.So the pulmonary shunt is a route through which blood perfuses unventilated shunt.

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

Carbon monoxide has 250 times more affinity towards haemoglobin than oxygen. In the presence of carbon monoxide, haemoglobin reacts fast and forms a carboxyhaemoglobin compound. [CO + Hb = CO.Hb].

As a result, the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood reduces and oxygen content decreases in tissues (hypoxia).

This results in increased CO2 content (asphyxia) and may prove fatal. Generally, igniting a fire or stove in a closed room causes incomplete combustion, leading to the formation of carbon monoxide. This CO2 combines with the blood, causing carbon monoxide poisoning.

A person affected by carbon monoxide poisoning is treated by supplying a mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide. This mixture helps to bind haemoglobin, thereby releasing carbon monoxide from haemoglobin.

Release of carbon dioxide from pulmonary capillaries to alveolar air

Every 100 ml deoxygenated blood contains 52 ml carbon dioxide in different forms, such as bicarbonate (in red blood cells and blood plasma), carbamino compound and a smaller amount in dissolved state.

During the circulation of blood in pulmonary capillaries, 5 ml of carbon dioxide per 100 ml of deoxygenated blood is released in the alveoli.

The PcO2 of deoxygenated blood is approximately 45-46 mm Hg. However, the Pco of alveolar air is approximately 40 mm Hg. Due to this difference, carbon dioxide from deoxygenated blood diffuses into alveoli.

Exchange Of Gases In Other Parts Of The Body

The exchange of gases in other parts of the body occurs through two steps, which are discussed below.

Entry of oxygen from blood capillaries to its associated tissues

Oxygen enters the associated tissues from the blood capillaries in the following steps—

  1. At first, oxygen from oxygenated blood in capillaries of different body parts diffuses in plasma and then to associated viable cells.
  2. The PO2 in blood capillaries is approximately 90-95 mm Hg, but pO2 in tissues is 40 mm Hg.
  3. Due to the pressure gradient, O2 diffuses from the blood to the tissues.
  4. 4.5 ml O2 per 100 ml of oxygenated blood diffuses in tissues and helps in oxidation. This 4.5 ml O2 is formed from 0.2 ml dissolved O2 in blood plasma, and approximately 4.3 ml from the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Exchange Of Gases In Other Parts Of The Body

Conditions needed for the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin are—a decrease in an increase in Pco in tissues, an increase in temperature in tissues and low pH.

Release of carbon dioxide from the tissues to blood capillaries Carbon dioxide is mainly generated during the oxidation of glucose in living cells.

Carbon dioxide diffuses from tissues to blood plasma and then to its associated capillaries. Carbon dioxide content is 48 ml per 100 ml of oxygenated blood and 52 ml per 100 ml of deoxygenated blood.

During the circulation of 100 ml of blood through various capillaries throughout the body, it collects 4-5 ml of carbon dioxide from tissues.

Pcc,2 in tissues is 46 mm Hg, but Pcc,2 in deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg. Due to this pressure gradient, carbon dioxide diffuses from tissues to blood capillaries.

This balance is maintained in order to transport carbon dioxide from tissues to capillaries.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Gaseous Exchange Between Tissues And Capillaries Of Different Parts Of The Body

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Partial Pressure Of Respiratory Gases

Transport Of Gases

  • The transportation of oxygen, from the atmosphere to the individual cells, occurs through a series of steps.
  • The heart, lungs and blood circulation generate a flow of oxygenated blood to the tissues to maintain aerobic metabolism.
  • However, oxygen transportation occurs with the concomitant expulsion of carbon dioxide.
  • For this transportation, some respiratory pigments play an important role. In this section, the respiratory pigments and the process of transportation have been discussed.

Respiratory Pigments

The pigments present in animal bodies that carry O2, and CO2 and transport them for cellular respiration are called respiratory pigments.

The different types of respiratory pigments, their chemical nature and features are discussed below in the table.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Different Type Of Respiratory Pigments

Transport Of Oxygen

O2 transport system in the body consists of the lungs and the cardiovascular system.

Deoxygenated blood releases carbon dioxide and gets saturated by oxygen. This oxygenated blood enters the left ventricle of the heart by the pulmonary vein.

From the heart, the blood passes through the aorta, arteries and arterioles and reaches capillaries surrounding different body organiser

Finally, it reaches the associated tissues. At normal atmospheric pressure, the number of oxygen molecules present in each litre of blood is normally equivalent to 200 ml of pure gaseous oxygen.

Oxygen is present in two forms—

  1. As dissolved form and
  2. A combined form (oxyhaemoglobin). Both these forms have been discussed below

Transport As Dissolved Gas

  1. Oxygen diffuses passively from the alveoli and dissolves in the plasma. In its dissolved form, O2 maintains its molecular structure and gaseous state.
  2. The quantity of oxygen that dissolves in a fluid, such as blood, is predicted by gas laws (Henry’s law and Graham’s law) and it depends on the partial pressure of gas and temperature.
  3. In a healthy normal adult, approximately 0.3 ml of O2 is dissolved in 100 ml of blood.
  4. This is commonly expressed as 0.3 volume per cent (vol%), where the vol% is equal to the millilitre of O2 per 100 ml of blood.
  5. Only a small percentage of O2 is carried in this dissolved form, and its contribution to total O2 transport is small.

Transport As Oxyhaemoglobin.

Amount to be transported: As oxygen is relatively insoluble in water, only 3 ml can be dissolved in every 1 L of blood at the normal arterial PO2 of 100 mm Hg.

Among the rest 197 ml (out of 200 ml total oxygen) of oxygen in a litre of arterial blood is transported through the erythrocytes as oxyhaemoglobin.

So, more than 98% of oxygen content is transported through erythrocytes as oxyhaemoglobin.

Formation of oxyhaemoglobin: The dynamics of the reaction of haemoglobin with O2 makes it a suitable O2 carrier.

Each haemoglobin (Hb) molecule is a protein made up of four subunits joined together. Each of these subunits consists of a molecular group known as haem and a polypeptide attached to it.

Haem is a porphyrin ring complex that includes one ferrous ion (Fez+). Each of the four ferrous ions in Hb can reversibly bind one O2 molecule each.

In normal adults, most of the haemoglobin molecules contain two or two chains.

The binding of O2 to haemoglobin alters the absorption of Hb, which is responsible for the change in colour between oxygenated arterial blood (HbOz) and deoxygenated venous blood (Hb).

The binding of four O2 molecules to each Hb molecule forms a complex called oxyhaemoglobin. This happens in four stages which are as follows

⇒ \(\left.\begin{array}{l}\text { (1) } \mathrm{Hb}_4+\mathrm{O}_2 \longrightarrow \mathrm{Hb}_4 \mathrm{O}_2 \\ \text { (2) } \mathrm{Hb}_4 \mathrm{O}_2+\mathrm{O}_2 \longrightarrow \mathrm{Hb}_4 \mathrm{O}_4 \\ \text { (3) } \mathrm{Hb}_4 \mathrm{O}_4+\mathrm{O}_2 \longrightarrow \mathrm{Hb}_4 \mathrm{O}_6\end{array}\right\} \begin{aligned} & \text { Unsaturated } \\ & \text { oxyhaemoglobin }\end{aligned}\)

⇒ \((4) \mathrm{Hb}_4 \mathrm{O}_6+\mathrm{O}_2 \longrightarrow \mathrm{Hb}_4 \mathrm{O}_8 \quad Saturated oxyhaemoglobin\)

The readily reversible binding of O2 to haemoglobin facilitates the delivery of O2 to the tissues from the blood. In saturated conditi ons, 1g of haemoglobin can transport 1.34 ml of oxygen.

Conditions required for oxyhaemoglobin Formation:

  1. Increase in PO2 in alveolus;
  2. Decrease in PcO2 in alveolus;
  3. High pH in blood; Maintenance of warm condition in lungs.

The oxygen dissociation curve or ODC

The graph in which the partial pressure of O2 (PO2 is plotted against the X-axis and percentage saturation of haemoglobin (Hb) by O2, along the Y-axis to determine the rate of O2 binding to haemoglobin is called the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve or oxygen dissociation curve or ODC.

The O2 molecules present in the pulmonary capillaries of human lungs mostly bind with haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin.

The formation of oxyhaemoglobin is dependent on various factors, such as PO2 Pcc,2, H+ ion concentration in blood, temperature, etc.

The curve, obtained by plotting oxyhaemoglobin formation against PO2 is S-shaped or sigmoid. The effect of the factors stated above can be studied by this plot.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Oxygen Dissocition Curve

Reasons behind the sigmoidal shape of the oxygen dissociation curve: Each haemoglobin molecule contains four haem groups that can bind with four O2 molecules, at the most.

The binding occurs sequentially in the following manner—

The binding of the first haem in the Hb molecule with O2 occurs slowly so that no change in ODC occurs. However, this changes the structure of haemoglobin and increases the affinity of the second haem for O2.

Oxygenation of the second haem increases the affinity of the third and these reactions occur easily. As a result, ODC shifts to the right.

When PO2 is 25 mm Hg, Hb becomes 50% saturated by O2 At this portion of the curve, a large amount of O2 is released from haemoglobin with only a small change in PO2. This response facilitates the diffusion of O2 to the tissues.

The point on the curve at which 50% of a haemoglobin molecule is saturated with O2 (two oxygen molecules on one Hb molecule) is called the P50.

After binding of the three haem groups, however, binding of the fourth O2 molecule is a bit difficult, this type of binding is known as co-operative binding.

After this binding, ODC becomes almost plateau. From this point, a further increase in PO2 produces only a smaller increase in oxygen binding.

The significance of the flat portion of the ODC is that a drop in PO2 from about 100 mm Hg to about 60 mm Hg still results in a haemoglobin saturation of more than 90%. This virtually ensures adequate O2 transport.

Factors controlling the oxygen dissociation curve

Three important factors that affect ODC are pH, CO2, temperature and concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPGA).

  1. pH: A decrease in pH shifts ODC to the right (enhancing O2 dissociation) whereas an increase in pH shifts the curve to the left (increasing O2 affinity). During cellular metabolism, CO2 is released into the blood and therefore hydrogen ion concentration increases and thus, a decrease in pH occurs.
  2. CO2: An increase in CO2 concentration leads to an increase in H+ ion concentration. This causes ODC to shift to the right. CO2 has a direct effect on haemoglobin. This effect is known as the Bohr effect.
  3. Temperature: The body temperature increases during muscular exercise. This effect shifts the dissociation curve to the right and it enables more O2 to be released in the tissues. When the weather is cold, a decrease in body temperature shifts the O2 dissociation curve to the left (higher Hb affinity).
  4. 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPGA): 2, 3-Diphosphoglycerate is produced during glycolysis. It is found abundant in red blood cells. The affinity of 2, 3-DPGA for Hb is greater than that of O2 As a result, 2, 3-DPGA directly competes with O2 and binds to the p chain of Hb binding sites. This reduces the transport of oxygen by Hb.

⇒ \(\mathrm{HbO}_2+2,3-\mathrm{DPGA} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Hb}-2,3-\mathrm{DPGA}+\mathrm{O}_2\)

Bohr effect

It is the phenomenon in which an increase of carbon dioxide in the blood and a decrease in pH results in a reduction of the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

It results in a right shift of the ODC reflecting the release of oxygen from haemoglobin. The Bohr effect is closely related to the fact that deoxygenated haemoglobin binds H+ more actively than oxygenated haemoglobin.

This phenomenon was first described by the Danish scientist Christian Bohr(1904).

Thus, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right. Conditions that increase 2, 3-DPGA include hypoxia, decreased Hb concentration, and increased pH.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Effect Of pH Temperature And 2,3 DPFA On ODC

Haldane effect

Haldane effect states the effect of oxygen on carbon dioxide transport. This phenomenon describes the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin and promotes the release of carbon dioxide from carbaminohaemoglobin. This effect was first observed by J.S.Haldane(1914)

Transport of carbon dioxide

During cellular respiration, CO2 is produced and reaches the heart through blood vessels. From the heart, the deoxygenated blood comes to the lungs by pulmonary arteries.

The CO2 content is approximately 52.1 ml per 100 ml of deoxygenated blood and 48.3 ml per 100 ml of oxygenated blood.

CO2 is carried and transported through the blood in both plasma and red blood cells as three distinct chemical forms.

These are namely, bicarbonate (HC03 ), dissolved CO2 and carbamino protein complexes. In plasma, CO2 binds to various plasma proteins, and in red blood cells, CO2 binds to haemoglobin. By far, the predominant transport mechanism of CO2 is HC03 within RBC.

Transport as bicarbonate (HC03)

Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood containing 45.7 ml of CO2 and 100 ml of oxygenated blood containing 42.9 ml CO2 is transported as different bicarbonate compounds by blood and plasma.

Formation of bicarbonates in blood plasma: The plasma of 100 ml each of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood contains 35.2 ml and 33.1 ml CO2 respectively, as bicarbonate compounds. The reactions that are involved are as follows.

The plasma protein (Pr) of blood plasma remains bound to sodium (Na) which is designated as NaPr. This reacts with H2C03 to form sodium bicarbonate (NaHC03)

⇒ \(\begin{gathered}
\mathrm{CO}_2+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3 \\
\mathrm{NaPr}+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3 \rightarrow \mathrm{NaHCO}_3+\mathrm{HPr}
\end{gathered}\)

Blood plasma contains alkaline phosphates such as disodium hydrogen phosphate (Na2HPO4). This Na2HPO4 reacts with carbonic acid to form sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) and sodium dihydrogen phosphate (Na2PO4).

⇒ \(\mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{HPO}_4+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{CO}_3 \rightarrow \mathrm{NaHCO}_3+\mathrm{NaH}_2 \mathrm{PO}_4\)

Formation of bicarbonate compound in red blood cells: RBC of 100 ml deoxygenated and oxygenated blood contain 10.5 ml and 9.8 ml of CO2 respectively, as bicarbonate compounds.

CO2 in RBCs is transported as potassium bicarbonate (KHCO3). Due to the presence of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, CO2 and water react to form carbonic acid. Carbonic acid dissociates to form bicarbonate and H+ ions.

Hb forms the compound KHb with potassium in RBC which then reacts with carbonic acid. Bicarbonate ions react with potassium to form potassium bicarbonate and the H+ ions bind to haemoglobin to form a HHb complex.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Formation Of Bicarbonate Ions In Blood

Transport as carbamino protein complexes Each 100 ml of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood contains 3.7 ml and 3.0 ml CO2 respectively, as carbamino compounds.

Out of these, some amount of CO2 remains in plasma as carbamino-plasma and some of the amount remains in RBCs as carbaminohaemoglobin.

In blood plasma: 100 ml of deoxygenated blood contains 1.1 ml and 100 ml of oxygenated blood contains 1.0 ml of carbon dioxide which is transported as carbamino compounds. The amino acids of plasma proteins react with CO2 to form carbamino proteins.

⇒ \(
\mathrm{Pr} \cdot \mathrm{NH}_2+\mathrm{CO}_2 \longrightarrow \mathrm{Pr} \cdot \mathrm{NH} \cdot \mathrm{COOH}
(Carbamino protein)\)

In red blood cells: 100 ml of deoxygenated blood j contains 2.6 ml of CO2. 100 ml oxygenated blood contains 2.0 ml of carbon dioxide which reacts with Hb of RBCs to form carbaminohaemoglobin. In this case, carbonic anhydrase plays no role.

Transport as dissolved CO2

The remaining 5% of the CO2 is carried in the blood as dissolved gas. Although CO2 is 20 times more soluble in water than O2, the dissolved form of CO2 still constitutes a small fraction of the total transported CO2.

Hence, the dissolved form of CO2 is much more important in CO2 transport than the dissolved form of O2. Cv dissolves in red blood cells and blood plasma to form carbonic acid.

RBCs and plasma of 100 ml of deoxygenated blood contain 0.9 ml and 1.8 ml of CO2 respectively, i.e., a total of 2.7 ml in dissolved state. RBCs and plasma of 100 m oxygenated blood contain 0.8 ml and 1.6 ml CO2 respectively, i.e., a total of 2.4 ml in the dissolved state.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Transport Of Carbon Dioxide in Blood (2)

Carbon Dioxide Dissociation Curve

In contrast to the behaviour of O2, the dissociation of CO2 from blood is almost directly proportional to the Pco.

Hence, the dissociation curve for CO2 is linear, the saturation of haemoglobin with O2 has a major effect on the CO2 dissociation curve.

Although O2 and CO2 both bind to haemoglobin at different sites, deoxygenated haemoglobin has a greater affinity for CO2 than oxygenated haemoglobin.

The deoxygenated Hb more readily forms carbamino compounds and also binds faster with free H+ ions that are released during the formation of HCO2. Thus, deoxygenated blood (venous blood) freely takes up and transports more CO2 than oxygenated arterial blood.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases CO2 Dissociation Curve

Chloride Shift Or Hamburger Phenomenon

When CO2 enters the cellular capillaries, NaCI in blood plasma breaks down to release Cl” ions which enter into the RBC.

The reverse phenomenon occurs in the lungs. As CO2 enters pulmonary capillaries, RBCs release Cl- to regenerate NaCI in plasma.

This phenomenon regarding the shifting of chloride ions is known as the chloride shift or Hamburger phenomenon. It was discovered by Hamburger in 1927.

Chloride Shift In Cellular Capillaries

Cations like K+, and Na+ cannot move across the membrane of RBCs but anions like Cl-, and HCO3 can. Carbon dioxide produced in tissues of body parts, other than the lungs, enters into the blood.

The majority of this carbon dioxide enters into the RBC. Due to the presence of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase (CA) in RBCs, carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic acid (H2C03).

H2C03 produced in RBC reacts with haemoglobin bound to potassium (KHb) to form potassium bicarbonate (KHCO3) and haemoglobinic acid (HHb). Due to the production of KHC03, the content of bicarbonate in RBCs increases and it becomes slightly alkaline.

To maintain the pH of blood, either K+ ions should be released from the blood or some anions like Cl” should enter the blood.

Since K+ ions cannot move across the membrane of RBC, NaCI dissociates and releases Cl” ions. These ions penetrate through the membrane of RBC and react with KHCO3 to form KCI and HCO3.

Due to the formation of HCO3 in RBCs, it becomes slightly acidic. To neutralise this, HCOJ diffuses into blood plasma and reacts with Na+ to form sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Reactions Showing Chloride Shift In Different Parts Of Bodies

Chloride shift in lung capillaries

Cl- from RBCs of pulmonary capillaries gets released into blood plasma. This Cl- reacts with NaHCO3 to form NaCl and H2CO3.

This H2CO3 dissociates to produce carbon dioxide that diffuses into alveoli. Chloride shift occurs reversibly in the capillaries of other body parts except the lungs.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Reactions Showing Chloride Shifts In Lung Capillaries

Regulation Of Respiration

Respiration is regulated by a number of factors which have been discussed separately.

Central chemoreceptors: The imbalance of gaseous components (O2, CO2) in blood and CSF causes stimulation of these receptors in the spinal cord and hypothalamus. Details have been discussed in previous sections.

Peripheral chemoreceptors: Receptors in blood vessels sense an imbalance in gaseous components (O2, CO2) in blood and body fluid. These receptors send signals to the respiratory centres in the brain and thus control respiration. Details have been discussed in previous sections.

Baroreceptors: Baroreceptors in blood vessels, tubular organs, muscles, joints of bones etc., can distinguish between expansion and contraction, thus controlling respiration.

Reflex: Reflex in alveoli, visceral pleura, respiratory tract etc., generates sensory impulse that triggers the respiratory centres in the brain, thus controlling respiration.

Temperature: The rate of respiration is proportional to body temperature. On increasing temperature, the rate of respiration also increases. Again, on decreasing the temperature, the rate of respiration decreases too.

Blood pressure: The rate of respiration is also proportional to blood pressure. On increasing the blood pressure, the rate of respiration increases and vice-versa.

Pain: Due to excess pain, respiration may stop. Pain in visceral organs reduces the rate of respiration.

Tracheal stimulation: Due to tracheal stimulation, respiration may cease for a moment and this, in turn, causes a cough or sneeze.

Stimulation in the limbic system: The limbic system in the human brain gets excited due to emotional stimuli which influences respiration accordingly.

Respiratory And Pulmonary Volumes

The total amount of air that the lungs can accommodate is divided into a number of volumes.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Normal Lung Volume And Capacity

Combinations of these lung volumes can be used to determine lung can accommodate varies primarily with the age, height and sex of the individual.

The various lung volumes and capacities and their definition.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Definition Of Various Lung Volumes And Their Normal Range

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Definition Of Various Lung Volumes And Their Normal Range 2

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Factors That Affect Lung Capacity

Importance of RV

The residual volume maintains gaseous exchange between O2 and CO2 in the alveoli and associated pulmonary capillaries during breathing. Otherwise, deficiency of oxygen may be observed due to oxidation of glucose and cellular respiration would be hampered.

Release of RV

RV cannot be released in living conditions. However, if holes are made in the wall of the thoracic region or in the pneumothorax region of a person, atmospheric air enters the thoracic cavity through these holes.

As a result, air pressure in the thoracic cavity increases. This causes the collapse of the lungs and RV releases from the body. During open heart surgery, the lungs collapse totally. RV is also released during death.

Instrument for measurement of pulmonary volume—spirometer

A spirometer is an instrument used to measure different volumes of air involved in breathing. spirometry is a basic test for the study of lung functioning. Basically, there are two vessels in a spirometer—

A larger vessel containing water and having a breathing hose attached to it,

A smaller vessel inverted and suspended in the water. A counterweight and indicator are attached to the inverted chamber.

The indicator is associated with a machine named Kymograph. The kymograph cylinder is provided with graph paper which records data.

This is known as spirogram. Air blown into the inverted chamber will cause it to rise, thus moving an indicator arrow along the horizontal scale.

It is calibrated in litres to give lung volume measurements. If the spirometer index moves by 1 mm up-down, it indicates 30 ml of air. It is essential for the evaluation and monitoring of respiratory diseases.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Spirometer

Dead Space

Dead Space Definition: The part of the respiratory system which does not take part in the gas exchange process is called dead space.

Types: Based on the volume of air contained in these spaces, dead spaces are classified into two types—

Anatomical dead space and physiological dead space

Anatomical dead space and anatomical dead space air: The airways from the human nasal passage to the terminal bronchiole where no gaseous exchange with pulmonary capillaries takes place, are known as anatomical dead space.

The air present in anatomical dead space is known as anatomical dead space air. In human beings, it is approximately 150 ml in volume and constitutes 20% – 30% of TV (tidal volume).

Physiological dead space and physiological dead space air: The frontal part of the lungs where alveoli cannot take part in gas exchange due to uneven distribution of several respiratory disorders seen in the human body capillaries is known as physiological dead space.

The air present in physiological dead space is known as physiological dead space air.

For a normal healthy individual anatomical dead space air volume is almost the same as physiological dead space air volume.

Its normal volume is approximately 150-200 ml.

Importance: Inspired air becomes saturated with water vapour, in the anatomical dead space and enters the alveoli.

Some particles of size more than 0.2 mm are trapped in that space before entering the alveoli.

An increase in physiological dead space air and air volume indicates diseased or ill-condition alveoli.

It helps to determine lung diseases. For example, in a respiratory disorder called emphysema, blood circulation decreases due to the presence of coagulated blood. This means during any lung disease physiological dead space air volume increases.

Apneustic breathing: It is another abnormal breathing pattern that is characterised by sustained periods of inspiration, separated by brief periods of exhalation.

Loss of inspiratory-inhibitory activities is the mechanism responsible for this type of ventilatory pattern. Individuals with central nervous system injury.

Disorders Related To Respiratory System

Several respiratory disorders are seen in the human body and some of these disorders.

Asthma

Asthma is a disease of the bronchi and bronchioles that is marked by wheezing, breathlessness, and sometimes cough and expectoration of mucus.

Asthma Types and causes: There are two types of asthma that are discussed below.

Allergic or atopic asthma: This type of asthma generally occurs due to air pollution. Different foreign substances and allergens, such as dust particles, pollen grains etc., on entering the body cause allergy.

In this condition, the number of eosinophils and mast cells increases. They secrete leucotriene, histamine etc. These substances constrict the bronchioles and cause allergic asthma. Generally, this type of asthma is observed during childhood.

Non-atopic or idiosyncratic asthma: This type of asthma affects elderly people. It is caused due to viral infection, polyp formation or excessive smoking. During viral infection, inflammation of the wall of bronchioles occurs.

As a result, the diameter of the inner cavity of bronchioles reduces and non-atopic asthma is observed.

The asthmatic trauma becomes frequent during dawn or late night. Cold air enhances the chances of such asthma. Anxiety, mental pressure etc., also increase the chances of this disease.

Asthma Symptoms:

  1. Contraction of smooth muscles of the wall of bronchioles occurs which reduces the diameter of the lumen of bronchioles. So, the circulation of air through it gets obstructed and this creates difficulty in breathing.
  2. Inflammation of the wall of bronchioles occurs. From that layer, a thick mucus is secreted that sticks to the smaller cavities of bronchioles. This mucus obstructs the airways and causes dyspnoea (painful respiration).
  3. Asthmatic patients face difficulty in expiration than inspiration and in some cases, whistling sound is observed during expiration.
  4. Tachycardia or an increase in the rate of heartbeat is observed.
  5. During chronic asthma, the skin may turn blue (due to deficiency of O2), and loss of consciousness, and respiratory arrest leading to death may also occur.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Condition Of Bronchial Wall At Normal Condition And During Asthma

Asthma Prevention and Treatment:

  1. Air pollution and smoking are the two main causes of asthma. So, prevention of smoking and avoiding inhalation of polluted air are the two best possible ways to prevent asthma.
  2. Cold waves of air increase the disease. So, care should be taken that the patient is not exposed to cold air during dawn.
  3. At present, corticosteroids or other medicines are used to treat asthma. They act as bronchodilators.
  4. Homes should be cleaned and made germ-free or dust-free.
  5. The patient should not suffer from any anxiety or tension.

Emphysema

Emphysema is a chronic disease or disorder of the lungs due to which the elasticity of the walls of the lungs reduces, the lungs expand and the surface area for absorption of oxygen reduces.

Emphysema Causes:

  1. Cigarette smoking, air pollution, lung infections and some occupational hazards are the main causes of emphysema. It occurs due to the release of proteolytic enzymes as part of the inflammatory process that follows irritation of the lungs.
  2. The lungs actually undergo self-destruction by these proteolytic enzymes secreted by leukocytes in the lungs.
  3. In about 2% of cases, it’s a rare hereditary disease.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 17 Breathing And Exchange Of Gases Normal And Infected Alveoli

Emphysema Symptoms: The symptoms of emphysema.

  • Reduction or loss of elasticity of the walls of the lungs: The elasticity of the walls of the lungs is reduced thereby causing narrow airways.

Excessive smoking leads to an increase in the number of macrophages. These macrophages secrete chemicals which attract WBCs. These WBCs then secrete elastase and other proteolytic enzymes. These enzymes cause damage to the lungs and reduce their elasticity.

Hypoxia: This occurs due to the malfunctioning of the lung tissue during emphysema and uneven blood flow due to the destruction of capillaries.

Enlargement of chest: Emphysema may lead to an enlarged or barrel-shaped chest.

Enlargement of heart: The right side of the heart is observed to be enlarged for people suffering from emphysema.

Types: The different types of emphysema are discussed below.

  1. Panacinar emphysema: In this case, walls of adjacent alveoli break down, alveolar tubules become swollen and intra-alveolar elastic tissue gets damaged.
  2. Centrilobular emphysema: In this case, bronchioles become thick and so when air enters these lobules (i.e., bronchioles and alveolar region) oxygen pressure reduces and hypoxia occurs.
  3. Interstitial emphysema: When air occupies intrathoracic tissue, the condition is known as interstitial emphysema. External wounds by knife or breaking of the rib cage, and asthma may create such conditions.

Emphysema Prevention and treatment: Currently no form of treatment can cure emphysema reverse the damage to the lungs, or even control the disease and its symptoms. However, emphysema can be prevented by avoiding cigarette smoking.

Antibiotics may be used to treat and prevent infections within the respiratory system. Special breathing exercises are often helpful and breathing equipment that delivers extra oxygen and medications may be provided for home use.

Corticosteroids or steroids are used to decrease the inflammation of the airway walls.

Occupational Respiratory Disorders

Occupational respiratory disorders are a group of disorders that are caused by long or brief exposure to toxic substances while working in coal mines, factories, etc.

Common occupational lung diseases include anthracosis, mesothelioma, occupational asthma, silicosis, and asbestosis.

Occupational respiratory disorders Symptoms: In the case of occupational diseases, different particulate matter enter, the lungs along with the inhaled air and get deposited on the walls of the lungs as well as those of the alveoli. As a result, the wall of the alveoli thickens. Due to this, gaseous exchange slows down, and difficulty in breathing and coughing are experienced.

Occupational respiratory disorders Types: Some occupational diseases are discussed below. Black lung disease or Anthracosis: The people who work in coal mines inhale minute particulate matter like small fine particles of coal during inspiration.

These particles deposit on the inner walls of the lungs and create a black layer over them. This disease is known as black lung disease or anthracosis. In this case, symptoms of bronchitis and emphysema can also be observed.

Asbestosis: Asbestosis is a respiratory disease that results from the presence of microscopic asbestos fibres in the air. These small asbestos fibres deposit on the lungs over time and can cause scarring or fibrosis of the lungs.

This scarring causes the lungs to stiffen and makes it hard to breathe. Earlier, asbestos was used widely as a fireproofing and insulating agent, whereby unwanted exposure has occurred, causing asbestosis.

Mesothelioma: Mesothelioma is a fatal type of cancer also caused by exposure to asbestos. Millions of construction and general industry workers have been exposed to asbestos fibres over a very long period of time, causing mesothelioma.

Usually, mesothelioma does not show up until 20 to 40 years after exposure. Most of the deaths resulting from the disease are the result of exposures that occurred decades ago.

Silicosis: People who work in gold, copper mines or factories where glass, slate etc., are manufactured, suffer from this disease.

It includes the deposition of silicon particles within the alveoli. WBCs and macrophage phagocytose silicon particles.

However, sometimes these particles may not get removed from the body. The X-ray plates of the lungs of patients suffering from this disease show an orange line, showing the presence of silica.

Byssinosis: The people who work in textile manufacturing industries for a long time, inhale thin fibres of cotton, jute, silk etc. These fibres enter the lungs and cause the disease byssinosis. The symptoms of this disease are breathing trouble, asthma, chest pain etc.

Prevention and treatment: To prevent these diseases, workers must be aware of the consequences. They must be provided with proper aprons, masks, gloves etc., that prevent them from coming in contact with this harmful substance.

Hypoxia

Hypoxia is a condition where the supply of oxygen to the tissues is less than the volume of oxygen required by them.

Hypoxia Types: It is mainly of four types. Each of them is discussed below

Hypoxic hypoxia: The reduction in oxygen content in the tissues due to a reduction in partial pressure of oxygen in the artery, is known as hypoxic hypoxia.

In this form of hypoxia, the arterial PO2 is below normal because either the alveolar Pÿ is reduced for environmental reasons such as altitude or the blood is unable to equilibrate fully with the alveolar air as in lung diseases.

Anaemic hypoxia: The reduction of oxygen content in the tissues due to anaemia and less haemoglobin in blood, is known as anaemic hypoxia.

Ischemic or hypokinetic hypoxia: Reduced oxygen content in tissues due to a reduction in blood flow because of a reduction in the activity of the heart, is known as ischemic or hypokinetic hypoxia.

Low cardiac output or perfusion (shock or ischemia), severe hypotension or low pulmonary venous outflow are examples of conditions that reduce circulation, seriously decreasing oxygen transport to the tissues.

Histotoxic hypoxia: The reduction in oxygen content due to the toxicity of tissues is known as histotoxic hypoxia, This is the most severe form of hypoxia.

Lung cancer

Cancerous growth may develop in epithelial cells lining the bronchi and bronchioles. It is most common among smokers.

The smoke released by burning tobacco in a cigarette, etc., contains harmful compounds that cause cancer.

Pulmonary Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis is an infectious disease which usually affects the lungs. It is also known as pulmonary tuberculosis. In humans, tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Mountain sickness and acclimatisation When a person reaches 12,000-18,000 ft altitude, he/she suffers from mountain sickness due to a lower level of oxygen. Its symptoms are headache, nausea and dyspnoea.

But after 4-8 days, several physiological changes are observed in his body. Due to these changes, the person can adjust to the changing environment. This phenomenon is called acclimatisation.

These physiological changes enable proper oxygen supply to the body. For example, the spleen contracts, the amount of blood in blood capillaries and the number of RBCs increase, and heart rate and rate of blood flow also increase.

As a result, sufficient oxygen reaches the tissues. Under the effect of erythropoietin, RBC production increases in the bone marrow.

Breathing And Exchange Of Gase Notes

  • Allergy: It is a symptom that occurs due to hypersensitivity of the immune system which is caused by some environmental factors.
  • Antibiotic: It is a drug or medicine which inhibits the growth of a micro-organism or destroys it.
  • Bradycardia: Decrease in heart rate.
  • Bronchodilator: A drug which helps in the widening of bronchi.
  • Chemotherapy: Use of drug to treat any disease (mainly cancer)
  • Corticosteroid: A class of steroid hormones which is produced in the adrenal cortex.
  • Dyspnea: Painful respiration due to some reason.
  • Pigment: It is a natural colouring matter of animal or plant tissue.
  • Phonation: Production of speech sound.
  • Radiation therapy: It is a process where high-energy particles or waves are used to treat cancer.
  • Tachycardia: Increase in heartbeat

Points To Remember

  1. Breathing is a physical process by which animals exchange gases between their body and the atmosphere.
  2. Human breathing takes place in two stages— inspiration and expiration.
  3. Each lung is covered by a double-layered membrane, known as pleura. The outer layer of the pleura is called the parietal pleura and the inner layer is called the visceral pleura.
  4. The nerve present in the diaphragm is the phrenic nerve
  5. Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the nasal passage is called rhinitis.
  6. Arrest of the functioning of the central nervous system along with its respiratory control systems is known as narcosis.
  7. Inflammation of the larynx is called laryngitis.
  8. Tuberculosis or TB occurs due to the infection of the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The infection mostly occurs in the lungs and pleural membrane.
  9. Inflammation of bronchi is known as bronchitis.
  10. Infection and inflammation of the pleura are known as pleurisy.
  11. In dry pleura or pleuritis, the pleura becomes rough and the sound of rubbing against the rough pleura can be heard by a stethoscope.
  12. Fluid may deposit in interpleural space due to infection. This is known as pleural effusion. Haemothorax, pyothorax, chylothorax etc., are examples of pleural effusion.
  13. The abnormal condition in which the intrapleural region is filled with air is known as pneumothorax.
  14. Deposition of blood in the intrapleural region is known as haemothorax
  15. The deposition of pus between the two layers of the pleura is known as pyothorax.
  16. In the interpleural region, deposition of chyle i.e., the lymph appearing as a milky fluid, containing undissolved fat, is known as chylothorax.
  17. Although the volume of fluid deposition is not too high, yet occurrence of this condition is an indication of cancer (e.g., lymphoma) and choking of important lymphatic vessels.
  18. The presence of coal particles in the lungs causes bronchitis, emphysema etc. This condition is known as anthracosis.
  19. The disease that occurs due to inhalation and deposition of silicon compounds in the lungs, is known as silicosis.
  20. Inhalation of thin fibres of cotton, jute etc., for a long time causes byssinosis.
  21. A normal respiration rate is known as eupnea.
  22. The arterial oxygen that is utilised by the tissues is expressed by the oxygen utilisation coefficient. Its value is expressed in terms of the following ratio.
  23. ⇒ \(\frac{\text { Amount of oxygen utilised in tissues }}{\text { Amount of oxygen present in artery }} \times 100\)
  24. The normal value of the oxygen utilisation coefficient is 25%. But during exercise, its value increases to 75-80%.
  25. Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin increases in the presence of 2, 3-BPG or 2, 3-bisphosphoglycerate. So, this compound is important for acclimatisation.
  26. The vital capacity of athletes and people living in mountains is more than the vital capacity of people living in plains. Due to their, necessity for more energy, they require more oxygen.
  27. Red blood cells contain zinc-containing enzymes known as carbonic anhydrase. It increases the rate of binding of RBC to carbon dioxide by 5000 times.
  28. Due to this reason, 70% of the amount of carbon dioxide that enters the blood from tissues, remains bound to red blood cells.
  29. Animals belonging to the class Insecta have a complex respiratory system called the trachea. By the trachea (10 pairs), they transport air to the tissues directly.
  30. Fishes breathe by gills. The blood vessels in the gills are so arranged that the flow of blood in the vessels is in opposite directions to the water flow.
  31. Inflammation of the alveoli of the lungs due to the infection of the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae is known as pneumonia.
  32. Lung cancer occurs due to excessive smoking. In this disease, cells of the lungs divide uncontrollably. As a result, blood vessels rupture and death occurs due to loss of blood (haemorrhage).
  33. A decrease in the normal rate of respiration is known as hypopnoea.
  34. An increase in the normal rate of respiration is known as hyperopnoea.
  35. A deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood is known as hypocapnia.
  36. The absence of CO2 in the blood is known as apnoea.
  37. Excess carbon dioxide in the blood is known as hypercapnia.
  38. Painful respiration due to some reason is called dyspnea.
  39. Obstruction of respiration due to some reason is known as apnea.

 

Locomotion And Movement Notes

Locomotion And Movement Introduction

Definition Of Movement: Movement is the Process by Which An Organism Is Able To move its organs Or body parts in response to stimuli without changing the location of the whole body.

Definition of locomotion: Locomotion is the process by which an organism can move from one place to another in response to stimuli.

While watching the Olympic games, don’t you become amazed to see the performance of the athletes? Some of them can jump very high, some can run very fast, some can lift heavy weights and so on. All these abilities depend on the functions of various muscles and bones present in the body.

Movement is a change of position of any part or organ of the body of a living organism.

  • Movement can be done by both plants and animals. An animal can also change its location by simply moving different parts of its body. It is termed locomotion.
  • A large number of animals move around using their limbs. The limbs are moved by muscles and the muscles are attached either to the endoskeleton or the exoskeleton.
  • In almost all vertebrates, movement and locomotion are controlled by muscles and bones. Some organisms such as worms, snails, protozoans, etc., do not have limbs.
  • They move around either by changing their body shape or by using appendages or by floating in water.
  • Among all the multicellular organisms, only animals explore their environment in an active way, through locomotion.

Significance Of Movement And Locomotion

The significance of movement and locomotion is discussed below.

Search for food: All living organisms have to move to places in search of food. Plants synthesise their own food through photosynthesis.

Thus, locomotion is not that necessary for them. Animals cannot produce their food through photosynthesis. Hence, they need to move from one place to another in search of food.

Reproduction: Locomotion is also important for reproduction in animals and in some lower groups of plants (algae and bryophytes).

Certain fishes (Example salmon) live in sea water but they require fresh water for reproduction. So, they move from sea to fresh water at the time of reproduction.

Shelter: All living beings require a safe and comfortable shelter for living and reproducing.

Animals move from one place to another in search of a suitable shelter where they will have enough food and water as well as less threat from other predatory animals.

Search for a favourable environment: All plants and animals require various environmental components such as light, air, water, etc., for their survival. So, they move from one place to another in search of favourable environmental conditions required for their survival.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Different between movement And Locomotion

Different types of movement are observed in living organisms.

Ciliary Movements

Ciliary Movements Definition: The type of movement which includes rhythmic movements of cilia, present on the cell surface, is known as a ciliary movement.

Cilia are microscopic hair-like organelles found in eukaryotic cells. They project from the surface of the cells. They show movement which helps cells in locomotion. They also help the cells to remain anchored in the tissues.

Ciliary Movements Example:

  1. In multicellular organisms such as human beings, cilia are found in some internal organiser
  2. Cilia present in the respiratory tracts help to remove pathogens and dust particles. Cilia are also found in reproductive tracts. They help in the transportation of egg and sperm cells.
  3. In unicellular organisms such as Paramoecium, cilia are used for locomotion.
  4. Cilia is also found in the flame cells present in tapeworm. These cells are the excretory cells of tapeworms. The cilia of flame cells help to filter the body fluid by removing waste products from it.

Ciliary Movements Process:

  1. The organisms use their cilia similar to an oar used in a boat.
  2. Cilia can move both in anterior and posterior directions.
  3. Cilia are arranged in bands or clumps. The movement of each cilium must be closely coordinated with the movements of other cilia.
  4. Paramoecium uses its holotrichous cilia as a locomotory organiser During swimming, cilia move in a whip-like motion by producing two types of strokes water-power stroke and recovery stroke.
  5. During a power stroke, cilia push the water backwards and give a forward push.
  6. The power stroke is followed by the recovery stroke. In this movement, the cilia relax and return to their original position.
  7. In this way, the rows of cilia move one by one which helps to move the animal in water.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Locamotion In Paramoecium

Flagellar Movement

Flagellar Movement Definition: Some organisms’ locomotion by movement of a type of cytoplasmic filament called flagella, is known as flagellary movement.

A flagellum (Latin: flagellum means ‘whip’) is a lash-like appendage that protrudes from the cell body of certain prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

The primary role of the flagellum is the locomotion of the organism in a liquid medium, but it also often functions as a sensory organ.

Flagellar Movement Example:

  1. Some unicellular organisms such as Euglena, Trypanosoma gambiense, etc., use their flagella for locomotion.
  2. In some multicellular organisms such as sponges, a water canal system is found. The large, central cavity included in this system is known as spongocoel.
  3. The inner wall of this spongocoel contains special flagellated cells known as choanocytes or collar cells.
  4. Each cell contains a central flagellum. This flagellum helps in the unidirectional flow of water into the spongocoel.

Flagellar Movement Process:

  1. Euglena and other flagellated protozoans move by the spiral undulation of their flagellum.
  2. Euglena swims by lashing the flagellae sideways and the body is directed obliquely backward. This movement helps Euglena to move forward by pushing the water backwards.
  3. The energy required for the movement is obtained by the breakdown of ATP into ADP and inorganic phosphate.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Movement Of flagellum

Amoeboid Movement

Amoeboid Movement Definition: The movement or locomotion that depends on the movement by extensions of the cell body called pseudopodia, is known as amoeboid movement.

Amoeboid movement is the most common mode of locomotion in eukaryotic cells. It is a crawling-like movement accomplished by cytoplasmic protrusion of the cells called pseudopodia.

Example:

  1. This kind of movement can be found in different cells such as leucocytes and macrophages, etc., present in our body.
  2. Unicellular organisms such as Amoeba, move from one place to another by this type of movement.

Amoeboid Movement Process:

  1. By changing the viscosity of its protoplasm and with the help of microfibrils inside the cells, Amoeba gives rise to pseudopodia.
  2. The pseudopodium attaches to the substratum (on which movement of Amoeba occurs) and microfibrils inside the cell contract to bring the rest of the cell towards the pseudopodium.
  3. By repeating this movement, Amoeba moves from one place to another.

Muscular Movement

Muscular Movement Definition: The movement of the body which occurs with the help of muscles is known as muscular movement.

Example: Muscular movement is found in vertebrates and some invertebrate animals (annelids, arthropods, molluscs, etc.).

Muscular Movement Process:

  1. Typical nature of muscles are excitability, contractility and elasticity.
  2. Due to nervous stimulation, the muscle fibres contract and then return to their original state.
  3. Some physiological processes occur due to the involuntary action of muscles. Some of such actions are peristalsis, movement of the heart muscles, etc.
  4. The voluntary action of muscles also helps the organisms in the movement of their body parts as well as locomotion.

Skeletal Muscle Contractile Proteins And Muscle Contraction

Skeletal Muscle Contractile Proteins And Muscle Contraction Definition: The muscles which are attached to the bones, can contract voluntarily and are mainly involved in the movement of the bones, are known as skeletal muscles.

Skeletal Muscle Contractile Proteins And Muscle Contraction Location: In humans and other vertebrates, these muscles are attached to the endoskeleton by means of a thick band of collagenous connective tissues called tendons.

As these muscles are attached to the skeletal system, they are named as skeletal muscles.

Skeletal Muscle Contractile Proteins And Muscle Contraction Characteristics:

  1. Skeletal muscle is responsible for the movement of various parts of the body and locomotion. These muscles are attached to the bones with the help of tendons.
  2. These muscles are able to contract voluntarily.
  3. These are striated.
  4. Muscle fibres are the individual contractile units of muscle.
  5. A number of undifferentiated, mononucleated muscle cells (myoblasts), unite to form a single, cylindrical, multinucleated cell (syncytium). These syncytia play a fundamental role in muscle function as they form the muscle fibres.
  6. Every muscle cell is covered with a thin transparent sheath, known as sarcolemma. The cytoplasm of muscle cells is called sarcoplasm. The sarcolemma contains some deep invagination called T-tubules (or transverse tubules).
  7. The bulk of fibre is arranged in the form of myofibrils that have characteristic striations due to the precise organisation of the contractile proteins actin and myosin.
  8. The myofibrils are arranged in a section, called a sarcomere joined end to end all along the length of a muscle fibre.
  9. Sarcomeres are separated by thin, comparatively dense, zigzag lines or discs called Z-line or Z-disc.
  10. A myofibril has dark and light bands. The dark bands are called the A-band or anisotropic bands. The light bands are called l-band or isotropic bands.
  11. The two bands are separated by the H-zone (Hensen zone).
  12. The centre of the H-zone has a line called the M-line.
  13. The myofibrils have characteristic striations on them due to the precise organisation of two contractile protein filaments—
    • Actin and
    • Myosin.
  14. Adult skeletal muscle fibres have diameters between 10 and 100 /μm and lengths that may extend up to 20 cm.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Skeletal Muscles Fibre

Connective Tissue Covering Of Muscle Fibres

Skeletal muscle fibres are covered with layers of connective tissues.

Blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic vessels, etc., are present in this covering. This covering is divided into three layers—

  1. Endomysium: The thin layer of areolar connective tissue around each muscle fibre is known as endomysium.
  2. Perimysium: The thin sheath of connective tissue that covers a bundle of muscle fibres which are already surrounded with endomysium, is known as perimysium. Each bundle of muscle fibres covered with perimysium is known as fasciculus (plural: fasciculi).
  3. Epimysium: The layer of connective tissue that surrounds some bundles of muscle fibres together is known as epimysium.

Skeletal Muscle Contractile Proteins Physiological properties: The physiological properties of skeletal muscles are as follows—

  • Excitability: If a suitable stimulus is applied to a voluntary muscle fibre, then it will get excited. This phenomenon is known as excitability. The stimulus can be chemical, electrical, mechanical, thermal, etc.
  • Contractility: Muscle fibres contract due to the excitation caused by the appropriate stimulus. This is known as contractility. It is an important property of muscle fibres. Mainly contractile proteins are responsible for the contraction of the muscle fibres.
  • Refractory period: A voluntary muscle fibre contracts when a threshold stimulus (an optimum stimulus that could generate a contraction) is applied to it. After this, for a small interval of time, the muscle fibre will not contract further, if another stimulus is applied at this stage.
  • The small interval of time is known as the refractory period. In mammals, the absolute refractory period is 0.002-0.005 seconds.

This period can be categorised into two types—

  • The absolute refractory period is the initial period of the refractory period during which the muscle fibres will not contract even if a very strong stimulus is applied.
  • The relative refractory period is the end period of the refractory period when the muscle starts to contract by the effect of a strong stimulus.

All-or-none law:

  • According to this law or principle, the response of a muscle fibre to a stimulus is independent of the stimulus.
  • If the muscle fibre is given a stimulus that exceeds the threshold potential, the nerve of the muscle fibre will give a complete response; otherwise, there is no response.
  • The contraction will not increase further even if the force of the stimulus is increased. This is the all-or-none law.

Latent period: It is the time gap between the application of a stimulus and the generation of the response.

Simple Muscle Curve

Contraction and relaxation of muscle fibres occur due to excitation. The recording of relaxation and contraction of muscle fibres by the kymograph is known as a simple muscle curve.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Simple Muscle Curve

Summation of stimuli: In case of a stimulus lower than the threshold level, no contraction occurs within the voluntary muscles.

But if the same stimulus is applied repeatedly, between the latent period and refractory period of the first stimulus, then contraction of muscles can be observed.

Individually the stimulus could not evoke a contraction. However, the summation of those separate stimuli was able to generate a contraction as their cumulative value exceeded the threshold level.

Muscle twitch: A muscle fibre contracts only once if it is stimulated by a single stimulus of adequate strength. It relaxes immediately after the contraction. Together, this individual event of contraction and relaxation of muscle is known as muscle twitch.

Tetanus: If a muscle fibre is introduced to a rapid succession of stimuli for a certain period of time, then the rate of stimulation will be so high that the muscle fibres will be unable to relax between the two stimuli.

This will lead the muscle to a state when muscle twitches are converted to sustained contraction as long as the stimuli continue. This is known as tetanus.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Muscle Twiches Summate To Produce A Tetanised Contraction

Rigour mortis: After death, the muscle cells can no longer produce ATP and therefore the cross-bridges between muscle fibres cannot be broken. This causes muscle stiffness called rigour mortis.

Fatigue: Muscle fatigue refers to the use-dependent decrease in the ability of a muscle to generate force.

The causes of fatigue are not entirely understood. In most cases, however, muscle fatigue is correlated with the production of lactic acid due to excessive working of the muscles.

Lactic acid is produced by the anaerobic respiration of glucose, which is obtained from glycogen present in the muscles and blood. Lactate production and muscle fatigue are therefore also related to the depletion of muscle glycogen.

Muscle Fatigue

During excess muscular activity or if a muscle fibre is stimulated continuously, the contracting ability of the muscle gradually decreases and ultimately fails to contract for some time. This condition is known as muscle fatigue.

Muscle Fatigue Causes:

  • The large amount of energy required for contraction and relaxation of muscles is produced by the aerobic oxidation of glycogen.
  • However, due to excess oxidation, the muscle cells receive insufficient oxygen.
  • As a result of which, partial oxidation of the glycogen takes place. This oxidation produces lactic acid.
  • Thus, the concentration of lactic acid increases in the muscles. The stored lactic acid stops the muscle contraction for some time and causes muscle fatigue.

Relief from muscle fatigue: If the fatigued muscles remain in the resting stage for some time, then they will get a sufficient amount of oxygen. As a result, complete oxidation occurs and the muscles can overcome the fatigued condition slowly.

Structure of skeletal muscle: A detailed description of this topic has been provided.

Muscle Fatigue  Types: Depending on structure and function, skeletal muscles are of different types.

On the basis of function: Details are discussed in the table given below.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Types of Skeletal muscles On The Basis Of Their Functions

On the basis of structure: On the basis of structure, skeletal muscles are of two types—white and red muscles.

White muscles: Some of the muscles possess a very small quantity of myoglobin and therefore, appear pale or whitish. These are categorised as white muscles.

The number of mitochondria is also few in them, but the amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high. They depend on anaerobic processes for energy.

Example: White muscles are mostly found in amphibians and birds.

Red muscles: Some muscles contain a high concentration of myoglobin and hence appear red in colour.

These muscles are called the red muscles. They contain a large number of mitochondria which produce ATP by aerobic metabolism.

These muscles, therefore, can also be called aerobic muscles. Example: Red muscles are found in mammals.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Differences Between White And Red Muscles

Structure Of Contractile Proteins

  • Every skeletal muscle is composed of myofibrils. These myofibrils are composed of myofilaments.
  • The proteins present in the myofilaments are responsible for the contraction and relaxation of myofibrils.
  • These are known as contractile proteins. Mainly, two types of contractile proteins are found in human beings.

Actin Filament

The thin filamentous protein among the contractile proteins of myofibrils is known as actin filament. It is also known as secondary myofilament.

Actin Filament Number: Each myofibril is composed of about 3,000 actin filaments.

Actin Filament Characteristics:

  1. Actin filaments are present in between two Z-lines (except the H-zone), generally all over the sarcomere.
  2. The length and diameter of each fibre are lum and SOA respectively.
  3. Actin filament is composed of mainly three types of proteins—actin, tropomyosin and troponin.
  4. One end of these fibres remains attached to the Z-line (a zigzag line that separates two adjacent units of muscle or sarcomere) and another end is attached between the two myosin filaments.

Actin Filament Structure: The actin filament is composed of three types of proteins. They are discussed below.

  1. Actin: An actin filament consists of actin monomers polymerised into a large molecule that looks like two strands of pearls twisted together.
  2. Actin is found in two forms —G-actin and F-actin.
  3. When actin is present in the form of small monomers, then it is known as G-actin. Its molecular weight is about 42,000 Da.
  4. G-actin proteins form fibrous polymers in the presence of Mgz+. The filamentous structure formed by these fibrous polymers is known as F-actin.
  5. Two F-actin fibres form a double helix which forms a single main actin filament (lpm in length).
  6. During muscle contraction, myosin fibre attaches to the active site of the F-actin.

Tropomyosin:

  • Tropomyosin is a type of long and thin protein molecule, present around the grooves of the actin chains.
  • Its molecular weight is about 70,000 Da and its length is 40nm.
  • During normal conditions, tropomyosin molecules remain attached to the active site of the F-actin.

Troponin: Troponins are small globular proteins present in tropomyosin at intervals. Each troponin molecule has three peptide subunits—

  1. Troponin-T: Connects the troponin with tropomyosin,
  2. Troponin-I: Prevents the attachment of myosin and actin.
  3. Troponin-C: Helps in muscle contraction in the presence of Ca2+ ions. The troponin complex (troponin-C, troponin-l and troponin-T) together with tropomyosin, form the calcium-sensitive switch that activates muscle contraction.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Contractile Proteins Of Skeletal Muscles fibres

Myosin Filament

The thick filamentous protein among the contractile proteins of myofibrils is known as myosin filament. It is also known as primary myofilament.

Myosin Filament Number: Each myofibril is composed of 1,500 myosin fibres.

Myosin Filament Characteristics:

  1. These fibres are present in the A-band of the sarcomere.
  2. The length and diameter of each myosin fibre are about 1.6 fim and 100A respectively.
  3. Different types of myosin proteins are present in myosin fibres. Among them, myosin-II protein (also known as conventional myosin) helps in the contraction of skeletal muscles.
  4. Both ends of the myosin fibres are free.

Myosin Filament Structure:

  1. Each filament contains about 200 myosin molecules.
  2. Each myosin molecule is composed of six polypeptide chains. Among these, two are heavy chains and four are light chains.
  3. Each myosin fibre has a head region and a long tail part.
  4. The long tails (heavy chains) of two myosin fibres wrap around each other to form a dimer, which in turn aggregates to form the myosin filament.
  5. Their head regions (light chains) are lined precisely opposite to the actin filaments.
  6. When viewed in transverse sections, the actin filaments form a hexagonal pattern around each myosin filament.
  7. The bundles of myosin filaments are held in a centred position within the sarcomere by a protein called titin.
  8. The myosin head contains a specific binding site for actin fibre.
  9. The head can act as an ATPase enzyme. Due to this property, it gathers energy for contraction by hydrolysis of the ATP molecules.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Structure Of Myosin Fibre

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Differences Between Actin And Myosin Filaments

Contraction Of Skeletal Muscle

  • The region of the sarcolemma that lies just below the terminal end of the axon, is known as the motor endplate.
  • The synapse or junction formed between the axon terminal and the motor endplate is known as a neuromuscular junction.
  • Each branch of the axon ends in an axon terminal that lies in close proximity to the sarcolemma of a muscle fibre.
  • These neurons release acetylcholine with the help of Ca+2 ions in response to action potentials (i.e., change in j electrical potential in cells during a nerve impulse).
  • Acetylcholine is a chemical substance that transmits the impulse between the nerve and muscle cell, hence, called a neurotransmitter. Acetylcholine is present at the neuromuscular junction.
  • The contractile proteins (actin and myosin) cause contraction of muscle fibres when the impulse is transmitted.
  • Muscle fibres are innervated and are stimulated to contract by motor neurons.
  • These neurons have their cell body in the spinal cord and their axons are projected outside to enter the effector organiser
  • The axon of one motor neuron has several branches and can stimulate a few to several muscle fibres of a particular muscle.

Neuromuscular Junction

  • The junction between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the skeletal muscle fibre is known as a neuromuscular junction or motor end plate.
  • The nerve impulses from the motor neurons cross the neuromuscular junction and are transported to skeletal muscles by the neurotransmitter molecules.
  • Here the end of the motor neurons become flat, broad and extended which is known as end feet.
  • The membrane present at the nerve end is known as the presynaptic membrane. This portion is rich in mitochondria. The spaces between the motor neurons and the sarcolemma of the skeletal muscles are known as synaptic clefts.
  • Synaptic cleft contains numerous vesicles containing acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter. These vesicles are called synaptic vesicles. The sarcolemma is folded at the neuromuscular junctions of the skeletal muscles.
  • These are known as postsynaptic membranes. The folds that occur in the membranes are known as subneural clefts.
  • These clefts contain many receptor proteins. The acetylcholine molecules are released by the synaptic vesicles in the synaptic cleft.
  • These neurotransmitters are transported to skeletal muscle fibres by binding with acceptor proteins present in the subneural clefts.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Neuromuscular Junction

Mechanism of contraction of skeletal muscle was The mechanism of contraction of skeletal muscle best explained through—‘Sliding filament theory’. This was proposed by two groups of scientists—A. F.

Huxley and R. Nierdergerke, 1954; H. E. Huxley and J. Hansen, 1954.

According to this theory, events of muscle contraction are divided into two parts—

Physical events of muscle contraction, and biochemical and electrical events of muscle contraction.

Physical Events of Muscle Contraction:

  • During muscle contraction, thick myosin fibres and thin actin fibres combine with each other by forming a cross-bridge. After this, myosin fibres pull the actin fibres towards the centre of the sarcomere.
  • At this time Z-lines of the muscle fibres come closer to each other. As a result, the length of the sarcomere decreases.
  • Contraction of l-band and H-zone (Heller zone from ‘heller’ in German, meaning brighter) takes place. The M-line crossing the H-zone centrally is also called the Micellar line or programme line.
  • Only the length of the A-band remains unchanged.
  • Due to contraction, the length of the muscle decreases but the volume remains the same.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Changes In Sarcomere During Normal Condition And During Contration

Biochemical and electrical events during muscle contraction: The steps of biochemical and electrical events during muscle contraction are as follows—

Discharge of neurotransmitter by motor nerve: The motor neurons arising from the spinal cord or brain stem, release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. In response to this, action potentials travel down the axon towards the skeletal muscle cell.

Binding of neurotransmitter at skeletal muscle fibre: The amount of acetylcholine released is proportional to the frequency of action potentials travelling down the axon. Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to a receptor protein, the nicotinic receptor, on the muscle cell membrane.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Connection Between Neurotransmitter And Skeletal Muscles

Generation of Action Potential at Skeletal Muscle Fibre:

  • The nicotinic receptors form channels that allow sodium and potassium ion influx to the muscle cells.
  • This causes partial depolarisation of the cell membrane in the synaptic cleft.
  • This depolarization generates an endplate action potential or action potential. This action potential acts as an indicator of muscle contraction.

Release of Ca2+ ions:

  • Muscle fibres store Ca2+ in a modified endoplasmic reticulum known as sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).
  • When a muscle fibre is stimulated to contract, an electrical impulse travels into T tubules. This triggers the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Release of the Active site of Actin Filament by Ca2+ ion:

  • When a muscle is relaxed, myosin heads are unable to bind to actin.
  • This is because the active sites (attachment sites) for the myosin heads on the actin are blocked by tropomyosin.
  • Thus, myosins are unable to bind with actin. Tropomyosin is held in place by troponin.
  • When the concentration of Ca2+ is raised in the sarcoplasm, Ca2+ binds to troponin. This causes the conformational change in troponin. This causes the troponin-tropomyosin complex to be shifted away from the active sites.

Formation of Energised Myosin Heads:

  • An ATP molecule attaches to the active site of the myosin head. The head acts as an ATPase enzyme.
  • This causes hydrolysis of the ATP in the presence of Ca2+ and Mg2+ to produce ADP and Pi. The myosin head takes up the energy released and becomes highly energised.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Binding Of Actin And Myosin Head

Formation of Cross-Bridges:

  • The energised myosin heads are attached to actin by forming cross-bridges.
  • After binding, the myosin heads release the inorganic phosphate and initiate an inward pull called power stroke.
  • This causes inward bending of myosin filament, thereby shortening the sarcomere.
  • The myosin heads then release the ADP molecule but still remain tightly bound to the active, until a new ATP molecule is bound to it. Then the heads separate from the actin filament.
  • This process occurs in a cyclic manner as long as ATP and Ca2+ are present in the sarcoplasm. This is how actin slides and contraction of muscles takes place.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Mechanism Of Muscle Contraction

Types of Muscle Contraction are—

  1. Isometric muscle contraction, and
  2. Isotonic muscle contraction.

Isometric Muscle Contraction: The muscle contractions in which the length of the muscle remains the same but tension or force increases, are called isometric muscle contractions.

The term ‘isometric1 has been derived from the Greek words isos meaning equal and metric meaning measuring

The characteristics of Isometric Muscle Contractions are—

Isometric contractions occur as a phase of normal muscle contraction but also provide tautness and stability to the body.

  • The weight of the muscles is more than the force of this contraction.
  • No mechanical work is carried out by this type of contraction in muscles.
  • Most of the free energy produced during this type of contraction of the muscles is released as heat energy.

Example: The contraction of muscles during chewing, writing, etc.

Isotonic Muscle Contraction: The muscle contractions in which the tension within the muscle during contraction remains the same but the length of the muscle changes are called isotonic muscle contractions.

The term ‘isotonic’ has been derived from two Greek words—isos meaning equal and tonic meaning strength.

The characteristics of Isometric Muscle Contractions are—

Isometric contractions occur as a phase of normal muscle contraction but also provide tautness and stability to the body.

  • The weight of the muscles is more than the force of this contraction.
  • No mechanical work is carried out by this type of contraction in muscles.
  • Most of the free energy produced during this type of contraction of the muscles is released as heat energy.

Example: The contraction of muscles during chewing, writing, etc.

Isotonic Muscle Contraction: The muscle contractions in which the tension within the muscle during contraction remains the same but the length of the muscle changes are called isotonic muscle contractions.

The term ‘isotonic’ has been derived from two Greek words—isos meaning equal and tonic meaning strength.

Changes occurring during muscle contraction The changes occurring during muscle contraction can be divided into several types.

Physical Change: The length of the muscle fibres decreases and thickness increases during muscle contraction. The volume of the muscles remains unchanged.

Chemical Change: The energy required for muscle contraction is produced by hydrolysis of ATP.

Due to repeated hydrolysis of ATP, its amount gradually decreases in the cells. It is replenished by various chemical reactions. These chemical reactions are discussed under separate heads.

Glycolysis, Krebs cycle and terminal respiration: Synthesis of ATP, C02, water, lactic acid, etc., take place due to these chemical reactions.

Changes in creatine phosphate or phosphagen: Creatine phosphate is a highly energised compound. This compound is present in large amounts in muscle cells. It supplies inorganic phosphates during the conversion of ADP into ATP during muscle contraction.

Change in pH: During the initial stage of normal muscle contraction, the pH remains basic. But if the muscle contracts for a prolonged period of time, then due to the accumulation of lactic acid, the pH becomes acidic. ATP synthesis also occurs during this stage.

Thermal change: During muscle contraction, some of the energy is released in the form of heat energy. This energy is released in three forms—

The heat of activation: The heat energy released from the muscles just after receiving the stimulus, prior to contraction is called heat of activation. The amount of heat gradually decreases with muscle contraction.

Heat of shortening: The heat energy produced due to various structural changes during muscle contraction is called heat of shortening.

Recovery heat: The heat energy produced after muscle contraction, during re-synthesis of substances dissociated during muscle contraction, is called recovery heat.

Electric charge: The electric potential found in the muscles during their resting stage, is known as resting potential.

Its value is -70 mV. During muscle contraction, different ions are transported between the intracellular and extracellular fluids in the stimulated region of the sarcomere.

As a result, the resting potential is converted to the action potential. Its value is +35 mV.

Functions Of Skeletal Muscle

The functions of skeletal muscles are discussed below.

Movement of body parts: The skeleton muscles allow flexible body movement. These muscles remain attached to bones with the help of tendons. So, the muscle contraction leads to movement of different body parts.

Storage of glucose: Excess glucose present in the blood converts into glycogen by the process of glycogenesis. The glucose remains stored in the skeletal muscles as glycogen.

Maintainance of body structure: Skeletal muscles along with the bones maintain the structure of the body.

Maintainance of body balance: Skeletal muscles help to maintain the body balance.

Respiration: Skeletal muscles, especially the intercostal muscles, help in respiration.

Locomotion in animals is accomplished by the force of muscles acting on a rigid skeletal system.

The skeletal system consists of the bones and joints, along with cartilage and ligaments.

There are two types of skeletal systems found in the animal kingdom—exoskeleton, and endoskeleton. These are discussed under separate heads.

Exoskeleton: Exoskeletons can be of different forms, including horns, claws, nails, hooves, scales, etc.

  • In general, they are hard outer coverings, that provide physical protection to soft internal body parts of animals. Exoskeletons also provide sites for muscle attachment. In most of the species, this structure surrounds the body as a rigid hard case.
  • Arthropods, such as crustaceans and insects, have exoskeletons made of the polysaccharide, chitin. Having an exoskeleton also limits the size of the animal.
  • Animals with exoskeletons cannot grow too large. This is because if the animal grows larger, its exoskeleton will become thicker and heavier and will cause hindrance in movement and locomotion.

Endoskeleton: An endoskeleton consists of hard, mineralised structures located within the soft tissues of organisms. The endoskeleton is present in vertebrates.

An example of a primitive endoskeletal structure is the spicule of sponges. The bones of vertebrates are composed of tissues, whereas sponges have no true tissues.

Endoskeletons provide support to the body, protect internal organs, and allow movement through the contraction of muscles, attached to the skeleton.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Differences Between Endoskeleteton And Exoskleton

Description Of The Human Skeletal System

The skeletal system, in an adult body, is made up of 206 individual bones.

The endoskeleton is arranged into two major divisions—the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton.

The tissues of the axial and appendicular skeletons are bone (both compact and Fh spongy), cartilage (hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage), and dense connective tissue (a type of fibrous connective tissue).

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Skeletal Endoskeletal System Of Adult Human

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Human Skeletal Sysytem

Axial Skeleton

Axial Skeleton Definition: The bones of the skeleton, which form the main longitudinal axis of the body in humans and other vertebrates, are together known as the axial skeleton, It is formed of 80 bones.

The appendicular skeleton is attached to the axial skeleton. The main parts of the axial skeleton are—the skull, thoracic cage and vertebral column.

Skull

The skull is the bony, hollow, round-shaped structure of the axial skeletal system, that protects our brain.

Characteristics:

  1. The skull is composed of 29 bones, that are fused together, except the mandible.
  2. These skull bones are not fused in children, but rather loosely attached with connective tissues.
  3. This allows the growth of the skull. In adults, the skull bones fuse to give added strength and protection to the soft tissues and brain.

Parts: The four main parts of the skull are—the cranium, facial bones, hyoid bone and auditory ossicles.

Cranium: The box-shaped structure made of 8 flat bones, present at the superior portion of the skull is known as the cranium.

The characteristics of the cranium are as follows—

  1. It is formed of 8 flat bones.
  2. These bones are separated from each other by immovable joints called sutures.
  3. The cranium is composed of one frontal bone, two parietal bones, one occipital bone, two temporal bones, one sphenoid bone, and one ethmoid bone.
  4. An orifice, known as the foramen magnum, is present behind the skull. The spinal cord remains attached to the brain through this orifice.
  5. The cranium is also known as the neurocranium and rainbow, as it contains the brain. It protects the brain from damage.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Number Location And Characteristics Of Bones Of Cranium

Facial bones: The bones of the inferior and anterior portions of the skull are known as facial bones.

The characteristics of facial bone are as follows—

  • There are 14 facial bones.
  • These bones generally form both the jaws, some sense organs like eyes, nose, ears, mouth and a part of the nasal passage.
  • The face is composed of one mandible (the lower jaw), the only movable bone in the skull.
  • Other bones of the face are two maxillae (upper jaw), two palatine, two zygomatic, two lacrimal, two nasal, one vomer and two inferior nasal conchae.
  • These bones support the eyes nose and mouth.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Human skull

Hyoid bone: The hyoid bone is a small, U-shaped bone found just inferior to the mandible.

It is the only bone in the body that does not have any joint and it is a floating bone.

The functions of the hyoid bone are as follows—

  • The hyoid bone helps in various movements of the tongue, larynx and pharynx.
  • Its function is to hold the trachea open and to form a bony connection for the tongue muscles.

Auditory ossicles:

  • The three bones present in the ear malleus, incus, and stapes, are collectively known as the auditory ossicles.
  • They are found in a small cavity inside the temporal bone. These bones are among the smallest bones in the human body.
  • Malleus, incus and stapes are commonly known as hammer, anvil and stirrup, respectively.

The functions of auditory ossicles are as follows—

The ossicles help to transmit vibrations of sound waves, from the tympanum through the middle ear to the oval window of the inner ear.

They also protect the ear from damage caused by loud sounds.

Functions of the skull:

  • The skull protects the brain.
  • It also protects our main sensory organs—eyes, ears, nose and tongue.
  • Jaws and teeth help in the mastication of food.
  • The skull also protects the pituitary gland located at a depression (sella turcica) on the sphenoid bone of the skull.
  • The opening present at the end of the skull called the foramen magnum, connects the spinal cord to the brain.

Thoracic Cage (Rid Cage)

A frame-like structure formed by flat bones, that is present within the thoracic region is known as a thoracic cage.

Thoracic Cage (Rid Cage) Characteristics:

  • The rib cage, sometimes called the thoracic cage is the arrangement of bones in the thorax region.
  • It is formed by thoracic vertebrae 12 of the vertebral column, ribs and associated cartilages, and sternum.
  • The rib cage encloses the heart and lungs.

Parts: The parts of the rib cage have been described under separate heads below.

Ribs: The 12 pairs of narrow and flat bones, originating from both sides of the vertebral column, are known as ribs.

Characteristics:

  • All twelve pairs of ribs are attached to the thoracic vertebrae of the vertebral column,
  • The first seven pairs of ribs (upper ribs) connect the thoracic vertebrae directly to the sternum and are known as “true ribs”,
  • The next three pairs of ribs (Ribs 8, 9, and 10) originated from the 8th, 9th and 10th thoracic vertebrae and are connected to the sternum indirectly via the costal cartilage of the 7th rib, and due to this they are considered as “false ribs.”
  • The last two pairs of ribs (11 and 12), are not attached to the sternum. They remain free in front, and are termed as “floating ribs”.

Function: The functions of the ribs are, the formation of the thoracic cage and also protection of internal organs such as the lungs, heart, etc. The elasticity of the false ribs allows movement of the rib cage during respiratory activity.

Sternum; The sternum, or breastbone, is a thin, knife-shaped bone located at the anterior side of the thoracic region along the midline of the body.

Characteristics:

  • The sternum is connected to the ribs by thin bands of cartilage, called the costal cartilage,
  • The sternum is composed of three bones—manubrium, body, and xiphoid process, that fuse during foetal development.

Function:

  • The sternum participates in the formation of the thoracic cavity,
  • It helps to join different muscles.
  • It also protects the heart, aorta, vena cava, etc.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Thoracic Cage

Functions of the thoracic cage:

  • The thoracic cage protects the heart, lungs and the main blood vessels.
  • The functions of ribs are dependent on the function of intercostal muscles.
  • Due to the action of these muscles, ribs help the lungs to expand and relax during breathing. Thus, the ribs play a key role in respiration.
  • In humans, ribs contain red bone marrow throughout their life. So, they produce RBCs, some WBCs and platelets in them.
  • The two pairs of floating ribs protect the liver and other organs in the abdominal cavity.

Vertebral column

A long pillar-like structure, composed of bones called vertebrae, present as the longitudinal axis, at the dorsal side of the body, is called the vertebral column.

Characteristics:

  1. The vertebral column, also known as the backbone or spine, extends from the skull to the pelvis.
  2. It consists of 33 bones, (In an adult person it becomes 26 in total due to the fusion of some lower vertebrae) the vertebrae.
  3. They are separated by pads of fibrocartilage, known as the intervertebral discs.
  4. The vertebral column forms the vertical axis and is located in the middorsal region.
  5. The skull rests on the superior end of the vertebral column.
  6. The vertebral column supports the rib cage and serves as a point of attachment for the pelvic girdle.
  7. The vertebral column also protects the spinal cord (part of the central nervous system), which passes through a hollow space called the vertebral canal, created by vertebrae.
  8. They are named according to their location, such as—cervical vertebrae
  9. Present at the neck region, thoracic vertebrae
  10. (12) Present at the thorax region, lumbar vertebrae (5) present at the lower back region, sacrum or sacral vertebra (1) present at the end of the spine and coccyx or caudal vertebra (1) present as the tailbone.
  11. With the exception of the sacrum and coccyx, each vertebra is named as the first letter of its region and its position along the superior-inferior axis.
  12. For example, the most superior thoracic vertebra is called Tx and the most inferior is called T12.
  13. The cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae remain separate and are known as movable vertebrae.
  14. In adults, 5 vertebrae fuse together to form the sacrum and 4 vertebrae fuse to form the coccyx.
  15. Every vertebra has a large, anterior middle portion called the centrum or body. Each vertebra also contains a central hole, called vertebral foramen (plural—foramina). The foramina of the vertebrae together form a hollow channel, called a neural canal. The spinal cord passes through this channel.
  16. The vertebral column is not a straight structure, rather it is curved.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Sacrum And Coccyx, Lumber Vertebra

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Different Types Of Vertebrae Depending On Location Their Numner And Characteristics

  • Curvatures of the vertebral column: There are four curves present in the vertebral column known as curvatures.
  • Cervical curvature: The posterior convex curve, present in the region of neck vertebrae, is known as the cervical curve or curvature.
  • Thoraciccmvatme:‘The anterior concave curve, present at the chest region, is known as thoracic curvature.
  • Lumbar curvature: The posterior convex curve, present in the abdominal region, is known as lumbar curvature.
  • Sacral curvature: The anterior concave curve, present Sacml curvature.

Functions of the vertebral column:

  1. It acts as the longitudinal axis of the axial skeleton, and the skull is situated on it.
  2. The vertebral column protects the spinal cord running through it.
  3. It also maintains body balance.
  4. The intervertebral discs provide the flexible movement of the vertebral column.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Comparision Among Cervial Thoracic And Lumnbar Vertebrae

Appendicular Skeleton

Appendicular Skeleton Definition: The skeleton, attached to the axial skeleton that includes the bones of girdles and limbs is known as the appendicular skeleton.

The appendicular skeleton is made up of 126 bones. The appendicular skeleton has four parts. These pectoral girdle, arms, pelvic girdle, and legs.

Pectoral Girdle

The part of the skeleton, which connects the arm bones to the axial skeleton, is known as the pectoral girdle.

Pectoral girdle Characteristics:

  • The pectoral girdle connects the upper limb (arm) bones to the axial skeleton.
  • The pectoral girdle (shoulder girdle) contains four bones— two clavicles and two scapulae.
  • The bones of this girdle are weakly attached and held in place by ligaments and muscles.

Pectoral Girdle Functions: It supports the arms and serves as a point of attachment for muscles, responsible for the movement of the arms.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Scapula and Clavicle

Arms

The arms are part of the skeleton, which includes the bones of the upper arm, forearm, wrist joint, palm and five fingers

Arms Characteristics: Arms are attached to the pectoral girdle. They are composed of 60 (30 in each upper limb) bones.

The characteristics of the bones of the arms are discussed in the table below.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Bones Of A Arm

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Bones Of A Hand

Arms Functions: Arms Help The Animal to perform different works such as grasping climbing etc.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Radius And Ulna And Humerus

Pelvic Girdle

The part of the skeleton, connecting the bones of the legs to the axial skeleton, is known as the pelvic girdle.

Pelvic Girdle Characteristics:

  1. The pelvic girdle is formed by the left and right of the coxae or hip bones.
  2. The pelvic girdle also contains the sacrum and coccyx, wedged in between two hip bones.
  3. The true pelvis is the portion of the trunk bounded by the sacrum, lower ilium, ischium, and pubic bones. It is inferior to the false pelvis.
  4. The upper part of the ilium is broad and flat, which is connected to the sacral segment of the vertebral column and forms the sacroiliac joint.
  5. Pubis and ischium remain attached at the lower part of the ilium.
  6. The obturator foramen (a hole) is present between the pubis and ischium.
  7. The cup-shaped cavity of the pelvic girdle is known as the acetabulum. The femur remains attached to the pelvic girdle by forming a ball and socket joint with this acetabulum.
  8. The ends of the pubis are connected with slightly movable joints and are known as symphysis pubis.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Pelvic Girdle

Pelvic Girdle Functions:

  1. The strong bones of the pelvic girdle bear the weight of the body.
  2. The pelvis also serves as the point of attachment for the lower limbs. It provides protection to the urinary bladder, reproductive organs, and a portion of the large intestine.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Differences Between Pelvic And pectoral Girdles

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Differences Between Male Pelvic Gridle And Female Pelvic Girdle

Legs

The legs are the lower parts of the skeleton which include the bones of the thigh (femur), kneecap (patella), leg (tibia and fibula) and foot (tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges)

Legs Characteristics: Legs are attached to the pelvic girdle. They are composed of 60 (30 in each leg) bones. The characteristics of the bones of the legs are discussed in the table below

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Differences Bones And Parts Of The Leg

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Femur,Tibia and fibula, foot Bones

Legs Functions:

  1. In infants, the patella gives support to the knee during walking and crawling.
  2. The tibia bears almost the whole weight of the body.
  3. The fibula is mainly a point of muscle attachment and it maintains the body balance.

Functions Of The Human Skeletal System

The endoskeleton of a human being is composed of bones, cartilage, ligaments, etc. It plays various roles in our body.

Human Skeletal System Structure formation: It forms a rigid structure of the body and provides mechanical strength to it.

The endoskeleton is covered with muscles, skin, etc., which provide a definite shape to the body.

Human Skeletal System Role in increasing length: During adolescence, the cartilage present at the end of the long bones divides frequently causing the length of the bones to increase.

As a result, height increases during adolescence. Protects various internal organs: It protects various important parts of our body, such as the brain, neural canal, lungs, etc., from external damage.

Human Skeletal System Helps in movement and locomotion: Skeletal muscles move due to the activity of voluntary muscles. This causes movement of different parts of the body and bipedal locomotion in human beings.

Human Skeletal System Acts as storage: Stores minerals, such as calcium and phosphate. It also maintains the balance of minerals in the blood.

Human Skeletal System Production of blood cells:

  • During birth red bone marrow is present in all the bones. These are the main sites for RBC formation.
  • Besides RBCs, some WBCs, such as neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, etc., are also formed from red bone marrow.
  • In human beings, platelets are formed from human beings, platelets are formed from megakaryocyte cells.

Human Skeletal System Role in hearing: Helps in hearing by transmitting sound waves to the inner ear through the middle ear.

The auditory ossicles act as an amplifying device for sound waves and also protect the inner ear from loud sound.

Human Skeletal System Role in breathing: The sternum and ribs of the thoracic cage help in breathing. They enable the expansion and relaxation of the lungs.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Difference Between Skeletal System Of Females And Males

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Some Important Bones And Muscles Of Human Body

Bone Joints Or Articulations

Bone Joints Or Articulations Definition: A joint or articulation is a point of contact between bones, between a bone and a cartilage, or between a bone and a tooth.

The study of joints is termed as arthrology.

Bone Joints Or Articulations Types: Depending on structure and function, there are various types of joints in our body.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Bone Joints

Immovable Bone Joints Or Synarthroses

Immovable Bone Joints Or Synarthroses Definition: The synarthroses (singular: synarthrosis) or immovable bone joints are the type of joints, where two or more bones are joined together by fibrous tissue and are unable to move.

These are also known as fibrous joints. Immovable joints are mainly of three types—

  1. Suture, bones with irregular surfaces, are tightly joined with each other by fibrous connective tissues. These types of fibrous joints are known as sutures. Example joints present between bones of the cranium.
  2. Gomphosis, which are immovable fibrous joints, where a pointed or peg-like portion of a bone is inserted into the socket or cavity of another bone, are known as gomphosis (singular: gomphosis). Example joints that bind the teeth in their sockets in the maxillary bone and mandible.
  3. Syndesmosis, are immovable joints, where the bones are connected by connective tissue or collagen fibres, are known as immovable fibrous joints or syndesmoses (singular: syndesmosis). For example the joint between the tibia and the fibula.

Slightly Movable Bone Joints Or Amphiarthroses

Slightly Movable Bone Joints Or Amphiarthroses Definition: The slightly movable bone joints or amphiarthroses (singular: amphiarthrosis) joints are the type of joints, where two or more bones are joined together by collagen fibres or cartilage and are able to move slightly.

These are also known as cartilaginous joints. Slightly movable joints are mainly of two types—

  • Synchondrosis, these are slightly movable joints, where the bones are joined with each other by cartilage, known as synchondroses (singular: synchondrosis). For example the first pair of ribs are joined with the sternum by synchondrosis.
  • Symphysis, these are slightly movable joints, where the bones are joined with one another by fibrous cartilage, are known as slightly movable cartilaginous joints or symphysis (singular: symphysis).
  • For example joints between two adjacent vertebrae and pubic symphysis between two hip bones.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Slightly Movable Points

Freely Movable Bone Joints Bone Or Synovial Bone Joints Or Diarthroses

Diarthroses Definition: The freely movable joints or synovial bone joints or diarthroses (singular: diarthrosis) are the type of joints, where the bones are connected to each other through a joint cavity.

On the basis of structure and function, synovial joints are of six types.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Dreely Movable Or Synovial Bone Joint

Ball and socket joint: In a ball-and-socket joint, a rounded, ball-like end of one bone fits into a cup-like socket of another bone. This organisation allows movements of the bones in all directions. Example the shoulder and hip joints.

Hinge joint: In the hinge joint, the slightly rounded end of one bone fits into the slightly hollow end of the other bone.

These bones are attached in such a manner so that movement will be possible only in one plane. The movement of these joints is similar to the hinge of a door. Example the elbow and knee joints.

Plane or planar joint or gliding joint: In the plane or planar joints, bodies with flat or slightly curved articulating surfaces are packed closely together or held in place by ligaments.

These joints allow gliding movements and hence, these joints are also referred to as gliding joints. Example the articulation between carpal bones in the hand and the tarsal bones of the foot.

Structure Of Synovial Joint

Articular cartilage: The cartilage, that lines the epiphyses of the bones, present at the synovial joint, is known as articular cartilage.

The cartilaginous covering makes the end of the bones smoother reducing friction during movement of the joint. It contains a layer of connective tissue known as perichondrium.

Capsular ligament: These ligaments form capsules and are present at the outer surface of the synovial joints. These ligaments are known as extra-capsular ligaments.

Sometimes inner parts of the bones present at these joints also remain connected with some ligaments. These are known as intra-capsular ligaments. The capsular ligaments keep the bones in their proper position.

Synovial membrane and synovial fluid: A soft layer of glandular epithelial tissue is found between the articular capsule and the synovial cavity.

The space covered with the synovial membrane between the bones of the synovial joint is known as a synovial cavity.

The glands of the synovial membrane secrete a fluid known as synovial fluid. The synovial cavity is filled with this synovial fluid. Synovial fluid provides nutrients to the surrounding cells and reduces friction during movement.

Pivot joint or trochoid joint: In the pivot joint, the rounded end of one bone fits into a shallow pit formed by the other bone.

This structure allows rotational movement, as the rounded bone moves around its own axis. For, the joint of the first and second vertebrae of the neck that allows the head to move back and forth is of this type.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Different Types Of Movable Joints

Angular or ellipsoid or condyloid joint: In a condyloid joint, an oval-shaped end of one bone fits into a similar oval-shaped hollow of another bone.

This is also sometimes called an ellipsoidal joint or angular joint. This type of joint allows movement in two directions, side to side and back to forth. For example, the joints of the wrist and fingers can move both sideways. and also up and down.

Saddle joint: In a saddle joint, concave and convex portions of the two bones fit together, just like a saddle and a rider.

Saddle joints allow movements similar to condyloid joints. For example, the thumb joint, can move back and forth and up and down. It can move more freely than the wrist or fingers.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Differeence Bbetween Ball And Socket Joint And Hinge Joints

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Differeence Bbetween Movable And And Immovable Joints

Disorders Of Muscular And Skeletal System

Improper functioning of the muscular and skeletal system can cause several disorders. Some of them are discussed below.

Myasthenia Gravis

Myasthenia Gravis Definition: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction at the post-synaptic level.

Myasthenia Gravis Symptoms:

  • It is characterised by weakness, fatigue and paralysis of voluntary muscles.
  • In some patients, myasthenia gravis may affect only the muscles of the eye, while others experience multi-system involvement.
  • Muscle weakness in the eye may lead to blurred or double vision (diplopia). Difficulty in chewing, speaking, or swallowing may also be the initial symptoms.

Myasthenia Gravis Cause: It is an autoimmune disease. It is caused by the production of antibodies produced by one’s own body against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (AchR) of the muscles.

In the case of myasthenia gravis, antibodies attack and destroy the acetylcholine receptors needed for muscle contraction. As a result, the muscles become weak.

Myasthenia Gravis Prevention: A high amount of cortisol hormones are used to treat this disease

Tetany

Tetany Definition: Tetany is a disorder marked by rapid muscular spasms, caused by malfunction of the parathyroid gland and consequent hypocalcemia.

Tetany Symptoms:

  • It is neuromuscular activity and associated sensory disturbance.
  • Tetany is characterised by muscle cramps, spasms or tremors. These occur within the muscles when muscle contracts uncontrollably.
  • Tetany may occur in any muscle of the body, such as in the face, fingers or calves. The muscle cramping associated with tetany can be long-lasting and painful.

Tetany Cause: A common cause of tetany is very low levels of calcium in the body. Other common causes of tetany include—alcohol abuse, alkalosis (elevated pH of the blood), hypoparathyroidism, malnutrition, pancreatitis, vitamin D deficiency, etc.

Tetany Prevention: It can be treated by introducing a proper dose of calcium.

Muscular Dystrophy

Muscular Dystrophy Definition: Muscular dystrophy is a rare hereditary muscle disease, characterised by progressive damage of skeletal muscle.

Muscular Dystrophy Symptoms:

  • Weakness and wasting (atrophy) of various voluntary muscles of the body are clinical features of this disease.
  • Depending on the muscular dystrophy subtype, the disorders affect different muscles and have different effects with respect to age, severity and pattern of inheritance.

Muscular Dystrophy Cause: It is a genetic disorder. The absence or defective structure of dystrophin, a muscle cell structural protein, is the basic cause of this disorder.

Muscular Dystrophy Prevention: Presently, no cure for muscular dystrophy is available. Physiotherapy and physical exercise may be helpful to patients suffering from this disorder.

Arthritis

Arthritis Definition: Arthritis is a disease caused by inflammation of one or more joints, leading to pain and difficulty in movement.

Arthritis may be of different types.

Osteoarthritis form of arthritis or osteoarthrosis many bone joints of the body may undergo degenerative changes. This disease is very common in elderly persons.

Arthritis Symptoms:

Painful and swollen joints are the main symptoms of this disease. The pain may reduce temporarily after resting.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Knee Joint Of A Normal Person

Generally, the cartilaginous covering of bones within the joint gets damaged, partially or completely.

This causes friction between the osteoarthritis of arthritis or osteoarthrosis many bone joints of the body may undergo degenerative changes. This disease is very common in elderly persons.

Arthritis Symptoms:

  • Painful and swollen joints are the main symptoms of this disease. The pain may reduce temporarily after resting.
  • Generally, the cartilaginous covering of bones within the joint gets damaged, partially or completely. This causes friction between the bones. This flattens the bones at the articulation.
  • Due to the loss of the cartilage, the joint loses its flexibility and joint becomes stiff. Some patients experience a grating sensation when they move the joint or walk.
  • The synovial membrane swells up due to continuous friction, causing excess synovial fluid to be collected within the joints. This may result in swelling of the joints.

Arthritis Cause:

  1. Osteoarthritis begins in the cartilage.
  2. In obese people of age 65 or above, the cartilage begins to get damaged slowly.
  3. This causes frictional erosion of two opposing bones which results in inflammation of the outer capsule of the joint.

Arthritis Prevention:

  1. Osteoarthritis cannot be cured.
  2. It can be controlled by regular exercise, reducing body weight and changing lifestyle.
  3. In severe cases, joint replacement through a surgical process may be done to get relief.

Rheumatoid Arthritis

It is the most common type of autoimmune disease which is triggered by faulty immune systems.

Rheumatoid Arthritis Symptoms:

  • The patient often finds that the same joint on both sides of the body becomes painfully swollen and stiff.
  • The smaller joints are usually noticeably affected. The joints of fingers, arms, legs and wrists are the most affected ones.
  • The joint is tender to touch.

Rheumatoid Arthritis Cause:

  • It is an autoimmune disease.
  • It is caused when a special antibody or rheumatoid factor attacks the tissues.
  • It damages the synovial membrane at the joints. It is more common in females than males.

Rheumatoid Arthritis Prevention: Presently several disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are used to stop the progression of the disease and to protect joints under the supervision of doctors

Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis Definition: A bone disorder, in which the density and strength of bones get reduced, is known as osteoporosis.

Osteoporosis, literally meaning porous bone, is a severe disorder of bones.

Osteoporosis Symptoms:

  1. Bones become so weak that they are no longer able to support the body weight.
  2. Bones can break, even under slight pressure.
  3. Chronic back pain is another symptom caused by osteoporosis. This pain can worsen even when a person makes very less movements, such as during regular activities, or while coughing, laughing and sneezing.

Osteoporosis Cause:

  1. Osteoporosis occurs when bone tissues and minerals are lost faster than they are replaced.
  2. In females, at the menopause stage, oestrogen secretion reduces gradually.
  3. This can cause osteoporosis.
  4. In males, with increasing age secretion of testosterone reduces gradually, which can cause osteoporosis.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Normal Bone And Osteoporosis Affected Bone

Osteoporosis Prevention:

  1. A proper diet is essential to prevent osteoporosis.
  2. Vitamin D and a calcium-rich diet are essential to prevent as well as to treat this disease.

Fracture And Dislocation

Fracture: It is a medical condition where the continuity of the bone has been broken.

It can occur due to high force or stress. When a bone breaks into two pieces it is known as a simple fracture. When it breaks into more than two pieces then it is known as a compound fracture.

Dislocation: It is the separation of bones from a joint. In this condition, bones are no longer in their normal position.

Gout

Gout Definition: Gout is an ancient and common form of inflammatory arthritis caused by to accumulation of uric acid crystals within the bone joints.

Gout Symptoms:

  1. It is the most common inflammatory arthritis among men. Gout causes sudden painful joint inflammation, usually in one joint.
  2. Joint inflammation causes pain and redness of the joint.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 20 Locomotion And Movement Gout

Gout Cause: Gout is a rheumatic disease, resulting from the accumulation of monosodium urate (sodium salt of uric acid) crystals at the joint. Uric acid is a byproduct formed due to the breakdown of purines.

Hyperuricemia includes heredity, obesity, certain medications such as diuretics and chronic kidney malfunction.

Gout Prevention: Chronic gout can be treated by using medications that lower the uric acid level in the body.

Locomotion And Movement Notes

  1. Autoimmune disorder: A disorder in which the immune system of our body recognizes our healthy cells as foreign and destroys them.
  2. Dystrophin: It is a rod-shaped cytoplasmic protein which connects the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the surrounding extracellular matrix.
  3. Holotrichous cilia: Possesing cilia all over the cell surface.
  4. Hypocalcemia: Low calcium in blood.
  5. Hypoparathyroidism: A condition when the parathyroid gland is not able to produce enough parathyroid hormone.
  6. Hyperuricemia: Excess uric acid level in blood.
  7. Immune response: It is the reaction of the cells and the fluids due to the presence of unknown, foreign substances in the body.
  8. Iris: The thin circular structure of the eye which is responsible for controlling the diameter of the pupil and thus the amount of light reaching the eye.
  9. Pancreatitis: It is the inflammation of the pancreas.
  10. Sella turcica: It is the small cavity present in the sphenoid bone of the cranium. The pituitary gland lies in this cavity.

Points To Remember

  1. The study of locomotion and movement is known as kinesiology.
  2. The study of bones is known as osteology.
  3. The study of muscles is known as mycology.
  4. The minimum stimulus required for the contraction of a muscle is known as the threshold stimulus.
  5. Stapes are the smallest bone present in the human body.
  6. About 260 bones are present in newborns. Some of those fuse with age and the number of bones become 206 in adults.
  7. There are 8 cranial bones—1 frontal, 2 parietal, 1 occipital, 2 temporal, 1 sphenoid and 1 ethmoid bone.
  8. The bone, which forms the upper jaw, is known as the maxilla and the bone which forms the lower jaw, is known as the mandible.
  9. The density and strength of bones decrease due to a deficiency of calcium and phosphorus in bones. This disorder is known as osteoporosis.
  10. Osteopetrosis is an inherited disorder of bones. In this disorder, bones become harder and denser.
  11. An abnormal condition, where a person can feel his or her missing body part attached in its proper position in the body, is known as phantom limb In deficiency of ATP after death the cross-bridges formed between actin and myosin fibres do not break and the dead body becomes stiff. This condition is known as rigour mortis.
  12. The tension that occurs during the muscle contraction is known as muscle tension.
  13. The minimal stimulus of infinite duration which results in muscle contraction is known as rheobase.
  14. The minimum time, needed for a stimulus to double the strength of the rheobase to cause the muscle contraction, is known as chronaxie.
  15. The muscles, which are light in colour due to lack of myoglobin, are known as white muscle. The rate of contraction is high in these muscles, hence known as fast muscles.
  16. The muscles, which are dark in colour due to a huge amount of myoglobin, are known as red muscles. The rate of contraction is low in these muscles, hence they are known as slow muscles.
  17. When a stimulus is introduced to the muscles, the muscle first contracts and then relaxes. The contraction and relaxation together are known as muscle twitch.
  18. If a muscle fibre is introduced to a stimulus continuously for a certain period of time, then the rate of stimulation will be so high that the muscle fibre will be unable to relax between two stimuli. In this condition, the muscle twitches are converted to smooth, sustained contractions, known as tetanus.
  19. During excess muscular activity or when a muscle fibre is stimulated continuously without any break, the contracting ability of the muscle gradually decreases and ultimately the muscle fails to contract for some time. This condition is known as muscle fatigue.
  20. The cyclic pathway, in which the lactic acid produced by glycolysis in the muscles is transported to the liver, converted to glucose, again returned to muscles and metabolised into lactic acid, is known as the Cori cycle.
  21. The method of evaluating and recording the electrical activity of the skeletal muscles is known as electromyography.
  22. The Y-shaped bones found at the ventral side of the tail in reptiles, such as lizards, snakes, etc., are known as chevron bones. Its main function is to protect nerves and blood vessels in the tail.
  23. The tibia or shin bone is the strongest bone of the body.
  24. The two bones which help the birds to fly are pectoralis major and pectoralis minor.
  25. The disorder related to inflammation of joints is known as arthritis.
  26. In some people, an extra floating rib is found, this is known as gorilla rib.
  27. A short band of tough, flexible fibrous connective tissue which connects two bones together is called a ligament and a flexible but inelastic cord of strong fibrous collagen tissue attaching a muscle to a bone is called a tendon.

Chemical Coordination and Integration Notes

Chemical Coordination Introduction

So far you have studied the different organ systems of the human body. Different organs constituting these systems, carry out different functions.

All these functions are in turn controlled and coordinated by two I organ systems. One of them is the nervous system.

The other one about which you shall learn in this chapter is the 1 endocrine system.

The two systems mentioned above, though similar, show some differences as well. Differences between these two systems (on the basis of their process of coordination) have been discussed below.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Nervous System And Endocrine System

All organisms have the ability to coordinate their activities with constant changes in the environment. In doing so, organisms use a number of pathways that receive and process different signals.

Read and Learn More: WBCHSE Notes for Class 11 Biology

These signals originate from cells within the organism, as well as from the external environment.

This maintains a balance between the various metabolic activities of the body, This is the functional coordination of the body which is necessary for maintaining homeostasis within the body, The Endocrine system involves different glands that contain several specialized cells.

These cells synthesize and secrete some specific biochemical substances, called hormones. Hormones are released directly into the bloodstream by these glands. They act as chemical messengers in the body and flow with the blood to reach the target organs, upon which they act.

Endocrine Glands

The ductless gland that secretes specific chemical substances and releases them directly into the blood or lymph is called an endocrine gland

The characteristics of endocrine glands are—

  • These glands are mostly present in humans and higher groups of vertebrates. They do not contain ducts, hence called ‘ductless’.
  • They synthesize and secrete hormones.
  • As their secretions are carried by the blood and lymph, these glands are surrounded by a network of blood capillaries.

Examples: Pituitary gland, thyroid gland, etc.

  • The glands which release their secretions within or outside the body through ducts are called exocrine glands.
  • The products of these glands are of different types, e.g., enzymes, saliva, mucus, bile, sweat, sebum, milk, etc.

Examples: Salivary glands, mammary glands, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, etc.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Endocrine Gland

Mixocrine Or Heterocrine Or Mixed Glands

The glands which are both exocrine and endocrine in nature are called merocrine glands.

These glands contain both exocrine and endocrine cells. Examples: Pancreas, testes, ovary, etc.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Exocrine Gland

Hormones

Hormones Definition: The biochemical substances synthesized and secreted by endocrine glands or specialized cells, are called hormones.

In 1902, M. Bayliss and Ernest H. Starling isolated a specific substance from the mucous cells of the duodenum.

This specific substance was actually a secretin hormone that stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice.

In 1905, Starling named this specific substance a hormone. The term ‘hormone’ has been derived from a Greek word, ‘harakiri, which means ‘to excite or to set in motion’.

Hormones Characteristics: Important characteristics of hormones are as follows—

Nature: Biochemically hormones are protein or polypeptide, lipoprotein, glycoprotein, steroid, etc.

Site of secretion: They are mainly synthesized and secreted by endocrine glands. But organs that contain endocrine cells, like testes, ovaries, etc., can also produce hormones.

Storage: They can be stored only in the cells they are secreted from.

Effect on target organs: Hormones often exert their influence on target organs or tissues, located at some distance from the gland. However, certain hormones like secretin, gastrin, etc., act only in the adjacent regions of its secretion. So, they are also known as local hormones.

Transportation: They are carried to the target organs by blood or lymph.

Chemical messenger: They do not initiate new functions, but only regulate already occurring cellular processes. They carry chemical messages to target organs. Hence, hormones are also called chemical messengers.

Chemical coordinators: They respond to immediate physiological requirements of the body.

They are involved in maintaining the functional coordination of the organs. Hence, the hormones are also known as chemical coordinators.

Quantity: They are very specific and influence unique cellular responses at very low concentrations.

Feedback mechanism: Hormones may trigger a cascade of amplifying mechanisms. A small amount of a hormone induces the release of a larger amount of another hormone and/or intracellular metabolites In the target cells. This mechanism is called the feedback mechanism.

Fate of hormone: Hormones can be degraded in their target cells. It occurs by internalization of the hormone-receptor complex followed by lysosomal degradation of the hormone.

Types of Hormones

The following types of hormones are found in the body—

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Types Of Hormones

Harmones Functions

  1. Hormones affect the functioning of other glands or tissues. Hormones regulate the metabolism of cells, body growth, and development of various parts of the body.
  2. Hormones are also responsible for the regulation of the immune system and reproductive functions.
  3. The appearance of secondary sexual characteristics (external characters that distinguish sexes) is also stimulated by hormones.
  4. In some cases, hormones may cause permanent changes, such as sex differentiation in humans. These changes persist even when the hormone is absent.
  5. Hormones coordinate the responses to stress. They control blood volume and pressure by regulating the sodium and water balance. This, in turn, maintains the condition of homeostasis.
  6. To maintain cell membrane integrity and intracellular signaling, hormones regulate calcium and phosphate balance.

Classification Of Hormones

Based on their solubility in water and fat

  1. Water-soluble: Peptide hormones.
  2. Fat-soluble: Steroid hormones, hormones secreted by the thyroid gland.

[Based on the types of recptors]

Intracellular receptor: Steroid hormones and thyroxine.

Extracellular receptors: Insulin, glucagon, parathormone, etc.

[Based on their interaction with one another]

  1. Antagonistic: When a hormone produces the opposite effect of another hormone, it is antagonistic in nature, e.g., insulin and glucagon on blood glucose levels.
  2. Synergistic: When two or more hormones act together to produce a greater effect, they are called synergistic in nature, e.g., testosterone and FSH on sperm production.
  3. Permissive: When a hormone enhances the effect of another hormone secreted later, it is called permissive in nature, e.g., estrogen and progesterone in the uterine cycle.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Hormones And Vitamins

Human Endocrine System

The endocrine system is composed of a variety of different endocrine cells and glands. Endocrine cells or glands include—

The hypothalamus, pituitary glands, pineal gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, adrenal glands, pancreas, reproductive organs (testes and ovary), thymus gland, and placenta.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Human Endocrine System

Hypothalamus

The hypothalamus of the brain contains two sets of neurosecretory cells whose hormonal secretions regulate the activity of the pituitary gland.

Hypothalamus Location: The hypothalamus is located superior to the brain stem and inferior to the thalamus.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Location Of Hypothalamus

Hypothalamus Structural and functional features: Hypothalamus is composed of nervous tissue.

White matter is present in the center of the hypothalamus, with grey matter in the periphery.

The distribution of the white matter as islands in the grey matter leads to the formation of multiple nuclei. Specialized neuron clusters of the hypothalamus are called neurosecretory cells.

Secretions produced by these cells are called neurohormones. The network of capillaries extending from the hypothalamus joins to form the hypophyseal vein.

It enters the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and again divides into capillaries. Axons of some of the neurosecretory cells extend into the pars nervosa region of the neurohypophysis.

This path between the hypothalamus and neurohypophysis is called the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract.

Neurons Of Hypothalamus

Magnocellular neurons are predominantly located in the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus. They produce large quantities of the neurohormones—oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Parvocellular neurons have projections that terminate in the median eminence, brain stem, and spinal cord.

These neurons are located within the paraventricular nucleus. They release small amounts of neurohormones (hypophysiotropic hormones) that control anterior pituitary function.

Hormones secreted by the hypothalamus: The hormones secreted by the hypothalamus get carried by the blood to the hypophyseal portal vein. They are mainly glycoprotein in nature. The hormones include—

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH): TRH stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone.

Growth hormone-releasing hormone (CHRH): GHRH stimulates the anterior part of the pituitary gland to secrete growth hormone.

Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH): GHIH inhibits growth hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary.

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH): GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH): CRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH): Oxytocin and ADH produced by the hypothalamus are transported to the posterior pituitary where they are stored.

Prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH): PRH stimulates the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary.

Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH): PIH inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the anterior part of the pituitary gland.

MSH-releasing hormone: MSH-RH stimulates the intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland which secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone.

MSH-inhibiting hormone: MSH-IH inhibits the secretion of melanocyte-stimulating hormone from the intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland.

Pituitary Gland

The Pituitary Gland is also called hypophysis. The name is derived from the Greek words hypo-under and physis-to grow.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Pituitary Gland 2

Pituitary Gland Location: It is located in a depression in the sphenoid bone, called sella turcica. It is connected below the hypothalamus by the infundibulum (a stalk-like structure).

Tropic hormones

Hormones that are carried to target organs far off from their secretory cells and affect the secretion of other hormones are called tropic hormones. E.g., FSH, LH.

Tropic hormones Structure: The pituitary gland is small in size. It weighs about 0.5-0.6 g in adult males. It is slightly bigger in the case of adult females. In females, it weighs about 0.6-0.7 g.

The pituitary gland is divided into two regions— the posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) and the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis).

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Pituitary Gland

Adenohypophysis (Anterior pituitary)

Adenophysis is the anterior part of the pituitary gland which secretes hormones like GH, TSH, etc.

Parts of the Adenohypophysis: It is divided into three parts—

Parts of the adenohypophysis: It is divided into three parts—

Pars distaiis: It appear as clusters or cords of cells.

Pars tuberalis: It surrounds the infundibulum of the neurohypophysis.

Pars intermedia: In the human fetus it appears as a lobe between the anterior and posterior pituitary but is reduced in adults.

Hormones Secreted by Anterior Pituitary:

The anterior pituitary releases four important hormones that act as tropic hormones.

Following are the types of hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary—

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Source: TSH is synthesized and secreted from basophilic cells, called thyrotrophs, of the pars distaiis region of the anterior pituitary gland.

Chemical nature: TSH is a glycoprotein in nature.

Target organs: As its name suggests, it is a tropic hormone responsible for the stimulation of the thyroid gland. Hence, the thyroid gland is the target organ.

Hormones Physiological functions:

It stimulates the secretion of thyroid hormones such as thyroxine or tetraiodothyronine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), from the thyroid gland,

It is an important regulator of metabolic activity in the body,

In addition, it acts as a growth factor for the thyroid gland.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Action Of TSH

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

Source: It is produced by the basophilic corticotroph cells of the pars distalis region of the anterior pituitary.

Chemical nature: It is a polypeptide, made up of 39 amino acid residues.

Target organs: It acts upon the cortex region of the adrenal or suprarenal glands located at the top of each kidney.

Hormone Physiological Functions

The release of ACTH stimulates the growth of the cortex region of adrenal glands,

ACTH stimulates the hormone secretion from the adrenal cortex. ACTH stimulates the production and release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), and sex corticoids or sex steroids from the adrenal cortex.

Gonadotropic Hormone (GTH)

Gonadotropic Hormone (GTH) Source: In response to stimulation by gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), GTHs (both FSH and LH) are synthesized. These hormones are secreted by basophilic cells. FSH and LH are secreted from cells called gonadotrophs. These cells are located at the pars distalis region of the anterior pituitary.

Chemical nature: Both FSH and LH are glycoproteins in nature.

Target organs: FSH and LH have major effects on the human reproductive organs—testes (in males) and ovaries (in females).

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Pituitary Gland 2

Gonadotropic Hormone Physiological functions:

  1. Both GTHs (FSH and LH) are important for the growth and development of gonads,
  2. FSH stimulates the growth and maturation of the ovarian follicles. It promotes estrogen synthesis and secretion in adult females
  3. FSH along with LH stimulates spermatogenesis (sperm production) in males,
  4. In females, LH is responsible for ovulation (release of a secondary oocyte from the Graafian follicle) and luteinization (formation of corpus luteum). It also regulates estrogen and progesterone hormone levels in adult females,
  5. LH in adult males stimulates interstitial cells (in the testes)   to synthesize and secrete testosterone hormone. In males, LH is termed as interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH).

Growth hormone (GH) or somatotropic hormone (STH)

Growth Hormone Source: GH is synthesized and secreted from the acidophilic cells, called somatotrophs. These are present in the pars distalis region of the anterior pituitary.

Growth Hormone Chemical nature: GH is a 191 amino acid containing a single-chain peptide hormone.

Growth Hormone Target organs: It is not effective over any specific target organ, rather it affects all the tissues.

Growth Hormone Physiological Functions:

  1. Human growth hormone (HGH) affects different organs by stimulating their growth and development,
  2. This hormone plays an important role in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
  3. It also induces cell division in the body. lt also induces calcium retention in the intestine. It also maintains the level of potassium, phosphorus, and calcium in the body.

Prolactin (PRL)

Prolactin (PRL) Source: Prolactin is synthesized and secreted by acidophilic cells, called lactotrophs. These cells are located in the pars distalis region of the anterior pituitary gland.

Prolactin (PRL) Chemical nature: Prolactin is a type of polypeptide.

Prolactin (PRL) Target organs: Alveolar cells of the mammary glands.

Prolactin (PRL) Physiological functions:

  1. Prolactin stimulates the growth and development of the mammary gland. It also stimulates the synthesis and secretion of milk.
  2. Prolactin increases glucose and amino acid uptake. It stimulates the synthesis of the milk proteins, 8 casein, and ar-lactalbumin, the milk sugar (lactose), and milk fats from the mammary epithelial cells,
  3. Prolactin inhibits GnRH release, progesterone biosynthesis, and growth of luteal cells during pregnancy.

Melanocyte-stimulating Hormone (MSH)

Source: MSH is produced mainly in the pars intermedia of the pituitary gland by the proteolytic cleavage of POMC (Pro-opiomelanocortin).

Melanocyte-stimulating Hormone Function:

  • Specialized skin cells called melanocytes produce a pigment called melanin. This pigment is responsible for the pigmentation found in the skin, hair and eyes,
  • Melanin protects cells from DNA damage which may lead to skin cancer (melanoma).
  • Neurohypophysis (Posteriorpituitary) Neurohypophysis is the posterior part of the pituitary gland in which the axons of the neurosecretory cells are present.

Parts of neurohypophysis: Neurohypophysis is divided into pars nervosa and infundibulum.

Pars nervosa: It is composed principally of nerve cell processes, glial cells, and capillaries.

Infundibulum: It is a stalk-like structure that attaches the pituitary gland to the bottom of the hypothalamus.

Hormones secreted by posterior pituitary:

The hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are as follows—

Oxytocin

Oxytocin Source: The neuropeptide, oxytocin, is secreted by non-myelinated neurons of the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus. It is stored in the pars nervosa region of the neurohypophysis and released in the blood from there.

Oxytocin Chemical nature: It is a peptide hormone, composed of 9 amino acids.

Oxytocin Target organs: Lactating mammary glands and the uterus (during pregnancy).

Oxytocin Physiological Functions:

  • Oxytocin stimulates milk ejection by controlling the contraction of the myoepithelial cells (present in glandular epithelium). These myoepithelial cells line the alveoli and ducts in the mammary gland.
  • Oxytocin produces rhythmic contractions of uterine smooth muscles during childbirth. It promotes regression of the uterus following the delivery of the baby.
  • It induces contractions in internal organs such as the gall bladder, small intestine, urinary bladder, etc.
  • It helps in the movement of sperm through the female genital tract.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Effects Of Oxytoctin On Mammary Gland

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Source: ADH is secreted by the non-myelinated neurons (neurosecretory cells) of the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus. It remains stored within the pars nervosa of the neurohypophysis and is secreted when required.

Antidiuretic Hormone Chemical nature: ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is a peptide containing 9 amino acids.

Antidiuretic Hormone Target organs: Mainly Kidneys.

Antidiuretic Hormone Physiological Functions:

Certain neurons in the hypothalamus are sensitive to the salt-water balance of the blood. When the blood becomes concentrated, these cells send signals to the pituitary gland.

As a result, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released from the posterior pituitary. Upon reaching the kidneys, ADH enhances the permeability of the walls of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and the collecting duct of a nephron, to water.

This causes excess absorption of water into kidney capillaries from DCT and the collecting duct of the nephron.

As a result, the normal concentration of blood is restored and concentrated urine is produced,

ADH causes constriction of blood vessels, increasing the pressure within them. Hence, it is also known as vasopressin,

ADH helps the smooth muscles to contract and thereby helps in the contraction of the stomach, urinary bladder, etc.

Master Gland

The pituitary gland is known as the master gland. This is because the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland influence the synthesis and secretion of various hormones from other major endocrine glands.

Pineal Gland Or Epiphysis Cerebri

The pineal gland is a small endocrine gland located below the epithalamus of the diencephalon region of the brain.

Pineal Gland Location: The pineal gland or epiphysis is attached to the roof of the third ventricle by its stalk. This gland is located in the diencephalon region of the forebrain in humans.

Pineal Gland Structure: The shape of the pineal gland is like a pine cone. It is about 5-8 mm in length and 3-5 mm in breadth. It is attached to the epithalamus on the roof of the third ventricle of the brain by a short and hollow stalk. It is generally made up of modified nerve cells, called pinealocytes.

The pinealocytes are also called chief cells or parenchymal cells. The pineal gland also contains interstitial cells along with pinealocytes. They are also called glial cells.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Location Of Pineal Galnd

Hormones secreted by pineal gland: The hormones of the pineal gland are as follows—

Melatonin

Melatonin Source: Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland.

Melatonin Chemical nature: Melatonin is an indolamine hormone. It is produced, from the amino acid, tryptophan. Chemically, it is N-acetyl-5- methoxytrypsin.

Melatonin Physiological functions:

  1. Melatonin regulates circadian and circannual rhythms,
  2. It also helps to regulate the growth of reproductive organs,
  3. Its antioxidant properties play a role in immune function and cell proliferation,
  4. It helps to prevent pigmentation of the skin,
  5. Melatonin increases the growth and activity of other endocrine glands.

Serotonin

Serotonin Source: Serotonin is synthesized and secreted by the pineal gland.

Serotonin Chemical nature: Serotonin belongs to the tryptamine family. Chemically, it is 5-hydroxytryptamine.

Synthesis of serotonin and melatonin After the synthesis of serotonin, N-acetyl serotonin is formed under the influence of the N-acetylating enzyme.

This N-acetyl serotonin produces melatonin, under the influence of hydroxy indol-O-methyl transferase (HIOMT).

Serotonin Physiological Functions:

  • Serotonin acts as a neurotransmitter and helps in the conduction of nerve impulses,
  • It also helps in constriction of blood vessels, thereby reducing their diameter.

Thyroid Glands

The thyroid gland is a bilobed endocrine gland that is situated in the upper part of the trachea in the neck region.

Thyroid Glands Location: The thyroid gland is located at the upper part of the trachea, slightly inferior to the thyroid cartilage. It surrounds the larynx.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Location Of Thyroid Gland

Thyroid Glands Structure: The thyroid gland generally consists of two lateral lobes connected by an isthmus.

This isthmus is present anterior to the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th tracheal rings. Each lobe of the gland extends from the middle of the thyroid cartilage to the 7th or 8th tracheal ring.

Each of the lobes measures about 5 cm in length, 2 cm in breadth, and 2 cm in height. The thyroid glands generally weigh 20-25g. Thyroid follicles are the structural and functional units of the gland.

Within these follicles, a fibrous connective tissue layer is present, that is rich in blood vessels.

This gland is located near the thyroid cartilage, so it is known as the thyroid gland.

This gland is formed of two types of cells—follicular cells and parafollicular cells.

Follicular cells and parafollicular cells Follicular cells are the principal cells of the thyroid.

They form the continuous epithelial lining of the follicles. Typically, they are cuboidal in shape, with spherical nuclei.

Parafollicular cells or C cells are also associated with the follicles. However, these cells are completely separated from the colloid by follicular cells.

Most parafollicular cells synthesize and secrete the hormone, calcitonin. Therefore, they are frequently referred to as clear cells or C cells.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Histological Structure Of Thyroid Gland

Hormones secreted by the thyroid gland: The different hormones secreted by the thyroid gland have been discussed below.

Thyroxine or tetraiodothyronine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)

Thyroxine Source: The follicular cells of the thyroid gland secrete thyroxine and triiodothyronine.

Thyroxine Chemical nature: Both T3 and T4 are formed by the combination of iodine atoms with the amino acid tyrosine. T4 contains 4 atoms of iodine while T3 contains 3 atoms of iodine.

Role of iodine in T3 & T4 synthesis

Iodine is required to synthesize the thyroid hormones. It is obtained from water, iodized salt, leafy vegetables, fruits, etc.

It is absorbed by the thyroid follicles from the blood. Inside the follicles, the iodine molecules combine with tyrosine (an amino acid), present in thyroglobulin, to synthesize T3 and T4 hormones.

Thyroxine Physiological functions:

  1. Carbohydrate metabolism by T3 and T4 produces energy. So, they are called calorigenic hormones. They also increase the absorption of 02 into the cells,
  2. Thyroxine increases basal metabolic rate (BMR) by stimulating different metabolic activities in most tissues,
  3. Thyroxine stimulates the absorption of glucose in the small intestine. Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis are also stimulated by thyroxine,
  4. Thyroid hormones increase the synthesis of proteins and RNA in the cells.
  5. T4 and T3 help in the synthesis of cholesterol and other lipids. Thyroxine also increases the concentration of fatty acids by increasing fat mobilization.
  6. Oxidation of fatty acids in many tissues is also enhanced by thyroid hormone,
  7. These hormones help in the overall growth of the body,
  8. Thyroxine affects the heart by causing an increase in heart rate, cardiac contractility, and cardiac output,
  9. Thyroxine increases milk production and concentration of fats in the milk.

Calcitonin Or Thyrocalcitonin

Calcitonin Or Thyrocalcitonin Source: Calcitonin is secreted by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland.

Calcitonin Or Thyrocalcitonin Chemical nature: Calcitonin is a peptide hormone, composed of 32 amino acids.

Calcitonin Physiological functions:

Calcitonin helps in the absorption of calcium into the matrix of bones and thereby, reduces the concentration of calcium ions in the blood.

Calcitonin is known to slow the breakdown of bone by inhibiting osteoclast function. This function is opposite to that of T3 and T4 hormones. Hence, calcitonin is antagonistic to T3 and T4.

Calcitonin also regulates the transport and metabolism of phosphates in the body,

It regulates the concentration of alkaline phosphatase in the blood.

Parathyroid Gland

Parathyroid glands are four, small, oval-shaped, yellowish-brown glands that secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

Parathyroid Gland Location: The parathyroid glands are located at the upper and lower portions of the posterior borders of the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland.

Parathyroid Gland Structure: The parathyroid glands consist of four separate glands. Each of these glands is small and oval-shaped. They measure about 6 mm in length, 3 mm in breadth, and 2 mm in height.

Generally, each weighs about 140 mg. These glands are richly supplied with blood capillaries. Parathyroid glands are composed of chief cells and oxyphil cells.

Hormones secreted by parathyroid glands:

PTH or parathyroid hormone is the primary hormone of the parathyroid gland. It is discussed below.

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Source: PTH is produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands.

J. B. Collip was the first scientist to isolate this hormone. Hence, it is also known as Collip’s hormone.

Parathyroid Hormone Chemical nature: It is a polypeptide, made up of 84 amino acid residues.

Parathyroid Hormone Physiological functions:

  1. The antagonistic actions of calcitonin and parathyroid hormone maintain the blood calcium level within normal limits,
  2. PTH indirectly stimulates osteoclasts to reabsorb calcium from the bone matrix, which then enters into the circulation. In addition, PTH also increases renal excretion of phosphate. Due to this, osteoclasts degrade by the process of osteolysis.
  3. PTH prevents P043-, Na+, and HC03- ion reabsorption in the PCT of a nephron.
  4. It increases the reabsorption of Ca2+ in the ascending and descending limbs of the loop of Henle.
  5. PTH stimulates the synthesis of vitamin D or calciferol. It also converts vitamin D into an active hormone. This activated vitamin D helps to absorb calcium in the intestine.

Adrenal Gland

Adrenal Glands are a pair of triangular-shaped endocrine glands. Each gland is present at the apex of each kidney.

Adrenal Gland Location: The right adrenal gland looks like a small pyramid. It is present at the apex of the right kidney and next to the vena cava. The left adrenal gland looks more like a crescent.

It is present at the apex of the left kidney and next to the aorta, colon, stomach, and spleen.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Location Of Adrenal Glands

Adrenal Gland Structure: The adrenal glands (or suprarenal glands) are paired glands, each about 4-6 cm in length and 3-4 cm in breadth. The glands are covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue, called a capsule.

There are several glandular cells within the adrenal glands. Each adrenal gland consists of an inner portion called the adrenal medulla and an outer portion called the adrenal cortex.

However, these portions do not have any physiological connection with one another. The adrenal glands are richly supplied with blood vessels. Different parts of the adrenal glands have been discussed below under separate heads.

Adrenal Cortex

The peripheral region of the adrenal gland constitutes the adrenal cortex.

Adrenal Cortex Structure: It extends between the capsule and the medullary region of the gland. It is richly supplied with blood capillaries, ft consists of glandular epithelial cells.

The cells of the cortex are arranged in three particular zones. They are—Zona glomerulosa, Zona fasciculata, Zona reticularis.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Internal Structure Of Adrenal Gland

Hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex: Mainly glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids are secreted by the adrenal cortex. All these hormones are steroid in nature.

Their physiological functions are described below.

Glucocorticoids

Glucocorticoids Source: Glucocorticoids are secreted by zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.

Adrenal Gland Chemical nature: Chemically these are steroid hormones with 21 carbon atoms.

Adrenal Gland Physiological Functions: Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex. Other than this, it secretes cortisone and corticosterone.

We shall study the physiological functions of cortisol, mainly—

Carbohydrate metabolism:

  • Cortisol stimulates gluconeogenesis (or neoglucogenesis) in the body. This leads to the production of carbohydrates from non-carbohydrate molecules,
  • It promotes glycogenesis in the liver and muscles. This leads to increased synthesis of glycogen,
  • It also stimulates the production of enzymes required in gluconeogenesis.
  • It increases glucose absorption in the small intestine

Protein metabolism:

  • Cortisol stimulates the breakdown of proteins into amino acids,
  • It helps the amino acids to be transported to the liver, where they are transformed into glucose,
  • The reduced synthesis and enhanced depletion of proteins result in a decrease in stored protein content in cells,

Lipid metabolism:

  • Cortisol increases the absorption of lipids in the small intestine,
  • It promotes the breakdown of adipose tissues into fatty acids,
  • It declines the rate of synthesis of fats from carbohydrates,
  • It stimulates the transport of fatty acids to plasma where they are used up as a source of energy,
  • This hormone increases the oxidation of fatty acids in cells,

Anti-inflammatory effect:

  1. Cortisol raises the level of production of anti-inflammatory proteins,
  2. It also counteracts the inflammatory function of the leucocytes, thereby preventing phagocytosis, chemotaxis (movement of a cell in response to a chemical stimulus), etc.
  3. It also decreases the secretion of inflammatory chemicals like interleukin 1 (IL-1), prostaglandins, leukotrienes, etc., by injured or infected cells. This prevents heat generation during infections,
  4. This hormone reduces the production of antibodies, the number of leukocytes, and the amount of lymphoid tissue. All these actions result in immunosuppression of the body.

Mineralocorticoids

Mineralocorticoids Source: The cells of zona glomerulosa secrete mineralocorticoid hormones.

Mineralocorticoids Chemical nature: These are steroid compounds with 21 carbon atoms.

Mineralocorticoids Physiological functions: Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid in humans.

Its physiological functions are as follows—

  • Aldosterone maintains the concentration of NaCI and water in blood and tissue fluid. It stimulates the absorption of Na+ and cr in kidney tubules,
  • Aldosterone increases sodium and water reabsorption in the DCT of nephrons,
  • It stimulates the excretion of potassium and phosphate through urine,
  • It influences the salt and water balance of the extracellular fluid.

Mineralocorticoids Sex steroids: Sex steroids produced by the adrenal cortex include androgens—dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), DHEA sulfate (DHEAS), some amount of estrogen, and progesterone.

These hormones are also known as sex corticoids or gonadocorticoids.

Mineralocorticoids Source: These hormones are produced by zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. Zona reticulata also produces androgens.

Mineralocorticoids Chemical nature: These hormones are steroid in nature. The main androgen produced here is DHEA, which is a 19-carbon compound.

Mineralocorticoids Physiological functions:

Androgens control the growth and development of reproductive organs in males. Estrogen and progesterone control the functioning of the female reproductive system,

The sex steroids also regulate the appearance Of male or female secondary sexual characteristics.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Glucocorticoids And Mineralcorticoids

Adrenal Medulla

The inner portion of the adrenal gland constitutes the adrenal medulla.

Adrenal Medulla Structure: This region is supplied with blood capillaries and glandular cells. Based on histological staining reaction, adrenal medullary cells are known as chromaffin cells.

These cells are named such because they can be stained with chromium-based dye. These
cells are columnar in shape and contain granular cytoplasm.

Chromaffin cells are of two types—

  1. E-cells have homogeneous small granules.
  2. NE cells have larger granules. These granules contain hormones secreted by these cells

Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla:

The adrenal medulla secretes two catecholamine hormones—epinephrine (E) and norepinephrine (NE). These are also called adrenaline and noradrenaline respectively.

Epinephrine or Adrenaline

Source: The E-type chromaffin cells produce this hormone.

Adrenal Medulla Chemical nature: This hormone is a catecholamine.

Physiological functions:

  1. This hormone alters the blood flow by constricting some blood vessels while dilating others.
  2. It decreases the lumen of blood vessels by contracting their smooth muscles. This increases the blood pressure within the blood vessels,
  3. Adrenaline increases the blood supply to cardiac and skeletal muscles due to dilation of
    arterial vessels supplying them,
  4. Adrenaline increases the rate of heartbeat which in turn increases cardiac output,
  5. It dilates the trachea and thus, increases the rate of respiration,
  6. It regulates BMR (Basal Metabolic Rate), by inducing glycogenolysis and neo-glucogenesis.
  7. It plays an important role as a neurotransmitter in the transmission of impulses in the synapse region,
  8. It dilates the pupil and stimulates the secretion of tears,
  9. It relaxes the smooth muscles of the stomach, urinary bladder, etc. But in the case of ureters, gall bladder, etc., it contracts the smooth muscles.

Adrenaline As The Emergency Hormone

When the body is under any emergency conditions or emotional stress like anger, fear, etc., secretion of this hormone increases.

Hypersecretion of adrenaline regulates the physiological and metabolic functions according to the state of the body. So, it is also known as an emergency hormone.

Norepinephrine Or Noradrenaline

1. Source: The NE-type chromaffin cells produce this hormone.

Chemical nature: This hormone is also a catecholamine.

Adrenal Medulla Physiological functions:

  1. This hormone acts as a vasoconstrictor (constricts blood vessels). This results in an increase in blood pressure inside the blood vessels,
  2. It increases cardiac output. It also acts as a bronchodilator. Hence, it increases respiratory rate,
  3. It increases blood glucose levels and enhances lipid metabolism to produce fatty acids.
  4. Norepinephrine also acts as a neurotransmitter. It helps to transmit nerve impulses in the synapse region.

Difference Between Neurotransmitter And Hormone

The difference between a neurotransmitter and a hormone does not lie in the chemical nature of the regulatory molecule.

The difference lies in the way it is transported to its target cells and its distance from the target cells.

A chemical regulator called norepinephrine, for example, is released as a neurotransmitter by sympathetic nerve endings and is also secreted by the adrenal medulla as a hormone.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Adrenaline And Noradrenaline

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Adrenal Cortex And Adrenal Medulla

Pancreas

Pancreas Location: The pancreas is located just below the stomach, adjacent to the spleen. It is connected to the duodenum of the small intestine by the pancreatic duct.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Location Of Pancreas

Pancreas Structure: The pancreas has both exocrine and endocrine regions. Therefore, it is a mixed gland.

Exocrine region of the pancreas: The exocrine cells form clusters called acini or alveolar structures.

Endocrine region of the pancreas: The endocrine part of the pancreas consists of isolated islands of cells called islets of Langerhans. These cells are endocrine in nature and remain embedded within the pancreatic acini. These cells are highly vascular.

Around 1-2 million Islets of Langerhans are present in the pancreas. The cells of the islets are polygonal and are closely spaced with sinusoidal capillary networks.

Mainly Two Types Of Cells are found in the islets: or and cells. 6 cells and PP cells are also present in the islets, but A and cells are the primary ones.

Hormones secreted by the pancreas:

The hormones secreted by the pancreas are as follows—

Insulin

  1. Source: It is produced by beta cells of islets of Langerhans.
  2. Chemical nature: It is a polypeptide hormone and is produced from proinsulin. It is made up of two peptide chains—A chain and B chain.
  3. Physiological Functions:

Carbohydrate metabolism:

  1. Insulin lowers elevated blood glucose levels after a meal,
  2. Insulin activates the glucose transporters and helps the target cells to take up excess glucose circulating in the blood.
  3. Insulin promotes glycogenesis. Thus, excess glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and skeletal muscles,
  4. Insulin prevents glycogenolysis (conversion of glycogen into glucose), (e) Insulin also prevents gluconeogenesis (conversion of proteins and fats into glucose).
  5. These actions lower the concentration of glucose in the blood. Hence, insulin is also called Hypoglycemic Hormone

Lipid metabolism:

  1. Insulin induces the synthesis of fats from glucose and fatty acids, within the adipose tissues,
  2. It is known as an anabolic hormone because it prevents the oxidation of fats.
  3. It prevents the production of ketone bodies, thus, known as an antiketogenic hormone,

Protein metabolism:

  • Insulin induces more reabsorption of amino acids, leading to more protein synthesis.
  • It prevents the catabolic breakdown of proteins and the removal of amino acids.

Glucagon

Source: It is secreted by a -cells of the islets of Langerhans.

Glucagon Chemical nature: It is a polypeptide of 29 amino acid residues. Glucagon is synthesized from proglucagon.

Glucagon Physiological functions:

  • Glucagon stimulates glycogen breakdown by glycogenolysis.
  • It prevents the conversion of glucose into glycogen. Hence, it increases the glucose concentration in the blood,
  • It also prevents the oxidation of glucose in the tissue fluid. Hence, glucagon is known as the ‘hyperglycemic hormone’.
  • Glucagon acts as an antagonist to insulin,
  • In the adipocytes, glucagon activates hormone-sensitive lipase. This enzyme then breaks down triglycerides (stored fat) into diacylglycerol and free fatty acids. It also helps to release them into the circulation.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Glucagon And Insulin

Somatostatin

Somatostatin Source: Somatostatin is released from the 5 cells of the islets of the pancreas. It is also secreted by the hypothalamus and the mucous lining of the small intestine.

Somatostatin Chemical nature: Somatostatin is a 14 amino acid-containing peptide hormone.

Somatostatin Physiological functions:

Somatostatin has a generalized inhibitory effect on pancreatic exocrine and endocrine functions. It inhibits the secretion of both glucagon and insulin. Therefore, it acts as a local hormone (acts on the organ from where it is produced).

Outside the pancreas, it decreases the digestive activity of the digestive tract. It slows down the absorption of nutrients,

A very small amount of somatostatin is also produced in the hypothalamus which is transported to the anterior pituitary. Here it acts as a neurohormone to inhibit the release of growth hormone and thyrotropin,

It slows down the secretion of gastrointestinal hormones as well as the contractions of the stomach and duodenum.

Pancreatic Polypeptide

Pancreatic polypeptide Source: Pancreatic polypeptide is secreted from PP cells of pancreatic islets.

Pancreatic polypeptide Chemical nature: It is a peptide hormone containing 36 amino acids.

Pancreatic polypeptide Physiological functions: It is responsible for the inhibition of pancreatic exocrine secretion, gall bladder contraction, modulation of gastric acid secretion, and gastrointestinal motility.

Gonads

Gonads are mixed organs that produce male and female gametes as well as hormones in males and females respectively.

The female gonad is the ovary and the male gonad is the testis. They are responsible for producing sex hormones in humans. These hormones regulate the formation of gametes.

They also determine the secondary sexual characteristics of adult males and females.

Gonads Testes

The testis (plural: testes) is the primary reproductive organ in males and is responsible for the production of male gametes or sperms.

Gonads Location: The testes are located inside the scrotum, outside the pelvic cavity, between the two legs.

Gonads Structure: The testis consists of numerous lobules. Each lobule is made of convoluted tubes, called seminiferous tubules.

The Leydig cells or interstitial cells, present in the connective tissue between the sperm-producing seminiferous tubules, are the endocrine cells. These cells are responsible for the production of testosterone, the principal male hormone.

Hormones secreted by testes: The hormones secreted by testes are called androgens or male sex hormones. The principal androgen is testosterone.

Testosterone

Testosterone Source: Testosterone is synthesized and secreted by the interstitial cells of the testes under the influence of interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH) or luteinizing hormone (LH).

The ICSH is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland. Some amount of testosterone is also secreted by the adrenal glands.

Testosterone Chemical nature: Chemically testosterone is a 19-carbon steroid.

Testosterone Physiological functions:

  1. Testosterone helps in the development of primary reproductive organs and accessory reproductive organs such as the epididymis, prostate gland, etc.
  2. Testosterone regulates the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics in males such as pubic hair, axillary hair, facial hair, etc.
  3. During adulthood, testosterone regulates normal sperm development.
  4. It increases energy metabolism, thereby increasing the BMR.

Testosterone promotes the synthesis of mucoproteins and collagen. This leads to greater accumulation of calcium ions in bones, making them longer and stronger. However, they prevent the lengthening of bones after adolescence,

It also helps in the personality development of males.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Longitudinal Section Of Testis

Ovary

The ovary is the primary female reproductive organ that is responsible for the production of female gametes or ova.

Ovary Location: They are located in the lower abdominal cavity, on both sides of the uterus. These are attached to the inner lining of the body, by folds of the peritoneum, called mesovarium.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Location Of Ovaries

Ovary Structure: The ovary is almost oval-shaped. Its peripheral part is lined by epithelial cells. This layer is known as germinal epithelium.

This layer is followed by another layer called tunica albuginea, followed by the stroma. The stroma consists of an outer cortex layer and an inner medulla layer.

The outer cortex contains sac-like structures, called follicles of different sizes. These remain scattered in the connective tissue of the outer cortex. The inner medulla contains blood vessels, lymph vessels, etc.

The mature Graafian follicle within the ovary contains the ovum prior to ovulation (release of the ovum). Graafian follicle ruptures to release the secondary oocyte.

Under the influence of LH hormone, the disintegrated Graafian follicle is transformed into corpus luteum

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination histological Structure Of An Ovary

Hormones secreted by ovary: Hormones secreted by the ovary have been discussed below.

Oestrogen

Oestrogen Source: The parts of the ovary that secrete estrogen are—

Granulosa cells of Graafian follicle and corpus luteum. Secretion of this hormone is controlled by FSH, secreted from adenohypophysis of the pituitary gland.

Other than the ovaries, estrogen is also secreted by the adrenal cortex, testes (mainly Sertoli cells), and placenta (only during pregnancy).

Corpus luteum

  • Graafian follicle contains the oocyte, in mammalian ovaries. After maturation, it releases the oocyte and itself degrades into an endocrine gland. This is known as the corpus luteum.
  • It contains yellow-colored lutein granules. This endocrine gland secretes progesterone.
  • This hormone is secreted when fertilization occurs and is necessary for preparing the uterus for the conception of the embryo.
  • On the other hand, when fertilization does not take place, the corpus luteum gets degraded and progesterone is no longer secreted.

Corpus luteum Chemical nature: Oestrogen is a steroid compound.

Corpus luteum Physiological functions:

  1. Oestrogen is responsible for the growth and development of female reproductive organs,
  2. It is responsible for the onset of puberty and the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, such as breast development, growth of pubic hair, etc., in females,
  3. Oestrogen stimulates the growth of the uterus and vagina during puberty. It is necessary for the maturation of the primordial follicle (primary stage of the follicle) into the Graafian follicle,
  4. The changes that take place within the ovaries and the uterus, during the early phases of the menstrual cycle (monthly cycle of changes that occur in the female reproductive system), are triggered by this hormone.
  5. Oestrogen causes the thickening of the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle in order to prepare for pregnancy,
  6. It maintains bone density and also the elasticity of skin and vaginal lining,
  7. It increases fat deposition in the subcutaneous layer under the skin.

Progesterone

Progesterone Source: Under the influence of luteinizing hormone (LH), the corpus luteum within the ovary synthesizes and secretes this hormone. Other than the ovaries adrenal cortex and placenta also secrete progesterone hormone.

Progesterone Chemical nature: Progesterone is a natural steroid.

Progesterone Physiological functions:

  • Progesterone decreases contractility of the uterine smooth muscles and prepares the endometrium of the uterus for implantation of embryo,
  • During the implantation of the embryo and embryonic development, progesterone helps to develop the placenta,
  • Progesterone helps in the growth of the embryo throughout the gestation period (the duration of carrying an embryo or fetus inside the mother’s womb),
  • It prevents the menstrual cycle as well as ovulation during pregnancy,
  • It also helps in the growth of the mammary glands and the enlargement of breasts.

Relaxin

Relaxin Source: During pregnancy period, ovaries, placenta, and uterus produce this hormone.

Relaxin Chemical nature: Relaxin is a water-soluble polypeptide.

Relaxin Physiological functions: It causes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis to relax. It helps in the relaxation of the cervix to facilitate the delivery of the baby.

Other hormones secreted by the ovaries

  1. Inhibin is secreted by the granulosa cells, present in the ovaries. This hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH from the anterior pituitary gland. Inhibins regulate LH and FSH release through endocrine feedback regulation at the anterior pituitary.
  2. Activin is also produced by the granulosa cells. It promotes the proliferation of granulosa cells. It also increases the number of FSH receptors on granulosa cells and modulates steroidogenesis (synthesis of steroids) in the ovarian follicles.
  3. Follistatin is a single-chain glycoprotein hormone found in ovarian follicular fluid. It is known to inhibit FSH release from the anterior pituitary.

Prostaglandin (PG)

The biologically active, lipid compounds that are synthesized from unsaturated fatty acids such as arachidonic acid, are called prostaglandins (PG).

It helps to carry out several physiological processes, such as—contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscles in the uterus (especially while receiving the ovum), secretion of HCl in the gastric juice, etc.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Oestrogen And Progesteronec

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Differenece Between Testosterone And Osestrogen

Placenta

The temporary organ present in the uterus of a pregnant woman, that maintains the mechanical and physiological connection between the mother and the developing embryo, is called the placenta.

Placenta Location: It is present within the inner walls of both the growing fetus and the mother.

Placenta Hormones secreted: There are several hormones secreted by the placenta that are involved in the maintenance of pregnancy and the growth of the embryo.

The hormones secreted by the placenta are—estrogen, progesterone, relaxin, chorionic thyrotropin, human chorionic gonadotropin, and human chorionic somatomammotropin.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

Chemically, it is a glycoprotein in nature.

Its physiological functions are as follows—

  • It helps to maintain the structure and growth of the corpus luteum. Therefore, it regulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
  • HCG stimulates the secretion of testosterone in the male fetus. Due to this influence, the sex organs develop and the testes descend into the scrotum, at the layer period of gestation.
  • Human chorionic somatomammotropin (HCS) or Human placental lactogen (HPL)
    Chemically, it is a polypeptide hormone.

Its physiological functions are as follows—

  • HCS reduces the glucose concentration in the mother’s body, keeping the glucose available for the fetus.
  • It also releases the fats from the fatty acids stored in the mother’s body.
  • HCS increases the production of proteins and helps the fetus to grow.

Thymus gland

Thymus gland Location: This gland is located behind the sternum below the thyroid gland. It is situated partly in the neck region and partly in the thorax.

Thymus gland Hormones secreted: This gland secretes several hormones, such as thymosin, thymopoietin, thymulin, and thymic humoral factor. This gland is most active in children and adolescents. It gradually shrinks and becomes less active in adults.

Thymus gland Biological role:

  • The hormones of the thymus gland regulate the development of T-lymphocytes.
  • Thymosin and thymic humoral factors, increase immune responses against pathogens. The Thymus gland is called the Throne of immunity.
  • Thymosin also stimulates the secretion of certain pituitary hormones (growth hormone, LH, gonadotropin-releasing hormone, ACTH, etc.)

Mechanism Of Hormone Action

  • Hormones are responsible for transferring messages related to various physio-biochemical activities of the cells.
  • They bind to hormone-specific receptor molecules at the target cells to form a hormone-receptor complex. This initiates a series of events that lead to the generation of second messengers within the cell (the hormone is known as the first messenger).
  • The second messengers then trigger a series of molecular interactions that alter the physiological state of the cell. The entire process is called signal transduction.

Receptors

Receptors Definition: The cellular structures that recognize and bind to hormones are called receptors.

But in the current view, receptors can recognize and bind to a variety of other extracellular regulatory signaling molecules, such as growth factors and neurotransmitters.

Ligands

  • Ligands are extracellular signaling molecules that bind to receptors. The receptor has the ability to specifically recognize a ligand among the different molecules present in the environment surrounding the cells.
  • Ligand-receptor binding results in the activation of intracellular signaling pathways. As a result, amplification of the signal occurs which affects gene expression, i.e., synthesis of proteins according to the genetic information.

Receptors are classified into two main groups according to their location in the cells—

  • Extracellular or cell surface receptors, located on the plasma membrane of the target cell (mainly for non-steroid hormones).
  • Intracellular or nuclear transcription factor receptors are located inside the cell (mainly for steroid hormones).

Receptors are classified into two main groups according to their location in the cells—

  • Extracellular or cell surface receptors, located on the plasma membrane of the target cell (mainly for non-steroid hormones).
  • Intracellular or nuclear transcription factor receptors are located inside the cell (mainly for steroid hormones).

Extracellular Or Cell Surface Receptors

The hormones that are protein or polypeptide in nature (e.g., oxytocin, relaxin, etc.) are insoluble in lipids. Hence, they cannot move directly across the cell membrane of the target cell.

These hormones bind to specific receptor molecules located on the surface of the cell membrane.

These cell surface receptors are usually glycoproteins with three defined structural and functional domains—

  • Extracellular domain: It contains the ligand binding site of the receptor and is hydrophilic in nature.
  • Transmembrane domain: It anchors the receptor into the plasma membrane
  • Intracellular domain: It contains amino acids, which are targets for phosphorylating enzymes that regulate receptor activity.

The hormone-receptor complex has two mechanisms of hormone action—

By cAMP formation, by changing the permeability of the plasma membrane.

Mechanism Of Hormone Action By cAMP Formation

  • When the hormone binds to the receptor, a conformational change occurs in the cytoplasmic domain of the receptor.
  • This leads to the stimulation of an intracellular signaling pathway of guanosine nucleotide binding protein called G-protein. G-protein activates adenylyl cyclase.
  • cAMP is synthesized from ATP by the action of adenylyl cyclase. This cAMP, after synthesis, triggers the activation of other enzymes and stimulates the metabolic processes in the cells. Here hormone acts as the first messenger and cAMP as the second.

Example:

  • The action of epinephrine on liver cells may serve as an example where cAMP acts as a second messenger. It converts glycogen stored in the liver into glucose.
  • The binding of the hormone to the receptor brings about changes in the receptor. As a result, GTP binds to G-protein at the intracellular domain of the receptor.
  • One of the G-protein subunits dissociates, which is called active G-protein. This active G-protein then interacts with adenylyl cyclase.
  • When activated by the G-protein subunit, adenylyl cyclase catalyzes the
    formation of cAMP from ATP.
  • The cAMP formed at the inner surface of the plasma membrane diffuses within the cytoplasm.
  • Then it binds to and activates protein kinase-A. This enzyme, in the presence of Mg2+ and ATP, activates inactive phosphorylase kinase.
  • Active phosphorylase kinase converts inactive glycogen phosphorylase-b into active glycogen phosphorylase-a.
  • Active glycogen phosphorylase-a converts glycogen into glucose-l-phosphate, which is further converted into glucose-6-phosphate.
  • Finally, after the release of the phosphate group, it is converted to glucose.

 

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Mehanism Of Hormone Action By Extracellur Receptors

Mechanism of hormone action by changing the permeability of plasma membrane

  • In this case, the hormone-receptor complex changes the permeability of the cell membrane of the target cell.
  • This allows the metabolic substance to enter the target cell which increases cellular metabolism.

Example:

  1. Insulin changes the permeability of the sarcolemma of muscle cells or muscle fibers. Due to this, glucose molecules can easily enter the muscle cell or fiber, from circulation.
  2. The receptor for insulin, present in the cell membrane, has two -subunits and two -subunits. Insulin binds to the binding sites of outer a-subunits, to form the hormone-receptor complex.
  3. This changes the conformation of the subunits. As a result, activated subunits change into active tyrosine kinase, which further activates G-proteins present in the cell membrane.
  4. Active G-proteins further activate the phosphodiesterase enzyme. It converts phosphatidylinositol 4,5-biphosphate (PIP2), into inositol triphosphate (IP3)
    and diacylglycerol (DAG). These compounds function as second messengers
  5. Glucose Transporter like GLUt-4 can flow through the cytoplasm, with the help of IP3, towards the cell membrane.
  6. It binds to the cell membrane protein, changing its permeability. Thus the channels produced in the cell membrane, allow glucose to pass into the muscle cells.

 

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Mechanism Of Hormone Action By Changing Plasma Membrane Permeability

Nuclear Receptors Or Intracellular Receptors

Nuclear or intracellular receptors are the receptors of steroid hormones. These are present in the cell cytoplasm. These receptors have binding sites for both hormones (ligands) and DNA. These receptors are transcription factors regulated by ligand binding.

Members of this family include the receptors for—

  1. Progesterone and estrogen,
  2. Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids,
  3. Vitamin D and thyroid hormone,
  4. Retinoic acid and 9-cis-retinoic acid,
  5. Orphan receptors (a group of receptors with unknown ligands).

Mechanism of hormone action involving intracellular receptors

This mechanism is described as follows—

  • Steroid hormones and the active steroid derivative of vitamin D are lipid-soluble and hydrophobic. Therefore, they cross the plasma membrane to bind to intracellular hormone receptors. This forms a hormone-receptor complex.
  • The binding of hormones to the receptor produces a conformational change in the structure of the receptor. It allows the hormone-receptor complex to enter the nucleus and bind to specific DNA sequences.
  • This results in either activation or repression of gene transcription.
  • Within the nucleus, the synthesis of mRNA (transpiration) increases. The mRNA is translated into Proteins in the Production Of Enzymes, Stimulating Metabolic Activities within the Cell.

Hormones As Chemical Messengers

  • Hormones serve as chemical messengers in the body and help to maintain the internal chemical balance i.e., homeostasis of the body.
  • Hormones regulate and coordinate physiological and metabolic functions by acting on receptors located on or inside target cells.
  • They act on receptors of target cells located far away from the secretory cells or glands. They are carried to their target cells by plasma or lymph. These hormones stimulate the metabolic reactions within the target cells.

Example:

  • Adenohypophysis of the pituitary gland secretes TSH hormone. It diffuses into the network of blood capillaries.
  • It is carried to the location of the thyroid glands. It stimulates the thyroid glands to secrete the hormones T3 and T4. Thus, the hormone TSH acts as a chemical messenger.

Hormones As Regulators

  • Hormones regulate the concentration of different components within the body fluids.
  • They also regulate different metabolic processes in the body. This maintains the internal chemical balance.

Example:

  • The islets of Langerhans of the pancreas, secrete hormones like insulin and glucagon.
  • Both the hormones regulate the glucose concentration in the blood. When the concentration of glucose rises in the blood, insulin converts excess glucose into glycogen which gets stored in the liver.
  • This lowers the blood glucose level. Glucagon, on the other hand, acts when the blood glucose level falls below normal.
  • It converts glycogen proteins and fats into glucose. This increases the glucose concentration in the blood.

Role Of Hormomes In Maintaining Homeostasis

  • Hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands. They are carried to their target cells by blood. They maintain equilibrium inside the cells.
  • To maintain internal equilibrium, the secretion of hormones needs to be regulated according to the need.
  • The decline or rise in the secretion of a hormone depends on its concentration in the blood. This mechanism is called feedback control.

This is of two types—

  • Negative and
  • Positive feedback control.

Negative Feedback Control

In this type of control mechanism, the synthesis of a hormone is reduced or entirely stopped when its amount in the blood is above normal.

Example:

  • The normal concentration of T4 in human blood or serum is about 4-12 pg/lOOmL and that of T3 is about 80-200 ng/lOOmL.
  • When the concentrations of these two hormones rise in the blood, a negative signal is generated and sent to the hypothalamus.
  • This prevents the synthesis and secretion of TSH-RH from the neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus. As a result, secretion of TSH from the thyrotroph cells of the adenohypophysis also decreases.

Positive Feedback Control

In this system, the synthesis of a hormone increases if its amount in the blood is below normal.

Example: When The Concentrations of these two hormones— T4 and T3 decrease in blood, a positive signal is generated and sent to the hypothalamus.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Feed back Mechanism Involving T3 And T4 Concentation In Blood

  • This induces the synthesis and secretion of TSH-RH from the neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus.
  • Secretion of TSH-RH further stimulates the thyrotroph cells leading to increased secretion of TSH.
  • Uterine contraction at the onset of labor in pregnant women releases oxytocin hormone from the posterior pituitary.
  • The presence of this hormone intensifies the contractions. Increased uterine contraction causes more oxytocin to be released and the cycle goes on until the baby is born.
  • The birth halts the release of this hormone, thus, ending positive feedback control.

Disorders Related To Endocrine Glands

  • Various factors affect the secretion of hormones, causing several disorders diseases, or syndromes in the body.
  • Oversecretion of the hormones is called hypersecretion, while less secretion of the hormones is called hyposecretion. Some of the disorders caused by hyper and hyposecretion of hormones have been discussed below.

Disorders Related To Pituitary Gland

The disorders related to the pituitary gland are as follows—

Dwarfism

Dwarfism is a disorder characterized by shorter-than-normal skeletal growth.

Dwarfism Causes: Two major causes of this disorder are achondroplasia and growth hormone deficiency (hyposecretion)

Achondroplasia: It is a disorder caused due to the presence of a defective allele in the human genome. It accounts for 70% of dwarfism cases. It often leads to increased spinal curvature and distortion of skull growth.

Growth Hormone Deficiency: It is a medical condition in which the body produces insufficient growth hormone. It may result in mutations of specific genes, damaged pituitary gland, Turner’s Syndrome (a disorder due to the absence of an X chromosome in females), poor nutrition, or even stress.

Growth Hormone Deficiency Symptoms:

  • Children with growth hormone deficiency have a slow growth rate and have a short body build. The height may range up to 3 feet.
  • More severe forms of dwarfism are associated with abnormal functioning of other organs, such as the brain or liver.
  • Bones also get affected due to this disorder. Early degenerative joint disease, lordosis, or scoliosis (curvature in the vertebral column) can cause pain and disability.
  • Improper growth and development of the; primary sex organs occur, leading to infertility, The Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics may also get delayed.

Growth Hormone Deficiency Treatment:

  • Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent some of the problems associated with dwarfism.
  • People with dwarfism due to growth hormone deficiency can be treated with growth hormone.
  • However, the treatment should begin before adolescence. After adolescence, the treatment will become ineffective.

Gigantism

Gigantism is the condition of abnormal growth in height and elongation of long bones in childhood.

Gigantism Causes: Gigantism may result due to—

  • Hypersecretion of STH or GH in childhood
  • Tumour in the acidophilic cells or adenoma in the adenohypophysis region, before the onset of adolescence.

Gigantism Symptoms:

The skeletal system and muscles show increased growth than normal. The hands and feet become larger.

  1. The height of the body reaches 7-8 ft.
  2. Growth of the different internal organs gets stimulated.
  3. Basic Metabolic Rate (BMR) increases.
  4. The growth of different endocrine glands or endocrine cells is comparatively less. The Thymus gland increases in structure.
  5. The glucose concentration in the blood increases.

Gigantism Treatment: This disorder can be treated by surgery, radiotherapy, etc. However, the treatment must be started at the early stage.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Dwarfism And Gigantism

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Differenece Between Dwarfism And Gigantism

Acromegaly

Acromegaly is caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults, resulting in an abnormal increase in bone and soft tissue growth.

Acromegaly  Causes: The causes of acromegaly are—

Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adult tumors in the acidophilic cells of the adenohypophysis of the pituitary gland.

Acromegaly  Symptoms:

  1. Excess GH secretion leads to disproportionate skeletal growth. The appearance becomes gorilla-like with a lower jaw protruding forward and a forehead slanting forward.
  2. Soft tissue swelling acromegaly Acromegaly is caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH) in adults, resulting in an abnormal increase in bone and soft tissue growth.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Person Suffereing From Acromegaly

Causes: The causes of acromegaly are—

  • Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults
  • Tumour in the acidophilic cells of the adenohypophysis of the pituitary gland.

  Symptoms:

Excess GH secretion leads to disproportionate skeletal growth. The appearance becomes gorilla-like with the lower jaw protruding forward and the forehead slanting forward.

Soft tissue swelling kidney, etc., results in the weakening of muscles in these organs. Weak muscles around vocal cords lead to thick, deep voices and slow speech patterns.

Treatment: Current treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, etc. Other than these, treatment with somatostatin analogs (stop GH production) and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine (reduce the size of the tumor and control GH-induced hyperglycemia) are useful.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Acromegaly And Gigantism

Diabetes Insipidus

This disease is caused by the hyposecretion of ADH hormone from the posterior pituitary gland.

Disorders Related To Thyroid Gland

  • The disorders related to the thyroid gland are as follows—:% Cretinism Cretinism is a disorder caused by to hyposecretion of thyroid hormones.
  • It is characterized by stunted physical and mental growth in children. It is also known as congenital hypothyroidism.

Thyroid Gland Causes:

  • Reduced secretion of thyroid hormones (hypothyroidism) is the major cause of cretinism in children.
  • Deficiency of iodine in maternal nutrition may cause this disorder in the newborn.

Thyroid Gland Symptoms:

  1. Reduced growth of the body. The limbs are shorter than normal.
  2. The tongue thickens and protrudes from the mouth involuntarily. Excess saliva secretion occurs. Short and wide neck, pot belly, scanty hair, and swollen eyelids are observed.
  3. Glucose, iodine, and thyroxine concentrations decrease in the blood.
  4. The growth of primary sex organs and the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics get delayed. Treatment: Hormone therapy is the common approach for treating hypothyroidism. Daily intake of thyroxine hormone tablets can counter this disorder.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Dwarfism And Cretinism

Myxoedema

Myxoedema is caused due to the deficiency of thyroxine hormone in adults. It is more common in females than in males.

Myxoedema Causes:

  • Hyposecretion of thyroxine in adults causes myxoedema. This occurs due to the deficiency of iodine. Removal of the thyroid gland by surgery, use of antithyroid drugs, or ionizing radiations may cause myxoedema.
  • Autoimmune thyroiditis (an inflammatory disorder of the thyroid gland) may lead to myxoedema.
  • Hashimoto’s disease or autoimmune thyroiditis
  • It is an autoimmune disease and occurs when our immune system attacks the thyroid tissue.
  • It results in the inflammation of the thyroid gland (thyroiditis) and may cause hypothyroidism.

Myxoedema  Symptoms:

  1. The limbs and neck become swollen. This occurs due to the accumulation of mucus
    within the cells in this region. So it has been named myxoedema (edema caused by to accumulation of mucus).
  2. Loss of memory takes place.
  3. Anorexia (eating disorder) is observed among the patients.
  4. BMR decreases.
  5. The rate of heartbeat decreases.
  6. Due to the swollen nature of the face, the eyes appear tiny.
  7. Levels of carbohydrates, iodine, and thyroxine in the blood, decrease.

Myxoedema  Treatment: Introducing thyroxine hormone into the body, through the process of hormone therapy, may be helpful in treating myxoedema.

Goitre

Goitre is characterized by the enlargement of the thyroid gland. It may be caused due to hypo or hyperthyroidism.

Goitre is generally of two types—

Simple goiter: The condition of an enlarged thyroid gland, due to the hyposecretion of thyroxine is called simple goiter.

Goitre Causes:

  • It is caused due to deficiency of iodine in the diet which results in low thyroxine secretion.
  • In response to this, there is reduced negative feedback inhibition of TSH. The elevated TSH secretion stimulates the thyroid to enlarge.
  • People living in hilly regions suffer from endemic goiter because the soil in those regions does not contain iodine.
  • The secretion of T3 and T4 hormones may be less due to genetic defects.

Goitre Symptoms: This disease is characterized by the enlargement of the thyroid gland. This is manifested as a swelling of the front part of the throat. In severe cases, an enlarged thyroid can exert pressure on the trachea and esophagus.

This can lead to—

Breathing trouble which may lead to the condition of dyspnoea,

  1. Cough,
  2. Hoarseness of voice,
  3. Difficulty in swallowing.

Goitre Treatments: The regulated use of iodized salt allows the thyroid gland to producer the thyroid hormones and therefore helps to prevent simple goiter. It can also be treated by consuming iodine-rich food like marine fish.

Exophthalmic Goiter or Grave’s disease: The condition in which the thyroid gland becomes overactive, in the case of hyperthyroidism, is called exophthalmic goiter.

Exophthalmic Goiter  Causes: Increased TSH receptor stimulation leads to thyroid hyperplasia (follicles enlarge in size), causing enlargement of the thyroid gland. This leads to hypersecretion of thyroxine hormone.

Exophthalmic Goiter  Symptoms:

  1. The eyes protrude because of edema in the tissue of the eye socket. Eye muscles swell and cause less blinking of the eyelids.
  2. The person may not be able to close his eyes while sleeping. This causes drying up and infection of the conjunctiva.
  3. The patient usually becomes hyperactive, nervous, irritable, and suffers from insomnia.
  4. The BMR increases.
  5. The heartbeat also increases.
  6. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormones results in osteoporosis in the patients.

Exophthalmic Goiter  Treatments:

Hyperthyroidism can be treated with propylthiouracil, methimazole, etc. These drugs prevent the bond formation between iodine and tyrosine.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Simple Goitre And Exophthalmic Goitre

This prevents the formation of thyroxine. Removal or destruction of a portion of the thyroid by means of radioactive iodine is sometimes effective therapy in this condition.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Simple Goitre Exophathalmic Goitre

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Comparison Of Graves Diseases With Cretinism And Mycoedma

Disorders Related To Parathyroid Gland

The disorders related to the parathyroid gland are as follows

Hypoparathyroidism

The disorder caused by to hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone from the parathyroid gland is called hypoparathyroidism.

Hypoparathyroidism Causes:

  1. Hypoparathyroidism is caused by the hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH).
  2. Hyposecretion of PTH may be due to inflammation or a tumor in the parathyroid gland.

Hypoparathyroidism Symptoms:

  • The calcium level in the blood decreases, i.e., hypocalcemia occurs.
  • The contraction-relaxation mechanism of the muscles decreases, and spasms occur within the muscles.
  • When this condition becomes severe, hands, fingers, etc., become distorted leading to the condition of tetany.
  • In the case of women, the menstrual cycle is painful.
  • The skin becomes dry and nails become brittle.
  • Fatigue, weakness, headache, mental depression, etc., are also some important symptoms of the disease.

Hypoparathyroidism Treatment: During the initial stages of the disease, introducing calcium and vitamin D supplements within the body, may be helpful.

Hyperparathyroidism

  • The disorder caused by to hypersecretion of PTH hormone from the parathyroid gland is called hyperparathyroidism.
  • Hyperparathyroidism Causes: The main cause of this disorder is excess PTH secretion. Due to the presence of a tumor in the parathyroid gland, secretion of PTH increases.

Hyperparathyroidism Symptoms:

  • The concentration of calcium in the blood increases i.e., hypercalcemia is observed.
  • Renal calculi may occur due to excess calcium deposition.
  • The bones may become soft and distorted due to the leaching of calcium. Cysts may be found within the bone. This abnormality of bones is called osteitis fibrosa cystica or brittle bone disease.
  • The muscular layer of the inner lining of the left atrium may get thickened, known as left ventricular hypertrophy. This leads to malfunctioning of the heart.

Hyperparathyroidism Treatment: The tumor containing the parathyroid gland has to be removed by surgery.

Tetany

The disorder involves involuntary contraction of muscles or muscle spasms. It is caused by to malfunction of parathyroid glands and consequent deficiency of calcium.

Tetany Causes: The various causes of tetany are as follows— Hypocalcemia (deficiency of calcium),

  • Hypoparathyroidism,
  • A low level of magnesium and a higher level of phosphate in the blood,
  • Deficiency of vitamin D and calcium in the diet, for a long period of time,
  • Infection with Clostridium tetani.

Tetany Symptoms:

  • Due to sudden contraction of the facial muscles, the nose and lips become distorted.
  • Due to muscular spasms, wrists, fingers, joints, etc., become distorted. Especially the thumb bends towards the palm.
  • In some cases, paresthesia may occur, and a piercing or burning sensation is felt.
  • Treatment: For the treatment of tetany, Ca and vitamin D supplement is essential. This restores the calcium concentration in the blood.

Disorders Related To Pancreas

The disorders related to the pancreas are as follows—

Diabetes mellitus

Diabetes mellitus is a disorder characterized by increased blood glucose levels.

In general, there are two forms of diabetes mellitus—

Type 1 (TIDM) and Type 2 (TIIDM).

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus: It is caused due to reduced secretion of insulin. Thus, type 1 Diabetes mellitus is also called insulin-dependent diabetes (IDDM)

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Cause: Low insulin secretion due to autoimmune destruction of the islet cells is the major cause of type I diabetes mellitus.

This results in impaired entry of glucose into the cells and hence, reduced accumulation of glucose in the blood.

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Symptoms:

  • Accumulation of glucose in the blood (hyperglycemia) leads to increased plasma osmolarity (glucose concentration more than 80-120 mg/100 mL).
  • This is accompanied by excess loss of water and sodium (polyuria).
  • Excess glucose in blood leads to the discharge of excess glucose through urine (glycosuria).
  • The resulting dehydration triggers compensatory mechanisms such as thirst (polydipsia).
  • The inability of the cells to utilize glucose creates a state of cellular starvation.
  • It also leads to the accumulation of ketone bodies in the blood (ketoacidosis). Diabetic ketoacidosis is an acute pathologic event characterized by elevated blood glucose levels, ketone bodies, and metabolic acidosis.

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Treatment: By taking proper medical advice, the glucose level in the blood can be kept under control. In severe cases, insulin therapy may be used.

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is also called Insulin-independent or non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM). It is much more common than type 1, accounting for about 90% of cases.

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus Causes: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is caused due to a decreased responsiveness of insulin receptors in the peripheral tissues to insulin. This inhibits the action of insulin (insulin resistance) and causes a decrease in the absorption and oxidation of glucose in the cells. As a result, glucose concentration rises in the blood.

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus Symptoms:

  • Symptoms include hyperglycemia, glycosuria, dehydration, etc., which are also observed in the case of IDDM.
  • Other than these, the retina may get damaged (retinopathy), which can lead to blindness.
  • Diabetes mellitus is associated with increased risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD).
  • Some long-term complications include nephropathy (damage of nephrons) that leads to renal failure, and neuropathy (damage of neurons).
  • Treatment: Treatment aims at the control of blood sugar, and is monitored by prevailing levels of glycosylated hemoglobin.
  • Regular medical check-ups must be conducted to keep the blood glucose under control.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Type 1 And Type 2 Diabets Mellitus

Hypoglycemia due to over-secretion of insulin

Due to the over-secretion of insulin by the beta 3 cells of islets of Langerhans, the glucose level decreases in the blood (about 50 mg/100 mL of blood). This is called hypoglycemia.

This condition leads to weakness. In severe cases, a person may suffer from muscle contractions, convulsions, and even coma.

Disorders Related To Adrenal Cortex

The disorders related to the adrenal gland are as follows—

Addison’s disease

Addison’s disease is caused by low secretion of adrenal hormones, cortisol and aldosterone also occurs due to antibodies produced against the cortical cells, and microbial infection of glands or tumors.

Addison’s Disease Symptoms:

  • The main symptoms of Addison’s disease include loss of appetite, weakening of muscles, decrease in BMR, and decrease of storage of proteins in the body.
  • Lack of aldosterone results in loss of sodium and water and retention of potassium. This leads to low blood pressure and possibly severe dehydration.
  • Without cortisol, glucose concentration decreases in the blood, causing hypoglycemia.
  • As ACTH causes a buildup of melanin deposition, hence, hyposecretion of ACTH leads to the darkening of the skin.
  • Mental stress is also seen.

Addison’s Disease Treatment: Hormone replacement therapy is the standard treatment for Addison’s disease.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Addisons Diseases And Cushings Syndrome

Cushing’s Syndrome

This disorder is caused by the abnormally high levels of cortisol.

Cushing’s Syndrome Causes: Cushing’s syndrome is caused by high levels of cortisol secreted from the adrenal cortex in the body.

This may occur due to a tumor in the adrenal cortex. Even tumors in the pituitary gland can lead to such diseases. Over-secretion of ACTH and prolonged ACTH therapy may cause Cushing’s syndrome.

Cushing’s Syndrome Symptoms:

  1. Muscle protein is metabolized, leading to muscle degeneration.
  2. Excess subcutaneous fat is deposited especially around the midsection of the body due to the over-secretion of cortisol. For this reason, the trunk appears obese, while the arms and legs appear thinner.
  3. The depletion of calcium from the bones leads to osteoporosis (brittle bones).
  4. An excess of aldosterone and reabsorption of sodium and water by the kidneys leads to a basic blood pH and hypertension.
  5. Hyperglycemia along with mental stress and depression are seen.
  6. The face becomes moon-shaped due to swelling. This is known as the moon face.

Cushing’s Syndrome Treatment: Treatments include surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, or the use of cortisol-inhibiting drugs.

Transsphenoidal adenomectomy (surgical removal of the tumor) is the most widely used treatment.

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Difference Between Addisons Diseases And Cushings Syndrome

Biology Class 11 Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination Gastorintestinal Hormones

Chemical Coordination Notes

  • Acinus: Cluster of cells resembling many-lobed berry.
  • Anorexia: An eating disorder characterized by weight loss and or lack of appetite
  • Catecholamine: Organic compounds containing catechol and a side chain amine (Collectively epinephrine non-epinephrine).
  • Hyperfunctioning: Increased activity of an organ system or its parts
  • Neurohormones: Hormones Released By Neurons
  • Signal: Message Transmitted On Binding Of A molecule (like Hormone) To Its Receptor.
  • Target Organs: The organ That Acts As The site Of a Hormone.

Points Of Remember

  1. The nervous system and the endocrine system both, work together, to maintain the coordination among different organs while regulating their functions.
  2. Glands are the most important part of the endocrine system.
  3. Glands may be of three types—exocrine, endocrine, and exocrine.
  4. Exocrine glands secrete enzymes, that are carried by ducts from the synthesizing cells to the target cells.
  5. Exocrine glands are of three types on the basis of their modes of secretion—merocrine, apocrine, and holocrine.
  6. Endocrine glands secrete hormones, that are carried by blood or lymph to the target cells situated away; from the synthesizing cells.
  7. Exocrine glands have both exocrine and endocrine properties.
  8. The study of endocrine glands, hormones, and their associated effects is called endocrinology.
  9. Thomas Addison is known as the ‘Father of Endocrinology1.
  10. Some of the endocrine glands include— the hypothalamus, pituitary, pineal gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, adrenal gland, pancreas, gonads, thymus, and placenta.
  11. Tropic hormones regulate the functioning of the other endocrine glands.
  12. Neurohormones are secreted by nerve cells. These include ADH and oxytocin.
  13. The hypothalamus serves as the main connection between the endocrine and nervous systems.
  14. Herring bodies are large swellings at the terminal end of the axons at the posterior pituitary. These temporarily store ADH and oxytocin hormones.
  15. FSH is also known as the gametokinetic factor.
  16. The presence of hCG hormone in the urine of females is a determining factor, used in a pregnancy detection kit.
  17. Hormones bind to their specific receptors, thereby forming hormone-receptor complex.
  18. The receptors may be of two types—extracellular and nuclear or intracellular receptors.
  19. Myasthenia gravis is a disease caused by the hyposecretion of the hormone, thymosin.
  20. Several endocrine cells are also present in the gastrointestinal tract. These cells secrete gastrointestinal hormones, which help in digestion.

 

NEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs

NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question and Answers

A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution

Question 1. How many eras does the geological time scale consist of?

  1. Six
  2. Five
  3. Four
  4. Three

Answer: 1. Six

The geological time scale is the tabulated form showing the sequence and duration of the eras and the periods with their dominant form of life since the beginning of life on the earth.

In the geological time scale, the duration of the earth’s history has been divided into six palaeoart geological timespans called the eras which are azoic, archaeozoic, proterozoic, palaeozoic, Mesozoic and Cenozoic.

Question 2. In which era, mammals and birds evolved?

  1. Mesozoic
  2. Cenozoic
  3. Palaeozoic
  4. Precambrian

Answer: 2. Cenozoic

The Cenozoic era is the age of mammals, birds and angiosperms. The Mesozoic era is an age of reptiles and gymnosperms.

The Palaeozoic era is the age of amphibians and fishes. In the procambium era, the emergence of single-celled organisms occurred.

NEET Biology MCQs

NEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs

Question 3. In Miocene,

  1. Mammals reached a peak of diversity
  2. Reptiles reached a peak of diversity
  3. Reptiles were dominant
  4. Birds were dominant

Answer: 1. Mammals reached a peak of diversity

In the Miocene epoch, mammals reached the peak of diversity as they occurred the evolution of the first man-like apes. Man is the most advanced mammal.

Question 4. Which of the following is not included in the Cenozoic era?

  1. Devonian
  2. Pliocene
  3. Pleistocene
  4. Miocene

Answer: 1. Devonian

The Devonian period belongs to a palaeozoic era which is famous as the ‘age of fishes. The rest of the options are included in the Cenozoic era.

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 5. Prevalence of only modern humans is observed in which epoch?

  1. Pleistocene
  2. Holocene
  3. Pliocene
  4. Miocene

Answer: 2. Holocene

In the quaternary period, there were two epochs The Holocene includes only modern humans. The Pleistocene includes the ice age and various human species.

Question 6. Dinosaurs became extinct in

  1. Silurian period
  2. Jurassic period
  3. Triassic age
  4. Cretaceous period

Answer: 4. Cretaceous period

Giant reptiles like dinosaurs became extinct in the Cretaceous period mainly because of their lack of adaptability, depleted supply of food, predation and large-scale destruction of their eggs.

Question 7. The Mesozoic era is called the golden period of

  1. Birds
  2. Amphibians
  3. Reptiles
  4. Pisces

Answer: 3. Reptiles

The Mesozoic era is known as the golden age of the reptiles. It started about 252 million years ago when the Permian period came to an end and lasted until 65 million years ago when the Cretaceous period ended.

Question 8. The period of ……………… Were dominated by corals, lungfishes and air-breathing animals.

  1. Mississippian
  2. Silurian
  3. Devonian
  4. Jurassic

Answer: 2. Silurian

The Silurian period was dominated by corals, lungfishes and air-breathing animals. It was between 400-440 mya.

During this time, the appearance of the first terrestrial animals, wingless insects, jawed fishes, lycopods, and ferns occurred. There was also the dominance of algae, ascomycete fungi

Question 9. Mammals arose from reptiles in

  1. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era
  2. Triassic period of mesozoic era
  3. Cretaceous period of the Mesozoic era
  4. Carboniferous age

Answer: 3. Cretaceous period of the Mesozoic era

Angiosperms and mammals arose simultaneously in the Cretaceous period of the Mesozoic era.

NEET Biology Mcqs

Question 10. Trilobites appeared and disappeared, respectively during

  1. Cambrian and permian period
  2. Silurian and carboniferous period
  3. Ordovician and triassic period
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Cambrian and Permian periods

Trilobites are a well-known fossil group of extinct marine arthropods that form the class– Trilobita.

The first appearance of trilobites in the fossil record defines the base of the Atdabanian stage of the early Cambrian period (526 million years ago).

They flourished throughout the lower Palaeozoic era before the beginning of a drawn-out decline to extinction when, during the Devonian, all Trilobite orders with the sole exception of Proetida died out.

Trilobites finally disappeared in the mass extinction at the end of the Permian about 250 million years ago.

Question 11. The Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era was characterised by

  1. Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
  2. Dinosaurs became extinct and angiosperms appeared
  3. Flowering plants and the first dinosaurs appeared
  4. Gymnosperms were dominant plants and the first birds appeared

Answer: 4. Gymnosperms were dominant plants and the first birds appeared

The jurassic period of the Mesozoic era existed about 19-20 crore years ago and lasted for about 5.5- 6 crore years ago. The climate was hot and damp. It is called the Age of Dinosaurs. The first primitive bird archaeopteryx evolved from reptiles.

First angiosperm appeared as a dicotyledon, but gymnosperms were dominant in this era.

Question 12. In which era did protozoans, algae and sponges originate?

  1. Cenozoic era
  2. Azoic era
  3. Proterozoic era
  4. Mesozoic era

Answer: 3. Proterozoic era

In the proterozoic era, protozoan, algae and sponges originated.

Question 13. Which is the correct order of increasing geological time scale for a hypothetical vertebrate evolution?

  1. Cenozoic, mesozoic, palaeozoic, precambrian
  2. Cenozoic, palaeozoic, mesozoic, precambrian
  3. Precambrian, cenozoic, palaeozoic, mesozoic
  4. Precambrian, palaeozoic, Mesozoic, cenozoic

Answer: 4. Precambrian, palaeozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic

The correct order of increasing geological time scale for a hypothetical vertebrate evolution is Precambrian → palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Cenozoic Precambrian means hidden life, palaeozoic means old life, Mesozoic means middle life and Cenozoic means new life.

Question 14. Match the following columns.

 

Answer: 1–5, 2–4, 3–1, 4–3, 5–2

Question 15. Angiosperm arose in the …………………… Period.

  1. Carboniferous
  2. Cretaceous
  3. Triassic
  4. Tertiary

Answer: 2. Cretaceous

During the Cretaceous period of the Mesozoic era, there was rapid development of angiosperms (first monocotyledons) and a decline of gymnosperms

Question 16. Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during

  1. Jurassic period
  2. Devonian period
  3. Cretaceous period
  4. Carboniferous period

Answer: 2. Devonian period

The Devonian period started about 405 million years ago and lasted about 60 million years ago.

It is frequently known as the ‘age of fishes. The late Devonian is characterised by the appearance of the first land vertebrates. These animals were amphibians and were called stegocepholians (roof-headed). The earliest known stegocepholian is named ichthyoses

NEET Biology Mcqs

Question 17. The geological era extending from the present to 65 million years ago is called

  1. Cenozoic
  2. Mesozoic
  3. Proterozoic
  4. Palaeozoic

Answer: 1. Coenozoic

The Cenozoic era is the era of recent life up to the present, having an estimated duration of about 65 million years ago. It could be called as ‘age of mammals’ although it is also marked by great adaptive radiation in birds and insects.

Question 18. In which era life is absent?

  1. Archaeozoic
  2. Palaeozoic
  3. Proterozoic
  4. Azoic

Answer: 4. Azoic

The Azoic era is characterised by the complete absence of living organisms. This era can be described as the earliest time in the history of Earth during which several changes on Earth created favourable conditions for the appearance and preponderance of living organisms.

Question 19. The dominant animal during the Mesozoic era was

  1. Pleiososaurus
  2. Latimeria
  3. Climatic
  4. Ceratodus

Answer: 1. Pleiososaurus

The Mesozoic era is the geological era that extended from the end of the Palaeozoic era about 248 million years ago to the beginning of the Cenozoic era, about 65 million years ago. It comprises the Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous periods.

The Mesozoic era is often known as the age of reptiles as these animals, which included the dinosaurs, pterosaurs, plesiosaurus and ichthyosaurus, became the dominant lifeforms.

Question 20. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Birds originated 150 million years ago.
  2. Mammals originated 200 million years ago.
  3. Multicellular organisms originated 1 billion years ago.

Choose the option containing the correct statements.

  1. 1 And 2
  2. 2 And 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 And 3

Answer: 4. 1, 2 And 3

All the given statements are correct. The basic timeline of the 4.6 billion-year-old earth, with the type of organisms, is given below

Age of appearance – types of organisms 3.6 billion years – simple cells (prokaryotes) 1 billion years – multicellular organisms 570 million years – arthropods (ancestors of insects, arachnids and crustaceans)

500 Million years – fish and proto amphibians
360 Million years – amphibians
300 Million years – reptiles
200 million years – mammals
150 million years – birds
20 million years – the appearance of the hominoidae (great apes)
Thus, option 4 is correct

Question 21. Identify the statements that are correct regarding the evolution of
plants and animals.

Amphibians evolved into reptiles.
Fish with stout and strong fins could move on land and go back to water. This happened about 350 million years ago.
Giant ferns fell to form coal deposits slowly.
About 65 million years ago, dinosaurs were wiped out.
Archaeopteryx is the connecting link between birds and reptiles. Choose the option containing the correct statements.

1 And 2
3 And 4
5 And 1
1, 2, 3, 4 And 5

Answer: 4. 1, 2, 3, 4 And 5

All the given statements are correct regarding the evolution of plants and animals.

Question 22. The dinosaurs were maximum during the period of

  1. Jurassic
  2. Triassic
  3. Cretaceous
  4. Palaeocene

Answer: 1. Jurassic

The Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is known as the ‘golden age of dinosaurs. Dinosaurs were maximum during this period

NEET Biology Mcqs

Question 23. Arrange the periods of a Palaeozoic era in ascending order of a geological time scale.

  1. Cambrian → ordovician → silurian → devonian → carboniferous → permian
  2. Cambrian → devonian → ordovician → silurian → carboniferous → permian
  3. Cambrian → ordovician → devonian → silurian → carboniferous → permian
  4. Silurian → devonian → cambrian ordovician → permian → carboniferous

Answer: 1. Cambrian → ordovician → silurian → devonian → carboniferous → Permian

The Palaeozoic (meaning the time of ancient life) era lasted from 544 to 245 million years ago and is divided into six periods.

Cambrian (541 million to 485.4 million years ago), Ordovician (485.4 million to 443.8 million years ago), Silurian (443.8 million to 419.2 million years ago),

Devonian (419.2 million to 358.9 million years ago), carboniferous (358.9 million to 298.9 million years ago) and Permian (298.9 million to 252.2 million years ago) periods. Thus, option 1 is correct

NEET Biology Mcqs

Question 24. The age of fishes is also known as

  1. Permian era
  2. Silurian era
  3. Devonian era
  4. Ordovician era

Answer: 3. Devonian era

The Devonian is often appropriately called the age of fishes since the fish took their place in complex reef systems containing nautiloids, corals, graptolites, blastoids, echinoderms, trilobites, sponges, brachiopods and conodonts.

Question 25. Which of the following went extinct recently?

  1. Draco
  2. Dinosaur
  3. Mammoth
  4. Pteridosperms

Answer: 3. Mammoth

A mammoth is a species of the genus– Mammuthus which went extinct recently. They were commonly equipped with long, curved tusks and in northern species a covering of long hair is present.

They lived from the Pliocene epoch (from around 5 million years ago) to the Holocene, at about 4,500 years ago in Europe, Asia and america as far south as Mexico.

They were members of the family– Elephantidae which included, along with mammoths, two genera of modern elephants and their ancestors.

Question 26. First modern birds appeared during which era?

  1. Jurassic
  2. Cretaceous
  3. Carboniferous
  4. Triassic

Answer: 2. Cretaceous

The first modern birds appeared during the Cretaceous period

Question 27. In which period of the palaeozoic era did the first vertebrates appear?

  1. Silurian
  2. Ordovician
  3. Devonian
  4. Mississippian

Answer: 2. Ordovician

It was long thought that the first true vertebrates (fish – ostracoderm) appeared in Ordovician, but recent discoveries in China reveal that they probably originated in the early Cambrian.

The very first gnathostome (jawed fish) appeared in the late Ordovician epoch

Question 28. The gymnosperms formed the dominant vegetation on the earth during the geological period called

  1. Carboniferous
  2. Permian
  3. Triassic
  4. Jurassic

Answer: 3. Triassic

Gymnosperms are a small group of plants which constitute a subdivision of spermatophyte or phanerogams.

Gymnosperms are the most primitive seed plants. The age of higher gymnosperms is the Mesozoic era. The forest of the Triassic period of the Mesozoic era was formed of highly developed gymnosperms, represented chiefly by conifers and cycads.

Question 29. The occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to

  1. These species have been extinct in other regions
  2. Continental separation
  3. There is no terrestrial route to these places
  4. Retrogressive evolution

Answer: 2. Continental separation

The presence of endemic species (monotremes and marsupials) in Australia and south america is due to continental separation.

Australia, New Zealand and south america were once continuous with the mainland of Asia but got separated in the late Cretaceous period before the appearance of carnivorous Eutherian mammals.

Placental mammals, being more adapted, eliminated monotremes and most marsupials from the Asian mainland, but the primitive mammals of Australia and south america survived, as placental mammals could not reach there because of no land connections.

Question 30. The era called the ‘Age of prokaryotic microbes’ is

  1. Archaeozoic
  2. Precambrian
  3. Phanerozoic
  4. Proterozoic

Answer: 4. Proterozoic

About one billion years ago, the dominant organisms of Earth were cyanobacteria and protozoans therefore, it was named ‘proterozoic’. It is known as the age of prokaryotic microbes

NEET Biology Mcq Chapter Wise

Question 31. Match the following columns. 

NEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs Question 14 Match the following columns (2)

Answer: 2. 1-5,2-1,3-4,4-2

Question 32. In the Mesozoic era, the correct sequence of the periods, beginning with the earliest, is

  1. Triassic, Jurassic, cretaceous
  2. Jurassic, cretaceous, Triassic
  3. Cretaceous, Triassic, and Jurassic
  4. Cretaceous, Jurassic, Triassic

Answer: 1. Triassic, Jurassic, cretaceous

In the Mesozoic era, the correct sequence of the periods beginning with the earliest is triassic→ Jurassic → Cretaceous

Question 33. The geologic time scale was developed by

  1. Aristotle
  2. C Lapworth
  3. A Sedgwick
  4. G Arduino

Answer: 4. G Arduino

The first geological time scale was developed by Giovanni Arduino, an Italian scientist, in 1760

Question 34. The origin of the first toothed birds took place in

  1. Cretaceous
  2. Triassic
  3. Jurassic
  4. Permian

Answer: 3. Jurassic

The jurassic era occurred from 199.6 to 145.5 million years ago. The reptiles are evident to have dominated this era and so, the existence of first-toothed birds is believed to have occurred during the Jurassic era.

Question 35. The first evidence of land plants came in

  1. Archeozoic era
  2. Mesozoic era
  3. Palaeozoic era
  4. Cenozoic era

Answer: 3. Palaeozoic era

The first land plants appeared around 470 million years ago, during the Ordovician period when life was diversifying rapidly. They were non-vascular plants like mosses and liverworts, that did not have deep roots. Ordovician period is a part of palaeozoic era.

NEET Biology Mcq Chapter Wise

Question 36. During the course of evolution, which part of the brain has shown maximum increase in size?

  1. Midbrain
  2. Forebrain
  3. Hindbrain
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Forebrain

The forebrain is the brain region which has undergone the most dramatic changes through vertebrate evolution. So, it has shown a maximum increase in size. It controls body temperature, reproductive functions, eating, sleeping and the display of emotions

Question 37. Primates which existed about 15 million years ago were

  1. Dryopithecus
  2. Homo habilis
  3. Ramapithecus
  4. Australopithecus

Answer: ramapithecus

Ramapithecus was a primate which appeared about 14-15 million years ago.

Question 38. Man evolved in

  1. Triassic period
  2. Jurassic
  3. Permian period
  4. Pliocene

Answer: 4. Pliocene

Pliocene is characterised by the origin of man. Triassic involved the evolution of various reptilian groups like dinosaurs, pterosaurs and ichthyosaurus.

Question 39. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is

  1. 5 × 106 Years back
  2. 25 × 106 Years back
  3. 50 × 106 Years back
  4. 75 × 106 Years back

Answer: 2. 25 × 106 Years back

Dryopithecus lived about 20- 25 million years ago or 25 10× 6 years back

Question 40. In recent years, dna sequences (nucleotide sequences of mtDNA and y-chromosomes) were considered for the study of human evolution, because

  1. Their structure is known in greater detail
  2. They can be studied from the sample of fossil remains
  3. They are small and therefore easy to study
  4. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination

Answer: 4. They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination

Wilson and Sarich chose mitochondrial dna (mtDNA) for the study of material line inheritance, while chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, particularly of the male domain.

It is possible because they are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination.

NEET Biology Mcq Chapter Wise

Question 41. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related to chimpanzees than to other hominoid apes?

  1. Evidence from dna from sex chromosomes only
  2. Comparison of chromosome morphology only
  3. Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil mitochondrial dna alone
  4. Evidence from dna extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes and mitochondria

Answer: 4. Evidence from dna extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes and mitochondria

Question 42. The cranial capacity of Neanderthal man is

  1. 1350-1500 Cm3
  2. 1400-1450 Cm3
  3. 915-1250 Cm3
  4. 750-900 Cm3

Answer: 1400-1450 cm3

Question 43. Neanderthal man was followed by

  1. Cro-magnon man
  2. Homo sapiens sapiens
  3. Homo erectus
  4. Homo neanderthalensis

Answer: 4. Homo neanderthalensis

Dna from sex chromosomes, autosomes and mitochondria reflect the entire genomic limit. The degree of similarities between two species can be estimated by the pairing property of dna strands.

In the case of man and chimpanzee, there is 100% pairing between sex chromosome dna and autosomal dna.

Question 44. There are two opposing views about the origin of modern man. According to one view homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern man. A study of variation of dna however suggested the African origin of modern man. What kind of observation on dna variation could suggest this?

  1. Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
  2. Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
  3. Similar variations in Africa and Asia
  4. Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa

Answer: 1. Greater variation in Asia than in Africa

Scientists studying mitochondrial dna from living humans all over the world have argued that their research shows that all human races originated from one homo sapiens ancestor in Africa.

The divergence of mitochondrial dna of Africans from common sources began just some years back which was late for homo erectus to split between Asia.

Thus, there is greater variation in Asia than in Africa

Question 45. Among the human ancestors, the brain size was more than 1000 cc in

  1. Homo erectus
  2. Ramapithecus
  3. Homo habilis
  4. Homo neanderthalensis

Answer: 4. Homo neanderthalensis

Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680 – 720 cc and that of homo erectus erectus was 775 – 990 cc. Homo erectus pekinensis had 915-1200 cc. Homo neanderthalensis had 1300-1600 cc.

Question 46. Choose the statement that is incorrect about homo habilis.

  1. Also called an able or skilful man.
  2. Also called a tool maker.
  3. Fossils were discovered from fast Africa.
  4. 500 Cc brain size.
  5. Have teeth like a modern man.
  6. Lived 2 million years ago.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Only 4
  2. Only 5
  3. Only 2
  4. Only 4

Answer: 1. Also called able or skilful man.

Only statement iv is incorrect. Homo habilis is also called handy or toolmaker man. Mary Leaky and lbs Leaky discovered the fossils of homo habilis from Pleistocene rocks of Olduvai Gorge in East Africa. His cranial capacity was 680-720 cc.

Their teeth were like that of modern humans. They were called able or skilful men and lived 2 million years ago. Rest statements are correct about homo habilis.

Question 47. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (homo sapiens) from his ancestors?

  1. Upright posture
  2. Shortening of jaws
  3. Binocular vision
  4. Increasing brain capacity

Answer: 4. Increasing brain capacity

The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors is the increase in brain capacity.

Question 48. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was

  1. Homo habilis
  2. Neanderthal human
  3. Cro-magnon man
  4. Ramapithecus

Answer: 4. Ramapithecus

The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (homo sapiens) from his ancestors is the increase in brain capacity.

Question 49. Genus–homo erectus includes three fossil(s) namely

  1. Java ape man
  2. Neanderthal man
  3. Cro-magnon man
  4. Peking man
  5. Heidelberg man
  6. Modern man

Choose the correct option.

  1. 1, 2 And 3
  2. 2, 4 And 5
  3. 1, 4 And 5
  4. 3, 4 And 5

Answer: 3. 1, 4 And 5

Homo erectus includes three fossils (1, 4, 5)

java ape man- body 1.65 to 1.75 m tall, weight 70 kg, cranial capacity 800 to 1000 cc. peking man- about 1.55 to 1.60 m tall. He was slightly shorter and weaker.

He had a cranial capacity which ranged from 850 to 1100 cc. heidelberg man- he used tools and fire.

Cranial capacity was believed to be about 1300 cc. It is regarded as an intermediate between pithecanthropines and Neanderthals

Question 50. The modern man differs from the apes in

  1. Protruding eyes
  2. Spare body hair
  3. Wearing of clothes
  4. Arms shorter than legs

Answer: 4. Arms shorter than legs

Modern man differs from the apes in arms are shorter than legs, and apes’ arms are used in locomotion, called brachiating. This is a type of suspension and swinging of the body

Question 51. Which of the following is closer to man?

  1. Proconsul
  2. Dryopithecus
  3. Gibbon
  4. Orangutan

Answer: 2. Dryopithecus

Dryopithecus are more close to man. Their canine teeth are larger than those in humans, but not as strongly developed as those in other living apes. The limbs were not excessively long.

The skull lacked the well-developed crests and massive brow ridges similar to man

Question 52. Which one of the following statements about the fossil human species is correct?

  1. Fossils of homo neanderthalensis have been found recently in south america
  2. Neanderthal man and cro-magnon man did exist for some time together
  3. Australopithecus fossils have been found in Australia
  4. Homo erectus was preceded by homo habilis

Answer: 4. Homo erectus was preceded by homo habilis

The statement in option 4 is correct about the fossil human species. Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as Cro-magnon succeeded Neanderthal.

Thus, they did not exist together. Fossils of Neanderthal man have been found in Europe, Asia and North Africa. Fossils of Australopithecus have been found in Africa.

Question 53. Which human ancestor was named Lucy?

  1. Heidelberg man
  2. Cro-magnon man
  3. Australopithecus africanus
  4. Ramapithecus punjabicus

Answer: 3. Australopithecus africanus

In 1981, Donald Johanson found a 3.2 million-year-old skeleton of a female human ancestor. He nick-named it, Lucy. Lucy’s scientific name is Australopithecus africanus.

Question 54. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Cro-magnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
  2. Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
  3. Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of homo sapiens
  4. Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man

Answer: 2. Homo erectus is the ancestor of man

Only the statement in the option is correct. Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as Cro-magnon man’s fossils have been found in Europe.

Neanderthal man is a transitional stage and it is not the direct ancestor of homo sapiens. Australopithecus appeared in the early Pleistocene and it is not the real ancestor of modern man

Question 55. Which of the following terms clearly determines the boundary between pieces and homo?

  1. Erect posture and free hands
  2. Reduced jaws and bipedal locomotion
  3. Parabolic dental arch
  4. Increased cranial capacity and skilful manipulation of hands to make tools

Answer: 4. Increased cranial capacity and skilful manipulation of hands to make tools

Dryopithecus, ramapithecus and Australopithecus, all had small cranial capacity and did not make tools. But homo habilis, homo erectus and homo sapiens, all had cranial capacity of more than 650 cc and started making tools.

Therefore, we can say that increased cranial capacity and skilful manipulation of hands to make tools determines the boundary between pieces and homo.

Question 56. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent stages is

  1. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → homo habilis → homo erectus
  2. Australopithecus → ramapithecus → homo habilis → homo erectus
  3. Pithecanthropus pekinensis → homo habilis → homo erectus
  4. Australopithecus → ramapithecus → pithecanthropus pekinensis → homo erectus

Answer: 1. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → homo habilis → homo erectus

The chronological order of human evolution is ramapithecus (first hominid) → Australopithecus (first ape-man) → homo habilis (tool maker handyman) → homo erection

Question 57. Match the following columns.

NEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs Question 57 Match the following columns

Answer: 2. 1–4, 2–3, 3–2, 4–1

Question 58. The first human fossil probably belonged to

  1. Zizanthropus
  2. Australopithecus
  3. Pleisanthropus
  4. Pithecanthropus

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Australopithecus is a group of extinct primates, closely related to (not actually ancestors) modern human beings and known from a series of fossils found at numerous sites in eastern, north-central and southern Africa.

Therefore, we can say the first human fossil probably belonged to Australopithecus.

Question 59. Which one of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man?

  1. Homo habilis
  2. Australopithecus
  3. Ramapithecus
  4. Homo neanderthalensis

Answer: 3. Ramapithecus

Ramapithecus (pithecus ape) lived about 14-8 mya. It was the most primitive human ancestor and a small ape-like creature (14 kg) which probably walked upright.

Question 60. Who was the first civilised man?

  1. Cro-magnon man
  2. Neanderthal man
  3. Heidelberg man
  4. Ternifier man

Answer: 1. Cro-magnon man

Cro-magnon was an excellent tool maker and a fine artist as they drew pictures in their caves. They were the first to domesticate dogs. They were also religious. So, they were the first civilised man.

Question 61. Homo sapiens originated how many years ago?

  1. About 5 lakh years ago
  2. About 2 lakh years ago
  3. About 4 lakh years ago
  4. About 3 lakh years ago

Answer: 2. About 2 lakh years ago

So far, the earliest finds of modern homo sapiens skeletons come from Africa. They date to nearly 2,00,000 years ago on that continent

Question 62. Fossil man, who made cave painting was Bihar

  1. Java man
  2. Neanderthal man
  3. Cro-magnon
  4. Peking man

Answer: 3. Cro-magnon

Cro-magnon man (homo sapiens fossilis) made cave paintings.

Cro-magnon was an excellent tool maker and a fine artist as they drew pictures in their caves. They were the first to domesticate dogs. They were also religious. So, they were the first civilised man.

Question 63. The ancestor of the man who first stood erect was

  1. Java man
  2. Australopithecus
  3. Peking man
  4. Cro-magnon

Answer: 1. Java man

‘Homo erectus’ (java man) is called ‘upright man’ (stood erect). So, it first stood erect.

Question 64. The most recent and direct pre-historic ancestor of present man is

  1. Cro-magnon
  2. Pre-neanderthal
  3. Neanderthal
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Cro-magnon

Cro-magnon was the recent and direct pre-historic ancestor of the present man. They are referred to as early modern humans who lived in our world at the end of the last ice age (40,000-10,000 years ago).

Question 65. Homo erectus is the zoological name of

  1. Cro-magnon man
  2. Peking man
  3. Nutcracker man
  4. Neanderthal man

Answer: 2. Peking man

Peking man (homo erectus pekinensis, formerly known by the junior synonym, Sinanthropus pekinensis) is a group of fossil specimens of homo erectus, dated from roughly 7,50,000 years ago.

It was discovered in 1923-27 during excavations at Zhoukoudian near Beijing (at the time spelt Peking), china.

Question 66. Which primitive man used stones to produce fire?

  1. Java ape man
  2. Neanderthal man
  3. Cro-magnon man
  4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Java ape man

At Trinil, java, burned wood had been found in layers that carried h. Erectus (java man) fossils dating from 8,30,000 to 5,00,000 bp. The burned wood has been claimed to indicate the use of fire by early hominids.

Question 67. Java ape man is considered to have existed in

  1. Java only
  2. China only
  3. Africa only
  4. Java, China and Africa

Answer: 4. Java, China and Africa

Java ape-man existed in Java, China and Africa.

Question 68. Dubois, in 1891 found the fossil of Java ape-man. It is

  1. Sinanthropus pekinensis
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Homo rhodesiensis
  4. Homo sapiens

Answer: 4. Homo sapiens

Homo erectus erectus (java ape man) was excavated in 1891 by Dubois from the rocks of central Java.

Question 69. Assertion among the primates, the chimpanzee is the closest relative of present-day humans. Reason (r) the banding pattern in the autosome numbers 3 and 6 of man and chimpanzee is remarkably similar.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r is false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a

It has been observed that the banding pattern of individual human chromosomes is very similar to the banding pattern of the corresponding chromosomes in apes.

The banding pattern of human chromosomes number 3 and 6 was compared with those of particular autosomes in the chimpanzee. It shows a common origin for man and chimpanzee

Question 70. Fossils of Australopithecus were first found in Punjab

  1. America
  2. Australia
  3. S. Africa
  4. Asia

Answer: 3. S. Africa

Australopithecus fossils were discovered in 1920 by Prof. Raymond from tanks in South Africa.

Australopithecus is a genus of fossil primates that lived 4-2 million years ago and coexisted for some of this time with early forms of humans.

They walked erect and had teeth resembling those of modern humans, but the cranial capacity was less than one-third that of a modern human.

Question 71. The ancestor of the man who first exhibited bipedal gait

  1. Australopithecus
  2. Cro-magnon man
  3. Java ape man
  4. Peking man

Answer: 1. Australopithecus

Australopithecus is also called the first ape-man. Some of its characteristics are as follows They were about 1.5 m tall and had human as well as ape characters. They possessed bipedal locomotion, omnivorous diet and had erected posture.

Their cranial capacity was about 500 cc, similar to that of apes. They lived in caves. They had the lumber curve in their back.

They hunted with simple weapons like stones. They lived in Africa region about 3.2 mya.

Question 72. The scientific name of Soloman is

  1. Homo stenosis
  2. Neanderthal
  3. Ramapithecus
  4. Homo erectus

Answer: 1. Homo stenosis

Home stenosis is the scientific name of Soloman

Question 73. Who first discovered fossils of ‘ramapithecus’?

  1. Dubois
  2. R dart
  3. Ge lewis
  4. Jk fuhlort

Answer: 3. Ge lewis

Ramapithecus was discovered in n. India and in e. Africa, beginning in 1932. It was discovered by George Lewis.

Question 74. Which one of the fossil men stood first?

  1. Australopithecus
  2. Homo erectus
  3. Sinanthropus
  4. Gigantopithecus

Answer: 2. Homo erectus

‘Homo erectus’ (java man) is called ‘upright man’ (stood erect). So, it first stood erect

Question 75. The lowest capacity of the cranium was found in the

  1. Neanderthal man
  2. Australopithecus
  3. Cro-magnon man
  4. Java man

Answer: 2. Australopithecus

Out of the given options, the lowest brain capacity is found in Australopithecus, ranging from 450-600 cc or slightly above

Question 76. Which one is called ‘a man with ape brain’?

  1. Dryopithecus
  2. Pithecanthropus
  3. Sinanthropus
  4. Australopithecus

Answer: 4. Australopithecus

Australopithecus were the ancestors of humans with the ape brain, whose brains were in the process of development

Question 77. Human beings belong to the family–Hominidae which evolved about 24 million years ago. The relative family–Pongidae includes

  1. Chimpanzee
  2. Gorilla
  3. Orangutan
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

The Hominidae (also known as great apes) form a taxonomic family of primates, including four genera

  1. Chimpanzees
  2. Gorillas
  3. Humans (homo)
  4. Orangutans (pongo)

Question 78. Handy man is

  1. Cro-magnon
  2. Neanderthal
  3. Homo habilis
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Homo habilis

Homo habilis is called handyman because researchers believe this species of human ancestors were the first primates to use tools, leaving evidence of stone tools at various archaeological sites.

Question 79. Which one of the following is considered a common ancestor of old world monkeys, apes and man?

  1. Oligopithecus
  2. Shivapithecus
  3. Ramapithecus
  4. Parapithecus

Answer: 3. Ramapithecus

Ramapithecus is an extinct group of primates that lived about 12 to 14 million years ago. Thus, it is considered a common ancestor of old-world monkeys, apes and man.

Question 80. Which of the following statement is correct about homo erectus?

  1. Had a large brain of around 900 cc.
  2. Appeared about 1.5 million years ago.
  3. Ate meat.
  4. Evolved from homo habilis.

Choose the correct option.

  1. 1 And 2
  2. 3 And 4
  3. 1, 2, 3 And 4

Answer: 4. 1, 2, 3 And 4

All given statements are correct. Features of homo erectus are as follows They appeared about 1.5-1.7 million years ago.

They evolved from homo habilis. They were about 1.5-1.8 m long. Their cranial capacity was 800- 1300 cc, cranium was domed to accommodate large brains. They ate me

Question 81. The biological name of the Java man is

  1. Homo erectus erectus
  2. Anthropopithecus erectus
  3. Pithecanthropus erectus
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Ava man (homo erectus erectus, formerly also anthropopathic’s erectus, Pithecanthropus erectus) is an early human fossil discovered in 1891 and 1892 on the island of Java (dutch east indies, now part of Indonesia).

Question 82. The cranial capacity of Java ape was about

  1. 560 Cc
  2. 900 Cc
  3. 1300 Cc
  4. 1600 Cc

Answer: 2. 900 Cc

The cranial capacity of Java ape was about 900 cc.

Question 83. Proper burial of dead bodies, for the first time started in which prehistoric man’s period?

  1. Peking man
  2. Java man
  3. Neanderthal man
  4. Cro-magnon man

Answer: 3. Neanderthal man

Neanderthal buried the dead bodies with flowers and tools.

Question 84. Which is the correct chronological sequence of human evolution?

  1. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → homo erectus neanderthalensis → homo sapiens
  2. Ramapithecus → homo habilis → homo sapiens → homo erectus
  3. Australopithecus → ramapithecus → homo habilis → homo sapiens
  4. Homo habilis → australopithecus → homo erectus → homo sapiens

Answer: 4. Homo habilis → Australopithecus → homo erectus → homo sapiens

The correct chronological sequence of human evolution is ramapithecus →australopithecus → homo erectus neanderthalensis → homo sapiens

Question 85. The fossils of homo habilis were discovered by Leaky et al. (1964) In

  1. Germany
  2. Europe
  3. Australia
  4. Africa

Answer: 4. Mary Leaky and lbs Leaky discovered the fossils of homo habilis from Pleistocene rocks of Olduvai Gorge in East Africa

Question 86. Match the following columns.

NEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs Question 86 Match the following columns

Answer: 4. 1–4, 2–3, 3–1, 4–2

Question 87. The evolution of man took place in

  1. Central Africa
  2. Central Asia
  3. Australia
  4. America

Answer: 1. Central Africa

The evolution of man took place in central Africa. It is considered that the common ancestor of both humans and apes, Dryopithecus was found in the Miocene rock of Africa and Europe.

Question 88. Identify the cranial capacity a, b and c of the given primates.
Primates → cranial capacities (in cubic centimetres)

  1. Chimpanzee and gorilla → a
  2. Australopithecus → 500 cc
  3. Homo habilis → b
  4. Java ape-man → 800-1000 cc
  5. Heidelberg man → c

Choose the correct option

  1. A–325-500 cc, b–900 cc, c–800- 1000 cc
  2. A–325-510 cc, b–700 cc, c–1300 cc
  3. A–325-510 cc, b–700 cc, c–850- 1200 cc
  4. A–325-510 cc, b–700 cc, c–850- 1400 cc

Answer: 2. Australopithecus → 500 cc

The cranial capacities of apes and man are Chimpanzee and gorilla → 325-510 cc (a) Homo habilis – 700 cc (b) Heidelberg man →1300 cc (c)

Question 89. A cranial capacity of 1200 cc belongs to

  1. Java man
  2. Peking man
  3. Cro-magnon man
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 2. Peking man

Peking man is homo erectus pekinensis and it was discovered near Peking (china). Their brain size was 1200 cc.

Question 90. Which of the following presumably possesses a cranial capacity larger than modern man?

  1. Neanderthal man
  2. Peking man
  3. Australopithecus
  4. Cro-magnon man

Answer: 4. Cro-magnon man

Cro-magnon were the first humans (genus–homo) to have a prominent chin. The brain capacity was about 1600 cc (100 cubic inches), somewhat larger than the average as compared to modern humans

Question 91. The oldest human ancestral fossil discovered from the rocks of the Oligocene epoch is called

  1. Dryopithecus
  2. Ramapithecus
  3. Parapithecus
  4. Cro-magnon

Answer: 3. Parapithecus

Parapithecus fossils were the oldest human ancestral fossils discovered in 1911 from Egypt, in the Oligocene epoch

Question 92. The epoch of the beginning of human life is

  1. Palaeocene
  2. Pleistocene
  3. Pliocene
  4. Holocene

Answer: 3. Pliocene

Pliocene is characterised by the origin of man. Thus, it is the epoch of the beginning of human life.

Question 93. Which of the following is the major change during human evolution?

  1. Formation of a rounded head, vertical forehead and flat face
  2. Reduction in the size of eyebrows ridges, formation of elevated nose and prominent chin
  3. Erect posture and bipedal locomotion
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

All the given options represent changes during human evolution. Thus, option 4 is correct.

Question 94. Which of the following was not in the direction of the evolution of the human species?

  1. Raised orbital ridges
  2. Binocular vision
  3. Developed brain
  4. Opposable thumb

Answer: 1. Raised orbital ridges

Raised orbital ridges are not in the direction of the evolution of the human species.

Question 95. Anthropoids evolved into

  1. Apes, proconsul and monkeys
  2. Apes, cro-magnon men and old-world monkeys
  3. Proconsul, New World Monkeys and Peking man
  4. New world monkeys, proconsul and homo habilis

Answer: 1. Apes, proconsul and monkeys

Anthropoids are like human beings or an ape. Anthropoid gorillas, chimpanzees and gibbons, are all anthropoid apes, having long arms, no tails and highly developed brains.

Thus, monkeys, apes and proconsul, are all anthropoids.

Question 96. The difference between homo sapiens and the homo erectus was

  1. Homo sapiens originated in Africa, while homo erectus originated in Asia
  2. Homo erectus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens
  3. Homo erectus stayed in Africa, while homo sapiens were nomads
  4. The size of the brain of homo erectus was smaller than that of homo sapiens

Answer: 4. The size of the brain of homo erectus was smaller than that of homo sapiens

Homo erectus were Java men with cranial capacity 800-1000 cc. Homo sapiens are living modern men with a cranial capacity of 1450 cc. Thus, the brain size of homo erectus was smaller than that of homo sapiens.

Question 97. The most recent in human evolution is

  1. Mesolithic
  2. Neolithic
  3. Upper palaeolithic
  4. Middle palaeolithic

Answer: 2. Neolithic

Neolithic is also called the age of agriculture. It is the most recent time of evolution in human

Evolution Mcq For NEET

Question 98. The rise of ist primates occurred in …………………. Epoch.

  1. Palaeocene
  2. Oligocene
  3. Miocene
  4. Eocene

Answer: 1. Palaeocene

The first primate-like mammals, or proto-primates, evolved in the early palaeocene epoch (65.5-55.8 million years ago), at the beginning of the Cenozoic era.

They were roughly similar to squirrels and tree shrews in size and appearance.

Question 99. Which of the following is the closest relative of man?

  1. Orangutan
  2. Gorilla
  3. Sinanthropus
  4. Gibbon

Answer: 3. Sinanthropus

Misanthropes (from Sino-China and anthro-man) is an archaic genus in the scientific classification system to which the early hominid fossils of Peking man belong.

They have now been reclassified as Homo erectus. The genus– Sinanthropus is now disused but it is still known as the closest relative of man. The other three are apes.

Question 100. Apes and hominids have evolved from

  1. Dryopithecus
  2. Australopithecus
  3. Homo erectus
  4. Homo habilis

Answer: 1. Dryopithecus

Dryopithecus is the oldest human-like fossil. It is considered the common ancestor of both hominids and apes. Dryopithecus was found in Miocene rock of Africa and Europe

Question 101. Match the following columns.

NEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs Question 101 Match the following columns

Answer: 3. A–2, b–1, c–3, d–4

Question 102. Match the following columns.

NEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs Question 102 Match the following columns

Answer: 2. A–4, b–3, c–2, d–1

Question 103. Assertion almost 100% of the genetic makeup of man is similar to chimpanzees. Reason (r) 94% genetic makeup of man and gibbon is similar.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r is false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 4. Both a and r are false

These can be corrected as the analysis of the sequence of 7100 nucleotides in a segment of dna from the haemoglobin gene suggests that humans and chimpanzees are closer to one another than chimpanzees and gorillas.

They matched at 98.8% of the bases in man and chimpanzee and 97.9% with gorilla and man.

The gibbons are sufficiently different to be in their own family of hominids, the Hylobatidae. Along with the great apes, humans are members of the family Hominidae.

Of all living species, people are genetically and evolutionarily closest to the African apes. Subsequently, they have been placed into the same subfamily, the homininae. The genetic similarity between man and gibbons is less than 94%.

Question 104. Assertion Neanderthal man was more intelligent than other fossil relatives. Reason (r) it had the largest cranial capacity.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r is false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a

The Neanderthal man is considered the most intelligent man as compared to the other relatives of ancient man such as fossils of homo erectus.

The cranial capacity of the Neanderthal man was 1600 cm3, which is higher when compared to the cranial capacity of the modern man, which is 1400 cm3.

This is the reason that these men were considered more intelligent.

Question 105. Consider the following statements.

Java men and Peking men were called homo erectus by Mayer.
They both did not use fire.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect

Bhomo erectus evolved from the homo habilis and were divided into three groups called the Java man, Peking man and Heidelberg man.

Java men and Peking men have the same characteristics like using fire, living in the same caves, body length, omnivorous and cannabis. But the only difference was in the capacity of the cranium.

Evolution Mcq For NEET

Question 106. Assertion southern ape is called the connecting link between ape and man. Reason (r) This is an Australopithecus who had combined features of ape and man.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r is false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a.

Southern ape is called a connecting link between ape and man. It is first with fully bipedal hominids, with small brains, short stature, and heads balanced on the neck.

Thus, Australopithecus had combined features of ape and man

Question 107. Match the hominids with their correct brain size.

NEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs Question 107 Match the following columns

Answer: 3. A–3, b–4, c–1, d–2

Question 108. Hominids originated during

  1. Palaeocene
  2. Pliocene
  3. Miocene
  4. Oligocene

Answer: 3. Miocene

The term hominid refers to humans and their direct and near-direct bipedal ancestors. Hominids originated during the Miocene epoch.

Question 109. Consider the following statements.

From an evolutionary point of view, the human gestation period is believed to be shortening.
One major evolutionary trend in humans has been the larger head undergoing a relatively faster growth rate in the foetal stage.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct

The incorrect statement can be corrected as the humans would require more gestation period (should have been 21 months as compared to 9 months and will increase) because the head size is increasing (especially the frontal brain).

Hence, the growth rate needs to be increased, but surprisingly most of the brain growth occurs after birth till 2 years (when the anterior fontanelle closes at 18 months) and even more till 30 years when the cranial sutures close.

Thus, an increase in brain/skull size would require an increase in the gestation period.

Question 110. Assertion human ancestors never used their tails and so the tail-expressing gene has disappeared in them. Reason (r) Lamarck’s theory of evolution is popularly called the theory of continuity of germplasm.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is false, but r is true
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 4. Both a and r are false and can be corrected as if humans share ancestry with primates, then we should expect to see remnants of that common ancestry in our genes.

For example, the tail is occasionally exhibited in atavism. According to current evolutionary theory, the ancestors of humans lost their tails about 25 million years ago, when apes (tailless primates) diverged from monkeys (tailed primates) secondly, the theory of continuity of the germplasm was given by Weismann

Question 111. Proconsuls are ancestors of

  1. Apes only
  2. Man only
  3. Both apes and man
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Both apes and man

Proconsul africanus is an ancestor of both apes and early humans that lived about 25 million years ago.

Question 112. Which of the following shows the smallest cranial capacity?

  1. Rhesus monkey
  2. Orangutan
  3. Chimpanzee
  4. Gorilla

Answer: 2. Orangutan

Orangutan has the smallest cranial capacity in comparison to rhesus monkey, chimpanzee and gorilla.

Evolution Mcq For NEET

Question 113. The tailless primate is

  1. Lemur
  2. African baboon
  3. Spider monkey
  4. Loris

Answer: 4. Loris

Loris is found outside Madagascar. Slender loris, loris tardigrades, is seen in southern India and Sri lanka, while Nycticebus bengalensis is from northern India.

Like lemurs, they also eat fruits and small animals. However, they are tailless, move slowly and often hang upside down.

Question 114. Neanderthal man became extinct due to

  1. Earthquakes
  2. Forest fire
  3. Competition
  4. Origin of active mammals

Answer: 3. Competition

Mousterian technologies, the sudden appearance of modern homo sapiens, upper palaeolithic technologies and the absence of transitional anatomical or technological forms have led many researchers to conclude that Neanderthal was driven to extinction through competition with cro-magnon or related populations. Hence, option 3 is correct.

Question 115. Peking Man is known

  1. Australopithecus
  2. Sinanthropus
  3. Pithecanthropus
  4. Homo sapiens

Answer: 2. SinanthropusNEET Biology A Brief Account Of Evolution And Human Evolution MCQs Question 107 Match the following columns

Wc Pei (1924) discovered the fossils of Peking man from the limestone caves of Choukoutien near Peking (Beijing – the capital of China and formerly known as Peking) and named them Sinanthropus.

Davidson Black (1927) named it Sinanthropus pekinensis. Mayer (1950) renamed it homo erectus pekinensis (a subspecies).

Question 116. Man’s Place in Nature was written by

  1. Huxley
  2. Darwin
  3. Dawson
  4. Dart

Answer: 1. Huxley

Man’s Place in Nature is a book by Thomas Henry Huxley published in 1863, in which he gave evidence for the evolution of man and apes from a common ancestor. It was the first book that covered the topic of human evolution

Question 117. Who coined the term ‘homo sapiens’?

  1. Charles darwin
  2. Lamarck
  3. Carolus linnaeus
  4. Lederberg

Answer: 3. Carolus linnaeus

The species binomial ‘homo sapiens’ was coined by Carolus Linnaeus in his 18th-century work, Systema Naturae.

Question 118. ‘The Descent of Man was published by

  1. Charles Darwin in 1871
  2. Charles Darwin in 1859
  3. Hugo de vries in 1901
  4. Lamarck in 1809

Answer: 1. Charles Darwin in 1871

‘The Descent of Man’ was published on 24th February 1871 and was written by Charles Darwin. It is a book on sexual selection and evolutionary biology

NEET Biology Origin Of Life MCQs

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers Origin Of Life

Question 1. What does evolutionary biology refer to?

  1. The study of the history of life forms on earth
  2. Study of pedigrees of life forms on earth
  3. It is equivalent to demography
  4. It is equivalent to anthropology

Answer: 1. The study of the history of life forms on earth

Evolutionary biology is the study of the history of life forms on Earth. The word ‘evolution’(Latin-volvere) means to unfold or unroll. In a broad sense, evolution simply means an orderly change from one condition to another.

Evolution is a continuous process in which progeny with modification is produced.

Question 2. What is observed in evolution?

  1. A sudden change occurring in a population
  2. Progeny with modifications
  3. It is a discontinuous process
  4. All of the above

Answer: 2. Progeny with modifications

The term evolution means that living beings constantly change. It is a continuous process in which progeny with modification is produced.

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 3. The evolution occurring at a genetic level is called

  1. Macroevolution
  2. Mega evolutions
  3. Inorganic evolution
  4. Microevolution

Answer: 4. Microevolution

Microevolution is a series of changes within a species due to gene mutations and the accumulation of variations. It is an evolution occurring genetically.

Question 4. The term ‘evolution’ was coined by

  1. Charles Darwin
  2. Francesco Redi
  3. Herbert spencer
  4. Aristotle

Answer: 3. Herbert Spencer

The term evolution was given by Herbert Spencer

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

NEET Biology Origin Of Life MCQs

Question 5. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

  1. Formation of protobionts
  2. Synthesis of organic monomers
  3. Synthesis of organic polymers
  4. Formation of dna-based genetic systems

Choose the correct option

  1. 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. 1, 3, 2, 4
  3. 2, 3, 1, 4
  4. 2, 3, 4, 1

Answer: 3. 2, 3, 1, 4

The correct sequence of events in the origin of life is as follows

Synthesis of organic monomers
Synthesis of organic polymers
Formation of protobionts
Formation of DNA-based genetic systems.

Question 6. Which of the following gas was absent in the atmosphere at the time of the origin of life?

  1. NH3
  2. H2
  3. O2
  4. Ch4

Answer: 3. O2

Primitive conditions on the earth were high temperatures, volcanic storms, and a reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3, H2, etc. There was no oxygen on the primitive earth

Question 7. Consider the following statements regarding the origin of life.

The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

The first originated organisms were prokaryotic chemoheterotrophs and oxygen was not available on earth at that time, so it must be anaerobic too. Even the first autotrophs were dependent on chemicals as oxygen was not released. Thus, they were non-green chemoautotrophs

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 8. Evolution means mp

History of race
Development of race
History and development of race with variations
Progressive development of the race
Answer: 3. History and development of race with variations

Evolution simply means an orderly change from one condition to another. Evolution is a continuous process in which progeny or race with modifications or variations are produced.

Question 9. Origin of life took place in/on

Water
Air
Mountains
Land
Answer: 1. Water

Primitive life originated in the water bodies on the primitive earth from inanimate matter by chemical evolution through a series of chemical reactions about 4 billion years ago

Question 10. The sequence of origin of life could be

  1. Organic materials → inorganic materials → non-colloidal aggregate → eobiont → cell
  2. Inorganic materials → organic materials → colloidal aggregates → eobiont → cell
  3. Inorganic materials → organic materials → eobiont → cell → colloidal aggregate
  4. Inorganic materials → inorganic materials → eobiont → cell → colloidal aggregate

Answer: 2. Inorganic materials → organic materials → colloidal aggregates → eobiont → cell

The sequence of origin of life is as follows Free atom → inorganic materials → organic materials → colloidal aggregates → origin of coacervates like droplets (Eobionts) → prokaryotes (Single cell organism) → eukaryotes (Multicellular organism)

Question 11. The origin of life as a result of chemical evolution was properly explained by

  1. Fox
  2. Oparin
  3. Watson
  4. Haeckel
  5. Mendel
  6. Crick

Choose the correct option.

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 5 and 6
  4. Only 2

Answer: 4. Only 2

Oparin and Haldane explained the chemical evolution of life.

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 12. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, earth’s atmosphere before the origin of life consisted of a mixture of

  1. O3, CH4 , O2 and HO2
  2. O2, NH3, CH4 and HO2
  3. H2, CO2, NH3 and CH4
  4. CH4, NH3, HO2 and HO2 vapours

Answer: 4. CH4, NH3 , H2 and HO2 vapours

According to one of the most widely accepted theories, the earth’s atmosphere before the origin of life consisted of a mixture of CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapours.

The atmosphere of primitive Earth was strongly reducing. At high temperatures (5000°C to 6000°C) elements like hydrogen, oxygen, carbon and nitrogen could not exist in a free state.

These combined variously either among themselves or with metals forming oxides, carbides and nitrides.

Question 13. The idea of the ‘fiery origin of the earth’ was given by

  1. Lamaitre
  2. James jeans
  3. Haldane
  4. Oparin

Answer: 2. James’ jeans

The idea of the fiery origin of the earth was given by James Jeans. According to the Tidal creation theory as proposed by James Jeans, a huge tide was caused by the sun’s surface by the gravitational pull of a stray star.

It was followed by a scattering of bits of the crest of a high wave into space resulting in the formation of planets. Thus, each planet, including Earth was a fiery chunk that cooled down over billions of years.

Question 14. Which of the following compounds has a very important role in pre-biotic evolution?

  1. CH4
  2. SO2
  3. SO3
  4. NO

Answer: 1. CH4

CH4 (methane) was probably the first organic compound formed on primitive earth, and thus has an important role in pre-biotic evolution.

\(\mathrm{CH}_4+2 \mathrm{O}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_2+2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\)

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 15. The correct sequence for the manufacture of the gases on the primitive earth is

  1. NH3, nucleic acid, protein and carbohydrate
  2. Protein, carbohydrate, water and nucleic acid
  3. NH3, protein, carbohydrate and nucleic acid
  4. NH3, water, nucleic acid and protein

Answer: 4. NH3, water, nucleic acid and protein

The correct sequence for the manufacture of the gases on the primitive earth is NH3, water, nucleic acid and protein. There were abundant hydrogen atoms in the primitive atmosphere.

First H2 combined with nitrogen to form ammonia and later it combined with molecular O2 to form water.

Later, CH4 H2O and NH3, combined to form amino acids which got polymerised into proteins.

H2 -bases, sugars and phosphates combined to form nucleic acids.

Question 16. One of the possible early sources of energy was/was aims

  1. CO2
  2. Chlorophyll
  3. Green plants
  4. Uv-rays and lightening

Answer: 4. Uv-rays and lightening

In the primitive atmosphere, the external sources of energy were – solar radiations such as ultraviolet light, X-rays, etc. energy from electrical discharges like lightning

Question 17. The first organisms to evolve on the earth were

  1. Saprotrophs
  2. Photoautotrophs
  3. Chemoautotrophs
  4. Chemoheterotrophs

Answer: 3. Chemoautotrophs

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The first originated organisms were prokaryotic chemoheterotrophs and oxygen was not available on earth at that time, so it must be anaerobic too.

Even the first autotrophs were dependent on chemicals as oxygen was not released. Thus, they were non-green chemoautotrophs

Question 18. Origin of life is also called

  1. Biogenesis
  2. Protobiogenesis
  3. Biopoiesis
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Biogenesis is the production of new living organisms or organelles. The origin of life on the earth is called proto-biogenesis.

Biopoiesis is a process by which living organisms are thought to develop from non-living matter. So, the origin of life is also called biogenesis, proto-biogenesis and biopoiesis

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 19. Which of these are considered most essential in the origin of life?

  1. Enzymes
  2. Nucleic acids
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Proteins

Answer: 2. Nucleic acids

Nucleic acids are the polymer of nucleotides that exhibits the unique ability of self-replication and self-perpetuation.

Owing to their ability of self-replication, nucleic acids serve as genetic material and carriers of heredity traits from one generation to the next which is a pre-requisite for living organisms.

Thus, nucleic acids are the most essential in the origin of life

Question 20. The concept of evolution was given by Punjab

  1. Darwin
  2. Aristotle
  3. Lamarck
  4. Empedocles

Answer: 4. Empedocles

Empedocles, a philosopher of Greek descent, lived in Sicily in the 5th century BCE.

Empedocles developed a theory of evolution that consisted of natural elements being acted upon by natural forces to create the world that we know today.

Question 21. From the point of view of early chemical evolution that preceded the origin of life on Earth, the most important simple organic molecules formed were

  1. Sugars and amino acids
  2. Glycerol and fatty acids
  3. Purines and pyrimidines
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

The early inorganic molecules interacted and produced simple organic molecules such as simple sugars (e.g. ribose, deoxyribose, glucose, etc.), nitrogenous bases (e.g. purines, pyrimidines), amino acids, glycerol, fatty acid, etc.

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 22. The simple organic compounds that may have first evolved in the direction of the origin of life on Earth, may have been

  1. Proteins and amino acids
  2. Proteins and nucleic acids
  3. Urea and nucleic acids
  4. Urea and amino acids

Answer: 2. Proteins and nucleic acids

Proteins and nucleic acids were the first to evolve on Earth which was required for the origin of life. Protein originated before the nucleic acids. In the nucleic acids (RNA and DNA), RNA was the first genetic material

Question 23. Life cannot originate today because

  1. Raw materials are not available
  2. Life has already originated
  3. Today’s atmosphere is reducing
  4. Today’s atmosphere is oxidising

Answer: 4. Today’s atmosphere is oxidising

An atmosphere containing free oxygen would be fatal to all origins of life schemes. While oxygen is necessary for life, free oxygen would oxidise and thus, destroy all organic molecules required for the origin of life. Thus, life cannot originate in existing oxidising atmosphere conditions.

Question 24. The source of energy at the time of the origin of life was

  1. Volcanic eruptions, radioactive decay and lightning
  2. Burning of fossil fuels
  3. Cosmic rays only
  4. Lightning only

Answer: 1. Volcanic eruptions, radioactive decay and lightning

New analysis shows that radioactive decay, lightning and gases from volcanic eruptions were the sources of energy at the time of origin and these could have given rise to the first life on earth

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 25. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of chemical substances produced during the origin of life on the earth?

  1. Water, amino acid, nucleic acid and enzyme
  2. Glucose, amino acid, nucleic acid and protein
  3. Amino acid, ammonium phosphate and nucleic acid
  4. Ammonia, amino acid, protein and nucleic acid

Answer: 1. Water, amino acid, nucleic acid and enzyme

Life was preceded by biomolecules. Biomolecules evolved from simple inorganic molecules present in the primitive atmosphere on Earth like methane, ammonia, hydrogen, nitrogen and water vapour.

These simple molecules combined under the influence of thunder lightning to generate amino acids.

Aggregates of amino acids later on produced nucleic acids and biological catalysts, i.e. enzymes. Thus, the correct sequence is water, amino acid, nucleic acid and enzyme.

Question 26. It is useful to study the origin and evolution of life because

  1. It cannot exist anywhere else
  2. We learn about unity and diversity
  3. We learn that the human species has the responsibility to conserve nature
  4. The human species is not the most evolved

Answer: 2. We learn about unity and diversity

The remarkably diverse forms of life on this planet arose from evolutionary processes. A striking unity underlies the diversity of life. For example, DNA is the universal genetic language common to all organisms.

Similarities between organisms are evident at all levels of the biological hierarchy.

Question 27. Which of the following statements does not explain the usefulness of the study of the origin and evolution of life?

  1. We learn that life can exist anywhere else also
  2. We learn about the unity and diversity of living organisms
  3. The human species is the most evolved, so no harm can be done to us
  4. We learn that human beings have the responsibility to conserve nature

Answer: 3. The human species is the most evolved, so no harm can be done to us

The statement in option 3 does not explain the usefulness of the study of the origin and evolution of life. It can be corrected as Evolution is a theory of change over the course of time.

Not only humans but many species are the most evolved. Rest all options are correct

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 28. An examination of fossils and other materials indicates that

  1. Life has been in existence since the beginning of the earth
  2. Life appears to have been in existence for more than three billion years
  3. Life may not have existed on Earth until about two billion years ago
  4. Life was transported on the earth from some other planets

Answer: 2. Life appears to have been in existence for more than three billion years

The oldest known fossils are around 3.5 billion years old, 14 times the age of the oldest dinosaurs.

But the fossil record may stretch back still further. For instance, in August 2016 researchers found what appear to be fossilised microbes dating back 3.7 billion years

Question 29. Galaxies of the present-day universe were formed due to condensation by …… Earth, situated in the milky way galaxy is said to have been formed about ……. Ago. Gases such as NH4, CO2, water vapour and……. Were released. Choose the correct options in order

  1. Gravitation, 4.5 billion years, methane
  2. Acceleration, 2.5 billion years, sulphur
  3. Freezing, 1.5 billion years, ethane
  4. Acceleration, 4.5 billion years, methane

Answer: 1. Gravitation, 4.5 billion years, methane

Question 30. How old is our universe?

  1. 10 Billion years old
  2. 20 Billion years old
  3. 15 Billion years old
  4. 200 Billion years old

Answer: 2. 20 Billion years old

The origin of life on Earth is estimated to have occurred around 3.5 billion or 3500 million years ago dusters of galaxies comprise the universe.

Question 31. The origin of life on earth dates back to hp

  1. 6000 million years
  2. 3500 million years
  3. 2000 million years
  4. 10,000 million years

Answer: 2. 3500 million years

The origin of life on earth is estimated to have occurred around 3.5 billion or 3500 million years ago

Question 32. After about how many years of the formation of the earth, life appeared on this planet?

  1. 500 Billion years
  2. 50 million years
  3. 500 million years
  4. 50 Billion years

Answer: 3. 500 Million years

Life appeared 500 million years after the formation of Earth, i.e. almost 4 billion years back.

Question 33. The long gap of 3500 million years between the origin of the earth and of life on it was due to a lack of

  1. Oxygen
  2. Water
  3. Dna
  4. Suitable temperature

Answer: 4. Suitable temperature

The earth is believed to be originated about 4500 million years ago (in the Precambrian Era).

Earlier earth’s surface was too hot (about 1000°C). At this temperature, life was not possible and water molecules existed in vapour form. It took a long time to cool down the earth.

About 3500 million years ago, the earth’s surface became cool enough to hold water and the large water bodies or the first ocean came into existence.

It marked the beginning of the first life on the earth and water was the most essential factor for the origin of life.

Thus, a long gap between the origin of earth and life was due to the lack of suitable temperature

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 34. The temperature in the interior of the sun is above 20000000°c, the reason for this high temperature is

  1. Various exothermic reactions are taking place
  2. Fusion converts the hydrogen of the sun to helium
  3. Collision of particles releasing energy
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Fusion converting hydrogen of the sun to helium

The temperature in the interior of the sun is about 20000000°C. The reason for this high temperature is fusion reactions that convert the hydrogen of the sun to helium

Question 35. The discovery of fossils of cyanobacteria indicates that life originated sometime

  1. Prior to 4600 million years ago
  2. Between 4600 and 3600 million years ago
  3. Around 3600 million years ago
  4. During some other period

Answer: 3. Around 3600 million years ago

Cyanobacteria (Cyanophyta) are a group of bacteria, previously known as blue-green algae.

They are unicellular and non-motile, often coated with mucilaginous slime and the photosynthetic membranes occur as thylakoids within the cell cytoplasm rather than being in a membrane-bounded chloroplast.

The cyanobacteria have an extensive fossil record.

Question 36. Anaerobic photosynthetic bacteria appeared on the Earth about

  1. 500 million years ago
  2. 1500 million years ago
  3. 2500 million years ago
  4. 3500 million years ago

Answer: 4. 3500 Million years ago

Evolution of life-3800-4200 million years back (mya). Evolution of bacteria 3500-3800 mya. Evolution of cyanobacteria 3300- 3500 mya. Evolution of eukaryotic algae 1600 mya.

Question 37. Who proposed the big-bang theory?

  1. Father Suarez
  2. Abbe lemaitre
  3. Arno allen penzias
  4. Edwin p hubble

Answer: 2. Abbe lemaitre

There are several theories regarding the origin of the universe, but the most accepted is the Big Bang theory.

It was proposed by Abbe Lemaitre in 1931. According to the Big Bang theory, about 15-20 billion years ago, cosmic matter was in a condensed form consisting of high-energy neutrons.

The explosion took place due to the movement of these neutrons which broke the condensed matter and scattered its fragments into space at an enormous velocity making a Big Bang sound and thus, the theory came to be known as the Big Bang theory.

Question 38. An attempt to explain the origin of ……………… Was made by big-bang theory.

  1. Earth
  2. Solar-system
  3. Universe
  4. Continents

Answer: 3. Universe

There are several theories regarding the origin of the universe, but the most accepted is the Big Bang theory.

It was proposed by Abbe Lemaitre in 1931. According to the Big Bang theory, about 15-20 billion years ago, cosmic matter was in a condensed form consisting of high-energy neutrons.

The explosion took place due to the movement of these neutrons which broke the condensed matter and scattered its fragments into space at an enormous velocity making a Big Bang sound and thus, the theory came to be known as the Big Bang theory.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 39. Assertion According to the big-bang hypothesis, about 20 billion years ago the universe was a big ball of only neutrons. Reason (r) movement of these particles is known to generate tremendous heat which caused explosion due to temperature and pressure changes.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r is false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation There are several theories regarding the origin of the universe, but the most accepted is the Big Bang theory.

It was proposed by Abbe Lemaitre in 1931. According to the Big Bang theory, about 15-20 billion years ago, cosmic matter was in a condensed form consisting of high-energy neutrons.

The explosion took place due to the movement of these neutrons which broke the condensed matter and scattered its fragments into space at an enormous velocity making a Big Bang sound and thus, the theory came to be known as the Big Bang theory.

Question 40. Assertion big-bang theory is based on studies of sir james jeans. Reason (r) he gave the theory of steady state.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r is false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 3. A is true, but r is false

A is true, but R is false and Reason can be corrected as In cosmology, the steady-state model is an alternative to the Big Bang theory of the evolution of the universe.

The steady-state model was proposed by three individuals in 1948, Hermann Bondi, Thomas Gold and Fred Hoyle

Question 41. According to scientists, the big bang occurred approximately ………………….. Years ago.

  1. 100 Million-200 million
  2. 100 Thousand
  3. 1 Billion
  4. 15-20 Billion

Answer: 4. 15-20 Billion

According to scientists, the Big Bang occurred about 15-20 billion years ago.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 42. According to the theory of special creation

  1. All the living beings on earth were created by god or supernatural power
  2. All the living beings on earth were in the form of spores or microorganisms
  3. All the living beings on earth originated from non-living material
  4. All living beings originated from pre-existing living forms

Answer: 1. All the living beings on earth were created by god or supernatural power

The theory of special creation states that life was created by God or supernatural power, in the same conditions as they exist now.

Question 43. The theory of special creation was given by

  1. Weismann
  2. Helmont
  3. Maupertuis
  4. Father Suarez

Answer: 4. Father Suarez

Father Suarez was a strong believer (supporter) of the theory of special creation. He believed that the whole life on earth was formed in 6 days.

Question 44. The theory of special creation argues that

  1. All living organisms were created as they are in present times.
  2. Diversity was always the same since creation.
  3. Earth is 4000 years old.

Choose the right option to complete the given statement.

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 4. All statements are correct.

The greatest supporter of the special creation theory was Father Suarez.

According to this theory, life was created by supernatural powers and the world was created in six days.

The earth is 4000 years old. All the diversity has existed since creation.

Question 45. The cosmozoic theory was given by

  1. Darwin
  2. Richter
  3. Aristotle
  4. Van Baer

Answer: 2. Richter

Cosmozoic theory or the theory of panspermia was proposed by Richter in 1865 and was later supported by Arrhenius in 1908.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 46. The extra-terrestrial origin of life was proposed by

  1. Natural selection
  2. Origin of species
  3. Continental drift
  4. Theory of panspermia

Answer: 4. Theory of panspermia

The theory of panspermia was proposed by Richter. According to this theory, protoplasm reached Earth in the form of spores or germs from unknown or extra-terrestrial parts of the universe with cosmic dust and subsequently evolved into various forms of life.

Question 47. Assertion Arrhenius considered panspermia as mainly responsible for the transfer of germs from other planets to Earth.  Reason (r) present-day study of meteorites like allan hill: 84001 which was knocked out from Mars in Antarctica, is rich in aromatic hydrocarbons deposited by biological activity.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r is false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. Arrhenius considered panspermia as mainly responsible for the transfer of germs from other planets to Earth.

The cosmozoic or interplanetary theory was put forward by Richter and supported by Arrhenius and others.

It stated that life had reached the earth from some other heavenly body in the form of resistant spores.

Present day study of a meteorite called Allan Hills 84001 which was knocked out from Mars in Antarctica revealed that it is rich in aromatic hydrocarbons deposited by biological activity.

Microscopic fossils of bacteria in the meteorite suggested that these organisms originated on Mars, but these claims are controversial

Question 48. Who disapproved of the theory of spontaneous generation?

  1. Urey and miller
  2. Oparin
  3. Redi, spallanzani and pasteur
  4. Aristotle

Answer: 3. Redi, spallanzani and pasteur

The theory of spontaneous generation is also called abiogenesis or autogenesis. This theory states that life originated from non-living by itself or
spontaneous manner.

Francesco Redi, Louis Pasteur and Spallanzani disapproved of the theory of abiogenesis

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 49. Louis Pasteur is famous for

  1. Recapitulation theory
  2. The germ theory of diseases
  3. Cell theory
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 2. Germ theory of diseases

The germ theory of disease is the currently accepted scientific theory for many diseases.

The more formal experiments on the relationship between germ and disease were conducted by Louis Pasteur between the years 1860 and 1864

Question 50. Which one of the following experiments suggested that the simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?

  1. Microbes did not appear in stored meat
  2. Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
  3. Microbes appeared from unsterilised organic matter
  4. The meat was not spoiled when heated and kept sealed in a vessel

Answer: 4. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept sealed in a vessel

Francesco Redi, an Italian physician, took the flesh and cooked it so that no organisms were left alive.

Then he placed flesh in three jars, of which, one was uncovered, the second was covered with parchment and the third one was covered with fine muslin.

He kept these jars for a few days and observed that maggots developed only in the uncovered jar though the flies also visited other jars.

Thus, an experiment in option (d) suggested that the simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter

Question 51. The theory of spontaneous generation or abiogenesis was disproved by swan flask experiments by

  1. Ar Wallace
  2. Francesco redi
  3. Louis pasteur
  4. Ai oparin
  5. Sidney fox

Answer: 3. Louis pasteur

Louis Pasteur conducted an experiment with a swan-necked flask to discredit the theory of spontaneous generation. The infusion was boiled till the steam rushed out of the neck of the flask.

Microorganisms did not develop when the flask was left open. When its neck was broken, bacteria appeared immediately.

Question 52. Louis Pasteur’s view on the origin of life is that

  1. Life originated within six days
  2. Life originated from the living organisms
  3. Only life originated spontaneously from the non-living substances
  4. Life came from other planets

Answer: 2. Only life originated spontaneously from the non-living substances

Louis Pasteur carefully experimentally demonstrated that, life comes only from pre-existing life.

He showed that in pre-sterilised flasks life did not come from killed yeast, while in another flask open to the air, new living organisms arose from ‘killed yeast

Question 53. Van Helmont believed that mice originate from wheat grains and dirty clothes. He, therefore, favoured the theory of

  1. Biogenesis
  2. Spontaneous generation
  3. Pangenesis
  4. Cosmozoic

Answer: 2. Spontaneous generation

Abiogenesis is the spontaneous generation theory, according to which fully formed living organisms sometimes arise from non-living matter.

The theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous generation was based on ancient superstition rather than any scientific research.

This theory was believed and supported by Thales, Anaximander, Newton, Descartes and van Helmont. van Helmont described that mice arise from the wheat barns and sweaty shirts kept in a pot for 21 days in the dark

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 54. To disprove the theory of the spontaneous origin of life, the nutritious broth in glass flasks was boiled and sealed. The bottle remained clear and sterile. Who was the first to perform such an experiment?

  1. Pasteur
  2. Lazzaro spallanzani
  3. Oparin
  4. Francesco redi

Answer: 2. Lazzaro spallanzani

Spallanzani disapproved of the theory of abiogenesis (spontaneous generation).

He experimented with animal and vegetable broths and boiled them for several hours. He soon after sealed them to ensure the broths were never infested with microorganisms.

From this experiment, he concluded that high temperatures had killed all living organisms in the broths and without them, life did not appear. When the broths were left exposed to air, it was soon invaded by microorganisms

Question 55. The accepted theory of the origin of life is

  1. Spontaneous generation theory
  2. Self-assembly theory
  3. Biogenesis theory
  4. Cosmozoic theory

Answer: 3. Biogenesis theory

The most accepted theory of the origin of life today is the biogenesis theory

Question 56. The term ‘proto biogenesis’ is used for the theory of

  1. Biochemical origin of life
  2. Panspermia
  3. Spontaneous generation
  4. Special creation

Answer: 1. Biochemical origin of life

The term proto-biogenesis is used for the theory of the biochemical origin of life. Protobiogenesis refers to the origin of the first life form non-living chemical assemblages.

Question 57. According to abiogenesis, life originates from

  1. Non-living
  2. Other planes
  3. Pre-existing life
  4. Spontaneously

Answer: 1. Non-living

Abiogenesis states that life originated from non-living things in a spontaneous manner

Question 58. The idea that life originates from pre-existing life is referred as

  1. Biogenesis theory
  2. Special creation theory
  3. Abiogenesis theory
  4. Extra-terrestrial theory

Answer: 1. Biogenesis theory

Biogenesis theory states that life originates only from pre-existing life

Question 59. The abiogenesis occurred about how many billion years ago?

  1. 1.2 billion
  2. 1.5 billion
  3. 2.5 billion
  4. 3.5 billion

Answer: 4. 3.5 billion

Abiogenesis was supposed to occur about 3.5 billion years ago

Question 60. Select the wrong pair.

  1. Haldane -hot dilute soup
  2. Oparin -protobiont
  3. Fox -coacervates
  4. Spallanzani -approved abiogenesis
  5. Francesco redi -biogenesis

Answer: 4. Francesco redi -biogenesis

Option 4 is the wrong pair and it can be corrected as Spallanzani disapproved abiogenesis and approved biogenesis. The rest of other options are correctly matched pair.

Question 61. With reference to the origin of life, Aristotle believed in

  1. Cosmozoic theory
  2. Special creation
  3. Abiogenesis
  4. Panspermia

Answer: 3. Abiogenesis

Aristotle developed his Scala Naturae, or Ladder of Life, to explain his concept of the advancement of living things from inanimate matter to plants, then animals and finally man. He supported the theory of spontaneous generation (abiogenesis or autogenesis).

Question 62. The concept of chemical evolution is based on

  1. Interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat
  2. Effect of solar radiation on chemicals
  3. Possible origin of life by a combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
  4. Crystallisation of chemicals

Answer: 3. Possible origin of life by a combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions

The concept of chemical evolution is based on the possible origin of life by a combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions.

The distribution of elements in the cosmos is the result of many processes in the history of the universe.

It provides a powerful tool to study the Big Bang, the density of baryonic matter, nucleosynthesis and the formation and evolution of stars and galaxies.

Question 63. The theory of the origin of life as a result of chemical evolution has been properly explained by

  1. Stanley miller
  2. Darwin
  3. Oparin
  4. S fox

Answer: 3. Oparin

Oparin (1894-1980) was a Russian scientist. He published his book ‘The Origin of Life in 1936.’ In his book, he mentioned that the origin of life takes place as a result of chemical evolution

Question 64. Oparin and Haldane’s theory is also known as

  1. The modern theory of the origin of life
  2. Chemical theory of the origin of life
  3. Naturalistic theory
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

The theory of chemical evolution is also called the modern theory of evolution or naturalistic theory of evolution.

Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and that the formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e. formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.

Question 65. In the Oparin theory, the most important/ essential element was

  1. Proteins Jharkhand
  2. Oxygen
  3. Amino acids
  4. Nitrogen, ammonia and methane

Answer: 3. Amino acids

The Oparin-Haldane hypothesis suggested that life arose gradually from inorganic molecules, with building blocks like amino acids forming first and then, they combined to make complex polymers.

Thus, amino acids were the most essential element in Oparin theory.

Question 66. Oparin and Haldane proposed

  1. The theory of natural selection
  2. That migration affects the genetic equilibrium
  3. That mutation caused speciation
  4. That the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules
  5. That evolution of life forms had been driven by the use and disuse of organs

Answer: 4. That evolution of life forms had been driven by the use and disuse of organs

According to Oparin-Haldane’s theory of the origin of life, ‘life’ originated on earth spontaneously from preexisting non-living organic molecules.

First inorganic compounds and then organic compounds were formed in accordance with ever-changing environmental conditions.

This is called chemical evolution which cannot occur under present environmental conditions on Earth.

Question 67. Abiogenic organic matter of sea at the time of origin of life was called ‘hot dilute soup’ by

  1. M calvin
  2. Sl miller
  3. F redi
  4. Jbs haldane

Answer: 4. Jbs haldane

JBS Haldane described the sea containing biomolecules like monosaccharides, amino acids, purines, pyrimidines, fatty acids and glycerol in abundance as the hot dilute soup or primitive broth. The hot dilute soup was without oxygen.

Question 68. According to the abiogenic origin of life proposed by Oparin, …………… Was the simplest organic compound to arise.

  1. Organic acids
  2. Hydrocarbons
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Proteins.

Answer: 2. Hydrocarbons

In 1924, Oparin officially put forward his influential theory that life on earth developed through the gradual chemical evolution of carbon-based molecules called hydrocarbons, which was the simplest organic compound in a primordial soup.

Question 69. The possible details of the chemical evolution of the most elementary forms of life were particularly well-worked out experimentally by

  1. Haldane
  2. sydney w fox
  3. Urey and miller
  4. Ai pain

Answer: 3. Urey and Miller

Experimentally, the chemical theory of evolution was proved by SL Miller
and HC Urey in 1953.

They performed electric experiments and observed the formation of sugar, nitrogen bases, pigment and fats

Question 70. To determine which molecules might have formed spontaneously on early Earth, Stanley Miller used an apparatus with an atmosphere containing

  1. Oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen
  2. Oxygen, hydrogen, ammonia and water vapour
  3. Oxygen, hydrogen and methane
  4. Hydrogen, ammonia, methane and water vapour

Answer: In his experiment, Miller used a mixture of methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water. The mixture was exposed to electric discharges, followed by condensation and then boiling.

He analysed the chemical composition of the liquid inside the apparatus and found a large number of simple organic compounds including some amino acids. Miller proved that organic compounds were the basis of life.

Question 71. Formation of which complex molecules was noticed by Urey and Miller when they subjected substances like NH3, CH4 and HO2 to electric discharge?

  1. H2SO3
  2. Amino acids
  3. Hydroponics
  4. HCN

Answer: 2. Amino acids

Experimentally, the chemical theory of evolution was performed by SL Miller and HC Urey in 1953. They created electric discharge in a closed flask containing water vapour at 800 °C and observed the formation of amino acids

Question 72. Which of the following statements about Miller and Urey’s experiment
is correct?

  1. The gases used were only methane (CH4 ) and ammonia (NH3)
  2. A continuous magnetic wave was passed through the system, to simulate lightning storms believed to be common on the early earth
  3. Experiments showed that organic compounds such as amino acids, could not be made easily under the conditions believed to be present on the early earth
  4. None of the above

Answer: 4. None of the above

All statements are incorrect about Miller and Urey’s experiment. In Stanley L Miller and Harold C Urey’s experiment, the gases used were methane (CH4 ), ammonia (NH3), hydrogen (H2) and water (HO2 ).

Next, a continuous electric current was passed through the system, to simulate lightning storms that were believed to be common on the early earth.

This experiment showed that organic compounds such as amino acids, which are essential to cellular life, could be made easily under the conditions that were believed to be present on the early earth.

Question 73. What did Miller observe after the completion of his experiment?

  1. Amino acids
  2. Organic compounds
  3. Peptides
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Miller circulated four gases methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapour in an air-tight apparatus and passed electrical discharges from electrodes at 800°C.

After a week, he found a large number of simple organic compounds including amino acids such as alanine, glycine, aspartic acid and small peptides.

Other substances such as urea, hydrogen cyanide, lactic acid and acetic acid were also present.

Question 74. The ratio of methane, ammonia and hydrogen in Stanley Miller’s experiment was

  1. 3: 1: 2
  2. 2: 1: 2
  3. 1 : 2: 1
  4. 5: 4: 1

Answer: 2. 2: 1: 2

The ratio of methane, ammonia and hydrogen in Miller’s experiment was 2: 1: 2.

Question 75. The given diagram represents Miller’s experiment. Choose the correct combination of labelling for a, b, c, d and e.

NEET Biology Origin Of Life MCQs Miller’s experiment

  1. A–electrodes, B–NH4+ H2 + HO2 + CH4, C–cold water, D–vacuum, E–u-trap
  2. A–electrodes, B–NH4 + H2 + co2 + ch 3, C–hot water, D–vacuum, E–u-trap
  3. A–electrodes, B–NH HO3 2+ + CH4 c–steam, d–vacuum, E–u-trap
  4. A–electrodes, B–NH h3 2+ +HO2 + ch4, c–hot steam, D–vacuum, E–u-trap
  5. A–electrodes, B–NH3 + CH4, C–cold water, D–sink, E–u-trap

Answer: 1. A–electrodes, B–NH4+ H2 + HO2 + CH4, C–cold water, D–vacuum, E–u-trap

Question 76. Which one of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesised in Miller’s experiment?

  1. Aspartic acid
  2. Glutamic acid
  3. Alanine
  4. Glycine

Answer: 2. Glutamic acid

Glutamic acid is one of the non-essential amino acids, closely related to glutamine.

It was not synthesised in Miller’s experiment. It is an important metabolic intermediate as well as a neurotransmitter molecule in the central nervous system.

Question 77. In Miller’s experiment, he used a mixture of ch nh h 4 3 2, and water vapour in a closed flask to mimic early earth conditions. What was the temperature at which this flask was kept?

  1. 800°C
  2. 1200°C
  3. 200°C
  4. 400°C

Answer: 1. 800°C

The primitive earth had a high temperature. Therefore Miller kept the mixture in the flask at 800°C to mimic early earth conditions.

Question 78. Coacervates were experimentally produced by,

  1. Sydney Fox and pain
  2. Fischer and Huxley
  3. Jacob and Monod
  4. Urey and miller

Answer: 1. Sydney Fox and pain

Oparin and Sydney Fox stated that large organic molecules synthesised abiotically on primitive earth later came together spontaneously and due to intermolecular attraction, formed large colloidal aggregates called coacervates.

Question 79. Which of the following is said to have first evolved on primitive Earth?

  1. Viroids
  2. Coacervates
  3. Cyanobacteria
  4. Mycoplasma

Answer: 2. Coacervates

The large organic molecules, which were synthesised abiotically on the primitive earth later came together due to intermolecular attraction and they formed large colloidal aggregates.

Such water-bound aggregates have been named microspheres by Sydney Fox. Later these colloidal bodies were named coacervates by Oparin.

Question 80. Assertion coacervates are believed to be the precursors of life. Reason (r) coacervates are self-duplicating aggregates of proteins surrounded by a lipid bilayer.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r is false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 3. A is true, but r is false

Coacervates and microspheres are believed to be the precursors of life. The coacervates mainly contain proteins, polysaccharides and some water. Coacervates do not have a lipid bilayer

Question 81. Some complex inorganic and organic compounds in hot sea aggregated in different combinations to form

  1. Protoplasm
  2. Pre-cell
  3. Post cell
  4. Coacervates

Answer: 4. Coacervates

Some complex inorganic and organic compounds in the hot sea were aggregated in different combinations to form coacervates. The term coacervates was given by IA Oparin.

According to him, coacervates are probiotics that are mainly made up
of aggregates of macromolecules (like lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acids and proteins).

These aggregates remain surrounded by a layer of water which acts as a barrier.

Question 82. Which of the following molecules falls under the category of eobionts?

  1. Coacervates
  2. Microspheres

Choose the right option

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. 1 and 2
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. 1 and 2

Eobionts are of two types Coacervates lack membranes, but exhibit some life-like characteristics. They are able to grow and divide.

Microsphere is a non-living collection of organic molecules with double-layered outer boundaries. The term was given by Sydney Fox (1958-1964). So, option 3 is correct

Question 83. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the biogenic origin of life?

  1. They were able to reproduce
  2. They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
  3. They were partially isolated from the surroundings
  4. They could maintain an internal environment

Answer: 2. They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings

A protobiont is an aggregate of abiotically produced organic molecules surrounded by a membrane.

Protobionts exhibit some of the properties associated with life including simple reproduction, metabolism and excitability as well as the maintenance of an internal chemical environment different from that of their surrounding.

They were partially isolated from the environment, but they could not separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings

Question 84. Coacervates are

  1. Protobionts having polysaccharide + protein + HO2
  2. Protein aggregate
  3. Protein and lipid aggregates
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Protobionts having polysaccharide + protein +HO2

The coacervates are a mixture of large proteins and polysaccharides and some water.

Question 85. Coacervates were formed by

  1. Radiations
  2. Polymerisation
  3. Polymerisation and aggregation
  4. Dna

Answer: 3. Polymerisation and aggregation

The coacervates are a mixture of large proteins and polysaccharides and some water. The coacervates were formed by polymerisation and aggregation of proteins.

Question 86. An evolving coacervate-like system would have needed a controlled and constant source of energy for

  1. Making large complex molecules
  2. Organising these molecules into structural patterns
  3. Maintaining their organisation
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Coacervates require a controlled and constant source of energy for making complex molecules, organising these molecules into structural patterns and maintaining the organisation of these molecules.

Question 87. What is/are true about microspheres?

  1. These are small spherical aggregates of proteinoids
  2. These are considerably stable
  3. These have a double-layered boundary, corresponding to the cell membrane
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Microspheres are small spherical aggregates of proteinoids. These are considerably stable due to the presence of double layered membrane around them.

Question 88. The heterotroph hypothesis assumes that

  1. A simple organism originated in complex surroundings
  2. A complex organism originated in simple surroundings
  3. Life came from some other planet
  4. Life was created by special creation

Answer: 2. A complex organism originated in simple surroundings

The heterotroph hypothesis assumes that complex evolved slowly from simple non-living matter and this occurred in primitive environmental conditions.

Question 89. The first life that appeared in marine water was called provirus, eobiont or protocell. It was

  1. Anaerobic and chemoheterotrophic
  2. Aerobic and parasitic
  3. Chemoheterotrophic and aerobic
  4. Anaerobic and autotrophic

Answer: 1. Anaerobic and chemoheterotrophic

The first cells evolved about 3900-4000 million years ago in the sea. The atmosphere was anaerobic at that time. Protocells collected more substances and formed cytoplasm.

They became the first living beings. They were prokaryotes and chemoheterotrophs.

Question 90. The reducing environment of the primitive earth was transformed into an oxidising environment by

  1. Photoautotrophs
  2. Chemoautotrophs
  3. Chemoheterotrophs
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Photoautotrophs

Early earth’s atmosphere was reducing atmosphere. It contained actively reducing gases such as hydrogen, carbon monoxide and hydrogen sulphide. There was no oxygen in the atmosphere.

As chemical energy gradually reduced, this was proven to be a positive environment for photoautotrophs like cyanobacteria to evolve the photosynthetic metabolic pathways using sunlight as an energy source.

Due to photosynthesis by cyanobacteria, there was a gradual increase in the oxygen level of the earth’s atmosphere. This changed a reducing atmosphere to an oxidising atmosphere. Thus, option 1 is correct.

Question 91. The first formed organism (ribo-organism) used only ………………… For catalysing reactions.

  1. Dna
  2. Amino acids
  3. Fatty acids
  4. RNA

Answer: 4. RNA

Amino acids and fatty acids do not have catalytic properties and hence, options 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Nucleic acids were also formed in a primitive hot soup of the sea. RNA and DNA are the two types of nucleic acid out of which, we know RNA have catalytic properties. Thus, RNA served as enzymes in first life forms.

Question 92. Most biologists think that RNA was the first genetic material because

  1. Amino acids were produced in Stanley Miller’s apparatus
  2. Dna is the universal genetic material of eukaryotes
  3. The existence of ribozymes suggests RNA was used to catalyse chemical reactions
  4. Rna is simpler than dna

Answer: 3. Existence of ribozymes suggests RNA was used to catalyse chemical reactions

Most biologists think that RNA was the first genetic material. This is because rRNA in present-day organisms serves as a catalyst in peptide bond formation during protein synthesis.

The presence of ribozymes (RNA molecules that serve as enzymes) and sequence homology in prokaryotes and eukaryotic rRNA confirm the evolution of their catalytic function earlier during evolution.

Question 93. Biologists believe that the current dna → rna → protein system is the result of evolution because

  1. The steps of ‘DNA → RNA → protein’ consists of many steps
  2. Dna replication is complicated, but relatively error-free
  3. Evidence indicates that RNA preceded dna as the genetic material
  4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Evidence indicates that RNA preceded dna as the genetic material

Biologists believe that the current DNA → RNA → protein system is the result of a long period of evolution because evidence indicates that RNA preceded DNA as the genetic material

NEET Biology Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Multiple Choice Question And Answers

NEET Biology Molecular Basis Of Inheritance

Question 1. Broad-spectrum antibiotics like streptomycin bind to smaller subunits of ribosomes of prokaryotes, thereby

  1. Inhibiting protein synthesis
  2. Blocking the action of peptidyl transferase
  3. Misleading of genetic code
  4. Causing point mutation

Answer: 1. Inhibiting protein synthesis

Streptomycin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that acts as an inhibitor of protein synthesis.

Question 2. Synthesis of DNA can be stopped by incorporating artificial

  1. Ddatp
  2. Ddgtp
  3. Ddctp
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Dideoxynucleotides like dd ATP, ddGTP, ddCTP, etc., lack the 3′ — OH group. They would stop DNA synthesis because the 3′–OH group is required for the functioning of the DNA polymerase enzyme.

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of units of genetics arranged in descending order of size?

  1. Gene → cistron → muton → recon
  2. Gene → muton → cistron → recon
  3. Gene → recon → cistron → muton
  4. Gene → cistron → recon → muton

Answer: 4. Gene → cistron → recon → muton

Studies have proved that a gene is not a unit of either function recombination or mutation. Benzer in view of his work, coined the terms cistron (unit of function), recon (unit of recombination), and muton (unit of mutation).

Recon consists of one, two, or more nucleotide pairs. Muton consists of a single nucleotide pair. Cistron, on the other hand, is the length of DNA that codes for a specific polypeptide chain or a functional RNA molecule.

It may be several base pairs long. On arranging these in descending order of their size, a distinct hierarchy is developed with the gene at the top, muton at the base, and cistron and recon in between. Thus, the correct sequence is genes, cistron, recon, and muton.

Question 4. Nucleotide sequence changes in DNA are not passed to offspring in

  1. Egg and sperm cells
  2. Non-sexual cells
  3. Diploid and haploid cells
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

If the mutation or change in nucleotide sequences does not occur in the germ cells or if the mutation occurs in a non-sexual cell, then it will not pass on to the next generation. The non-germinal mutations are also called somatic mutations

Question 5. Below is a list of a few processes.

  1. Transcription (eukaryotic)
  2. Transcription (prokaryotic)
  3. Replication (eukaryotic)
  4. Translation (prokaryotic)
  5. Translation (eukaryotic)

Choose the correct site of occurrence of the processes

  1. 1–Nucleus, 2–cytoplasm, 3–nucleus, 4–cytoplasm, 5–cytoplasm
  2. 1–Nucleus, 2–nucleus, 3– cytoplasm, 4–cytoplasm, 5–cytoplasm
  3. 1–Cytoplasm, 2–cytoplasm, 3–nucleus, 4–cytoplasm, 5–nucleus
  4. 1–Nucleus, 2–cytoplasm, 3–nucleus, 4–cytoplasm, 5–cytoplasm

Answer: 1. 1–Nucleus, 2–cytoplasm, 3–nucleus, 4–cytoplasm, 5–cytoplasm

As there is no defined nucleus in prokaryotes, all three process (replication, transcription, and translation) takes place in their cytoplasm. In eukaryotes, transcription and replication occur in the nucleus, but translation occurs in the cytoplasm. Thus, option 1 is correct.

NEET Biology Molecular Basis Of Inheritance Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 6. Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies as

  1. It is inherited only through the female parent and thus evolves in a way that allows the trees of relationships to be easily constructed
  2. It is present in the X-chromosome
  3. It first appeared in humans and is not found in other animals
  4. It has evolved very fast

Answer: 1. It is inherited only through the female parent and thus evolves in a way that allows the trees of relationships to be easily constructed.

Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies because it is inherited only through the female parent and thus, evolves in a way that allows trees of relationship to be easily constructed.

Mitochondrial DNA is contributed by ova at the time of fertilization.

Question 7. The genome of Caenorhabditis elegans consists of

  1. 3 Billion base pairs and 30,000 genes
  2. 180 Million base pairs and 13,000 genes
  3. 4.7 million base pairs and 4000 genes
  4. 97 Million base pairs and 18,000 genes
  5. 12 Million base pairs and 6000 genes

Answer: 4. 97 Million base pairs and 18,000 genes

Caenorhabditis elegans is a species of soil-dwelling nematode (roundworm) used as a model organism in molecular genetics and developmental biology.

The C. elegans genome is about 97 million base pairs long and consists of six chromosomes and a mitochondrial genome. The genome contains an estimated 18,000 protein-coding genes.

Question 8. How many times, DNA can replicate in the life of a cell?

  1. Only once
  2. Twice
  3. Several times
  4. Depends on the ploidy level

Answer: 1. Only once

The preparation for DNA replication initiation is tightly linked to cell cycle progression, ensuring that replication occurs only once per cycle.

Question 9. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is

  1. Translocation
  2. Inversion
  3. Crossing over
  4. Duplication

Answer: 1. Translocation

Translocation refers to a change in the location of genes from one linkage group to another. It is the separation of a chromosome segment and its union with a non-homologous chromosome.

Question 10. Read the following four statements.

  1. In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
  2. Regulation of lac operon by a repressor is referred to as positive regulation.
  3. The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes.
  4. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

How many of the above statements are right?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. One

Answer: 1. Two

In the given statements, only two statements are correct. Statements I and IV are correct, but statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Incorrect statements can be corrected In the presence of an inducer, such as lactose or allolactose, the repressor is inactivated by interaction with the inducer.

This allows RNA polymerase to access the promoter and transcription proceeds. Hence, regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.

The human genome is said to have approximately 3 × 109 bp and approximately 20,000-25,000 genes

Question 11. The compound rifampicin is very

  1. Potent inhibitors of bacterial RNA polymerases
  2. Potent inhibitors of bacterial DNA polymerases
  3. Weak inhibitors of bacterial RNA polymerases
  4. Weak inhibitors of bacterial DNA polymerases

Answer: 1. Potent inhibitors of bacterial RNA polymerases

Rifampicin is an effective antibiotic against tuberculosis. It can inhibit bacterial RNA polymerase and thus halts protein synthesis at the transcription level

Question 12. Which of the following has a thymine base in its composition?

  1. Nodoc
  2. Codon
  3. Anticodon
  4. Codogene

Answer: 4. Codogene

Codogene is the smallest possible sequence (triplet) of nucleotides present on the DNA strand which can specify one particular amino acid. Thus, cologne has thymine, whereas no-doc, codon, and anticodon have uracil, adenine, and guanine.

Question 13. The antibiotic not associated with the inhibition of protein synthesis is

  1. Chloromycetin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Puromycin
  4. Penicillin

Answer: 4. Penicillin

All the listed broad-spectrum antibiotics except penicillin inhibit protein synthesis.

Question 13. Assertion of the expression of cellular genetic information is unidirectional. Reason (r) cancer virus goes topsy-turvy, therefore reverse transcription allows a sequence of RNA to be retrieved and used as genetic information.

  1. Both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a
  2. Both a and r are true, but r is not the correct explanation of a
  3. A is true, but r false
  4. Both a and r are false

Answer: 1. Both A and R are true and r is the correct explanation of a

Question 14. Telomerase is an enzyme that is a

  1. Simple protein
  2. RNA
  3. Ribonucleoprotein
  4. Repetitive DNA

Answer: 3. Ribonucleoprotein

Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein that adds specific DNA sequence repeats (TAG in all vertebrates) to the 3′ (three prime) end of DNA strands in the telomere regions.

The enzyme is a reverse transcriptase that carries its own RNA molecule, which is used as a template when it elongates telomeres, which are shortened after each replication cycle.

NEET Biology Human Genome Project Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers Human Genome Project

Question 1. The human genome project was launched in

  1. 1986
  2. 1990
  3. 1996
  4. 1998

Answer: 2. 1990

In 1990, the US Department of Energy and the National Institute of Health embarked on and coordinated the project of sequencing the human genome called HGP or Human Genome Project.

Question 2. Genomics is

  1. Study of chromosomes
  2. Study of proteins
  3. Study of genes and genomes
  4. Study of body cells

Answer: 3. Study of genes and genomes

Genomics is an interdisciplinary field of biology focusing on the structure, function, evolution, mapping, and editing of genomes.

A genome is an organism’s complete set of DNA, including all of its genes. So, genomics is the study of genes and genomes.

Question 3. It took ………….years to study the human genome project entirely and it was completed in ……….

  1. 12, 2013
  2. 13, 2003
  3. 10, 2000
  4. 3, 1993

Answer: The human genome project was completed in 13 years in 2003.

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 4. As per the human genome project, the exact number of nucleotides contained in the human genome is

  1. 3164.7 million
  2. 3163.7 million
  3. 3162.7 million
  4. 3160.7 million

Answer: 1. 3164.7 million

The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.

Question 5. Consider the following statements.

  1. The average gene contains 350 bases.
  2. The largest known human gene is dystrophin.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct

The incorrect statement can be corrected as The average gene consists of 3000 bases and the largest known human gene being is dystrophin containing 2.4 million bases.

NEET Biology Human Genome Project Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 6. The number of functional genes in humans is around

  1. 5,00,00,000
  2. 3,00,000
  3. 25,000
  4. 30

Answer: 3. 25,000

There are an estimated 20,000-25,000 protein-coding or functional genes in humans.

Question 7. The human genome consists of approximately

  1. 3 × 103 Base pairs
  2. 3 × 109 Base pairs
  3. 2000 Base pairs
  4. 30,000 Base pairs

Answer: 2. 3 × 109 Base pairs

The human genome has approximately 3 × 109 base pairs.

Human Genome Project NEET Questions

Question 8. The discovery and growth of …………… Aided in the establishment of the human genome project.

  1. Mechanical engineering techniques
  2. Electrical engineering techniques
  3. Genetic engineering techniques
  4. Informational technology

Answer: 3. Genetic engineering techniques

With the discovery and establishment of genetic engineering techniques, it was possible to isolate and clone any piece of DNA, and with the availability of simple and fast techniques for determining DNA sequences, a very ambitious project of sequencing the human genome project was launched in the year 1990.

Question 9. The institutes that played a key role in coordinating the human genome project were

  1. European department of energy
  2. Us department of energy
  3. National institute of health
  4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3

The human genome project was coordinated by the US Department of Energy and the National Institute of Health.

Welcome Trust (UK) joined the project as a major partner. Later on, Japan, France, Germany, China, and some other countries also joined it. Thus option 4 is correct.

Question 10. Hgp was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called

  1. Biotechnology
  2. Bioengineering
  3. Bioinformatics
  4. Biological informatics

Answer: 3. Bioinformatics

The collection, storage, and analysis of DNA and protein sequencing data using the computerized system is called bioinformatics.

This is the new branch of biology that originated and evolved during the human genome project.

Question 11. In reference to hgp, elsi stands for

  1. Ethical legal and social issues
  2. Embedded low software index
  3. Endonuclease ligase surface immunity
  4. Ear lung spleen immunity

Answer: 1. Ethical legal and social issues

ELSI stands for Ethical Legal and Social Issue.

Question 12. The strategies of the human genome project include

  1. Mapping
  2. Sequencing
  3. Alignment
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

HGP includes sequencing, aligning, and mapping the genome. Frederick developed a technique through which DNA fragments get automatically sequenced called automated DNA sequencer.

DNA sequences are aligned by specialized computer-based programs.

The genetic and physical maps are generated using restriction endonuclease recognition sites and some repetitive DNA sequences known as microsatellites. Thus, option 4 is correct.

Human Genome Project NEET Questions

Question 13. The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed by

  1. May 2004
  2. May 2003
  3. May 2005
  4. May 2006

Answer: 4. May 2006

On February 12, 2001, a formal announcement about the completion of the project was made.

However, the announcement of sequencing of individual chromosomes came in May 2006 with the completion of assigning nucleotide sequences to chromosome -1.

Question 14. How were genetic and physical maps generated in hgp?

  1. By using DNase
  2. By using RNase
  3. By using restriction endonuclease
  4. By using automated dna sequences

Answer: 3. By using automated dna sequences

HGP includes sequencing, aligning, and mapping the genome. Frederick developed a technique through which DNA fragments get automatically sequenced called automated DNA sequencer.

DNA sequences are aligned by specialized computer-based programs.

The genetic and physical maps are generated using restriction endonuclease recognition sites and some repetitive DNA sequences known as microsatellites.

Question 15. Why are restriction endonucleases used in genetic engineering or in applied molecular biology?

  1. As they can cut the dna at a specific base sequence.
  2. As they can cut RNA at variable sites.
  3. As they can cut dna at variable sites.
  4. As it degrades the harmful proteins.
  5. As they can join the dna fragments.

Choose the correct option.

  1. 1, 2 And 3
  2. 3, 4 And 5
  3. 2, 4 And 3
  4. Only 1

Answer: 4. Only 1

Statement I describe the use of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering or in applied molecular biology. Restriction endonucleases are the special enzymes found in bacteria to degrade viral DNA.

They are used in genetic engineering or in applied molecular biology due to their ability to cut DNA at specific base sequences. Rest statements do not specify the function of restriction endonucleases

Question 16. Mapping of human chromosomes

  1. Has been restricted to sex chromosomes due to small family sizes
  2. Proceeded very successfully as a large number of dna markers were available
  3. Has been determined that the number of linkage groups is about twice the number of chromosomes
  4. Has been determined that almost whole dna is involved in the coding of genes

Answer: 2. Proceeded very successfully as a large number of dna markers were available

DNA markers are synthetically made DNA segments that are used to identify specific DNA segments in chromosomes. A large number of DNA markers are extensively used in the mapping of human chromosomes.

Question 17. Ests stands for

  1. Expressed sequence tags
  2. Exit sequence tags
  3. Exon sequence tags
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 1. Expressed sequence tags

ESTs stand for Expressed Sequence Tags.

Human Genome Project NEET Questions

Question 18. Ests are

  1. Genes that are expressed as dna
  2. Genes that are expressed as rna
  3. Exon that is expressed as dna
  4. Introns that are expressed as rna

Answer: 2. Genes that are expressed as rna

ESTs are genes that are expressed as RNA

Question 19. Snps or single nucleotide polymorphisms are a

  1. The location of RNA where a single base differs
  2. Location on the genome where many bases of dna differ
  3. Location on the genome where the single base of dna differs
  4. Location of enzymes where the single base differs

Answer: 3. Location on the genome where the single base of dna differs

There are about 14 million locations where single nucleotide differences occur in DNA. These locations are called SNPs or Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms.

They have the potential to find chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and trace human history during evolution.

Question 20. Snps can be used for

  1. Tracing the association between a genetic variant and disease
  2. Tracing human history
  3. Evolution
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

There are about 14 million locations where single nucleotide differences occur in DNA. These locations are called SNPs or Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms.

They have the potential to find chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and trace human history during evolution.

Question 21. What will be the correct gene expression pathway?

  1. Gene–mRNA–transcription– translation – protein
  2. Transcription–gene– translation–mrna–protein
  3. Gene–transcription–mrna– translation–protein
  4. Gene–translation–mrna– transcription–protein

Answer: The correct gene expression pathway is Gene – Transcription – mRNA –Translation – Protein

Question 22. In humans,

  1. Non-coding dna is abundant.
  2. Less than 2% of the genome codes for protein.
  3. The function of more than 50% of genes is unknown.
  4. Total number of genes is 30000.

Choose the correct option.

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 1. All the given statements are correct for the human genome.

Question 23. The main aim of the human genome project is Karnataka

  1. To introduce new genes into humans
  2. To identify and sequence all the genes present in human dna
  3. To develop better techniques for comparing two different human
  4. dna samples
  5. To remove disease-causing genes from human dna

Answer: 2. To identify and sequence all the genes present in human dna

The main aim of HGP is to determine the sequence and number of all the base pairs in the human genome

Question 24. Given below are various steps involved in sequencing human genome projects (HGP). Choose the correct order.

  • Isolation of total dna.
  • Cloning in suitable vectors.
  • Sequence arrangement by computer.
  • Formation of physical and genetic maps.
  • Converting into fragments.
  • Using automated sequencer.
  • Using restriction endonuclease recognition sites and microsatellites.
  • Completion of human genome sequencing.

Arrange the steps.

  1. 1– 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 –6 –7–8
  2. 1– 5– 2–6–3–7–4–8
  3. 1– 2– 5–6–3–4–8–7
  4. 1– 2– 5–6–3–7–8–4

Answer: 2. 1– 5– 2–6–3–7–4–8

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 25. Commonly used vectors for cloning in human genome projects are

  1. Yac (yeast artificial chromosome)
  2. Bac (bacterial artificial chromosome)
  3. Pac (plasmic artificial chromosome)
  4. GMO (genetically modified organism)

Choose the correct option.

  1. 1 And 2
  2. 2 And 3
  3. 3 And 4
  4. 1 And 4

Answer: 1. 1 And 2

1, BAC or Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes and 2, YAC or Yeast Artificial Chromosomes are two vectors that are generally used in human genome projects for cloning large fragments of human DNA. Thus, option 1 is correct.

Question 26. The chain termination method of dna sequencing was developed by

  1. Sanger and Nicolson
  2. Frederick sanger
  3. Francois Jacob
  4. Jacques Monod

Answer: 2. Frederick Sanger

Sanger’s method, which is also referred to as dideoxy sequencing or chain termination method is based on the use of dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) in addition to the normal nucleotides (NTPs) found in DNA.

Dideoxynucleotides are essentially the same as nucleotides except they contain a hydrogen group on the 3′ carbon instead of a hydroxyl group (OH). These modified nucleotides, when integrated into a sequence, prevent the addition of further nucleotides.

This occurs because a phosphodiester bond cannot form between the dideoxynucleotide and the next incoming nucleotide and thus, the DNA chain is terminated.

NEET Biology Regulation Of Gene Expression Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Regulation Of Gene Expression

Question 1. The term ‘regulation’ refers to the control over the working of

  1. A gene
  2. Rrna
  3. Trna
  4. Mrna

Answer: 1. A gene

The term regulation refers to the control over the working of a gene. Regulation of gene expression refers to a very broad term that may occur at various levels. Considering gene expression results in the formation of a polypeptide, it can be regulated at several levels.

In eukaryotes, regulation could be exerted at

The transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript) Processing level (regulation of splicing) transport of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm Translational level

Question 2. Operon is

  1. A set of closely linked genes, regulating a metabolic pathway in prokaryotes
  2. The sequence of three nitrogen bases determining a single amino acid
  3. The sequence of nitrogen bases in mRNA, which codes for a single amino acid
  4. A gene responsible for switching on or off other genes
  5. A segment of dna, specifying one polypeptide chain in protein synthesis

Answer: 1. A set of closely linked genes, regulating a metabolic pathway in prokaryotes

Operon is a set of closely linked genes that regulate a metabolic pathway in prokaryotes.

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 3. Who gave the first operon system?

  1. Frederick sanger
  2. Jacob and Monod
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Bateson

Answer: 2. Jacob and Monod

The first operon, lac operon was discovered by Jacob and Monod (1961).

They found out that the genetic material possesses a regulated gene a unit called an operon.

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

NEET Biology Regulation Of Gene Expression Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 4. Which type of regulation takes place in lac operon?

  1. Positive regulation
  2. Neutral regulation
  3. Negative regulation
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 4. Both 1 and 3

Regulation of lac operon by the repressor is referred to as negative regulation. Lac operon is under the control of positive regulation as well, by CAP (Catabolic Activator Protein).

It exerts a positive control in the lac operon because, in its absence, RNA polymerase is unable to recognize the promoter gene and switch off the lac operon. So, positive and negative types of regulations take place in the lac operon

Question 5. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in e. Coli and proposed operon concept, which is applicable for

  1. Prokaryotes
  2. Eukaryotes
  3. Protozoans
  4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Prokaryotes

The Operon model was given by Jacob and Monod (1961) for the regulation of protein synthesis in prokaryotes (bacteria)

Question 6. In the lactose operon of Escherichia coli, what is the function of the promoter?

  1. Binding of gyrase enzyme
  2. Binding of RNA polymerase
  3. Codes for RNA polymerase
  4. Processing of messenger RNA

Answer: 2. Binding of RNA polymerase

In the lactose operon of E.coli, promoter gene (P) is the actual site of the start of transcription and it is the site where RNA polymerase binds to the DNA prior to the beginning of transcription.

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 7. All of the following are part of an operon except

  1. An operator
  2. A promoter
  3. An enhancer
  4. Structural genes

Answer: 3. An enhancer

All of the following are part of an operon except an enhancer

Question 8. In the regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes,

  1. Lactose acts as a suppressor for the gene expression.
  2. Tryptophan acts as an inducer for the gene expression.
  3. The regulatory gene is the one that produces the repressor molecule.

Choose the options containing correct statements.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 3
  4. 1 And 2
  5. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 3. Only 3

Statement 3 is correct for the regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes whereas 1 and 2 are not correct and can be corrected as Lactose acts as an inducer for the gene expression in the lac operon. Tryptophan acts as a repressor for gene expression in the trp operon

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 9. The region of the lac operon must be free (unbound) for the structural gene transcription to occur in

  1. Operator
  2. Promoter
  3. A gene
  4. Regulator

Answer: 1. Operator

The operator is a DNA sequence present between the promoter region and the first coding gene.

A regulator gene regulates the expression of structural genes by its protein product which is mostly transcription factors. This regulatory protein binds to the operator region and hence, prevents the binding and transcription.

Thus, the operator region serves as a repressor protein binding site and it must be free (unbound) for the structural gene transcription to occur.

Question 10. The functioning of structural genes is controlled by

  1. Operator
  2. Promoter
  3. Ligase
  4. Regulatory gene

Answer: 1. Operator

The operator gene allows the functioning of the operon. Operator genes are a region of DNA sequence capable of interacting with a specific repressor molecule and thus, it affects the activity of other genes downstream to it.

Question 11. In lac operon, a repressor comprises

  1. Dna
  2. Rna
  3. Protein
  4. Lactose

Answer: 3. Protein

The repressor is a regulatory protein, which is synthesized all the time by the regulator gene.

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Question 12. Lactose operon is considered to be glucose sensitive due to

  1. Catabolite induction
  2. Allosteric inhibition
  3. Anabolic inhibition
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Catabolite induction

Glucose is a positive regulator of lactose operon. It responds to levels of glucose through catabolite induction which requires Catabolite Activator Protein (CAP) and cyclic AMP.

The binding of the CAP-cAMP complex to a promoter is required for the transcription of the lac operon.

The presence of glucose in a cell decreases cAMP concentration which in turn decreases the amount of CAP-cAMP complex.

Due to this, the promoter gets inactivated and the lac operon is turned off. Thus, due to catabolite induction, the lac operon is considered glucose sensitive.

Question 13. Repressor proteins of lac operon bind to

  1. Exons
  2. Introns
  3. Operator
  4. Structural genes

Answer: 3. Operator

Regulatory genes or i-gene produce mRNA, which makes repressor proteins that in turn, bind to the operator.

Due to the binding of the repressor to the operator, RNA polymerase cannot bind with the promoter. As a result, the working of the operon stops.

Question 14. In the lac operon model, all time or constitutively working gene is

  1. Operator
  2. Promoter
  3. Regulator
  4. Structural

Answer: 3. Regulator

In the lac operon, the regulatory gene or i-gene keeps on synthesizing the inhibitor. Thus, it is a constitutively working gene. It is the inducer (lactose) that inhibits the inhibitor by binding to its specific sites.

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Question 15. Positively regulated proteins are called

  1. Activator
  2. Repressors
  3. Necessary proteins
  4. Codons

Answer: 1. Activator

The operon is regulated in both negative and positive ways. Negative control The product of the regulatory genes (repressor) shuts off the expression of genes under its control.

Positive control The product of the regulatory genes (activator) activates the expression of genes under its control. Thus, the positively regulated proteins are called activators.

Question 16. Genes that are responsible for the synthesis of a polypeptide chain are called

  1. Structural gene
  2. Operator gene
  3. Promoter gene
  4. Regulator gene

Answer: 1. Structural gene

Structural genes are the genes that are responsible for the synthesis of the polypeptide chain.

They transcribe to give mRNA which contains codons for amino acids

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Question 17. Match the components of ‘lac operon’. Coli is given under column 1 with their functions listed in column 2. Choose the option from the codes given below.

NEET Biology Regulation Of Gene Expression MCQs Question 17 Match the Following Coloumns

Answer: 3. 1–4, 2–1, 3–5, 4–2

Question 18. The sequence of the structural genes in the lac operon concept is

  1. Lac a, lac y, lac z
  2. Lac a, lac z, lac y
  3. Lac y, lac z, lac a
  4. Lac z, lac y, lac a

Answer: 4. Lac z, lac y, lac a

Lac operon (lactose operon) is a genetic system of E. coli, which is responsible for the uptake and initial catabolism of lactose. The lac operon consists of three structural genes in a sequence of lac Z, lac Y, lac A

Question 19. Lactose is transported into cells through

  1. Β-galactosidase
  2. Permease
  3. Transacetylase
  4. Transferase

Answer: 2. Permease

Lactose is transported into the cells by the enzyme permease. Permease enzyme is produced by the structural gene Y

Question 20. Consider the following statements.

Structural genes produce mRNA when the operator gene is turned on by an inducer.
The promoter gene base sequence determines which strand of dna acts as a template.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 21. The lac operon is turned on when allolactose molecules bind to

  1. Promoter site
  2. Operator site
  3. Mrna
  4. Repressor protein

Answer: 4. Repressor protein

The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon.

In the presence of an inducer, such as lactose or allolactose, the repressor is inactivated by interaction with the inducer. This allows RNA polymerase access to the promoter and transcription proceeds. Thus, the lac operon is turned on when allolactose molecules bind to the repressor protein

Question 22. In the lac operon, the structural genes are switched off when

  1. The repressor binds to the operator
  2. Repressor binds to the promoter
  3. Repressor binds to regular
  4. Repressor binds to inducer
  5. All of the above

Answer: 1. Repressor binds to the operator

The structural genes remain switched off and do not proceed with transcription till the repressor remains bound to the operator

Question 23. The lactose (lac) operon is regulated by

  1. Lac repressor only
  2. Lac repressor and cap-cgmp complex
  3. Lac repressor and cap-camp complex
  4. Cap-camp and cap-cgmp complex

Answer: 3. Lac repressor and cap-camp complex

Two regulators turn the operon on and off in response to lactose and glucose levels, the lac repressor, and the CAP–cAMP complex.

The lac repressor acts as a lactose sensor. It normally blocks transcription of the operon but stops acting as a repressor when lactose is present.

Glucose is a positive regulator of lactose operon. It responds to levels of glucose through catabolite induction which requires Catabolite Activator Protein (CAP) and cyclic AMP.

The binding of the CAP-cAMP complex to a promoter is required for the transcription of the lac operon.

The presence of glucose in a cell decreases cAMP concentration which in turn decreases the amount of CAP-cAMP complex.

Due to this, the promoter gets inactivated and the lac operon is turned off. Thus, due to catabolite induction, the lac operon is considered glucose sensitive.

Question 24. Match the following columns.

NEET Biology Regulation Of Gene Expression MCQs Question 24 Match the Following Coloumns

NEET Biology Mcq

Answer: 1. A-4, B-1, C-2

Question 25. In eukaryotes, the genes are regulated by

  1. Promoters
  2. Operator
  3. Repressors
  4. Enhancers

Answer: 4. Enhancers

Enhancers are positive DNA regulatory sequences that control tissue-specific gene expression.

These elements act independently of their orientation and distance relative to the promoters of target genes. So, the genes are regulated by enhancers in eukaryotes.

Question 26. Negatively regulatory proteins are known as

  1. Repressor
  2. Accessory proteins
  3. Catalytic proteins
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 1. Repressor

The repressor is a negative regulatory protein, which is synthesized all the time by the regulator gene. It is meant to block the operator gene so that the structural genes cannot form mRNA.

Question 27. In the lac operon model, feedback repression is

  1. When the end product starts the process
  2. When the end product does not form
  3. When the end product halts the process
  4. When the start product stops the process

Answer: 3. When the end product halts the process

The end product is often utilized in some reactions so, it rarely accumulates. However, in the lac operon, it accumulates and stops the operon system. It is called feedback inhibition or repression.

Question 28. When tryptophan is present, what happens in the trp operon?

  1. Repressor becomes inactive
  2. The repressor is unable to bind to the operator
  3. Transcription of structural genes occur
  4. The repressor is able to bind to the operator

Answer: 4. Repressor is able to bind to the operator

When tryptophan is present in the cell, two tryptophan molecules bind to the trp repressor, which changes shape to bind to the trp operator.

The binding of the tryptophan-repressor complex at the operator physically prevents the RNA polymerase from binding and transcribing the downstream genes.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 29. E. Coli cells with a mutated z-gene of the lac operon cannot grow in a medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because

  1. In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilize lactose
  2. They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
  3. The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
  4. They cannot synthesize functional beta-galactosidase

Answer: 4. They cannot synthesize functional beta-galactosidase

Lac Z (3063 bp) codes for the enzyme β-galactosidase which breaks lactose into glucose and galactose to be utilized in the cell.

Therefore, E. coli cells with mutated Z-genes cannot grow in a medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because they cannot synthesize functional β-galactosidase

Question 30. Why cannot glucose and galactose act as an inducer for lac operon?

  1. Because they cannot bind with the repressor
  2. Because they can bind with the repressor
  3. Because they can bind with the operator
  4. Because they can bind with the regulator

Answer: 1. Because they cannot bind with the repressor

An inducer binds with the repressor protein and prevents the repressor protein from binding with the operator.

Glucose and galactose cannot act as an inducer because they do not have the binding sites for attaching to the repressor protein

Question 31. Given below are statements regarding lac operon. Identify the correct statements.

  1. Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
  2. In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region.
  3. The z-gene codes for permease.
  4. This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod.

Choose the option containing the correct statements.

  1. 2 And 3
  2. 1 And 3
  3. 2 And 4
  4. 1 And 2

Answer: 3. The z-gene codes for permease.

Statements 2 and 4 are correct, but 1 and 3 are incorrect regarding the lac operon.

Incorrect statements can be corrected as Lactose or allolactose binds with the repressor and induces the lac operon system. The Z-gene codes for β-galactosidase.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 32. The gene not expressing any protein is known as

  1. Epistatic gene
  2. Hypostatic gene
  3. Pseudogene
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Pseudogene

Pseudogenes are inheritable genetic elements that are similar to functional genes but are non-functional as they do not encode proteins.

Their biogenesis results from the duplication of a parental gene or the retrotransposition of an mRNA sequence into different genomic loci.

NEET Biology Translation Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Translation

Question 1. Identify the process associated with the synthesis of enzymes and proteins.

  1. Translation
  2. Replication
  3. Transduction
  4. Transcription

Answer: 1. Translation

All enzymes are proteins and the synthesis of proteins from RNAs is called translation.

Question 2. The site of protein synthesis is the

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Pyrenoids
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 2. Ribosomes

Protein synthesis occurs over ribosomes which are also called protein factories. Ribosomes may form groups of 5-20 called polyribosomes. The ribosomes of a polyribosome are held together by a strand of mRNA

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 3. Translation refers to the

  1. Formation of amino acid from RNA
  2. Formation of RNA from DNA
  3. Formation of DNA from DNA
  4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 1. Formation of amino acid from RNA

Translation refers to the polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide from RNA.

Question 4. The first phase of translation is

  1. Recognition of dna molecule
  2. Aminoacylation of tRNA
  3. Recognition of an anticodon
  4. Binding of mRNA to the ribosome

Answer: 4. Binding of mRNA to the ribosome

The first phase of translation is aminoacylation of tRNA, i.e. Activation of amino acids and the formation of aa-trna complex.

In the presence of an enzyme aminoacyl tRNA synthetase, the amino acid (aa) is activated, and then each amino acid is attached to the specific tRNA molecule at the 3′cca end to form the aminoacyl-trna complex. The reaction needs ATP.

This process is thus, called charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.

Question 5. The type of RNA specifically responsible for directing the proper sequence of amino acids in protein synthesis is

  1. Ribosomal RNA
  2. Messenger RNA
  3. Chromosomal rna
  4. Viral RNA

Answer: 2. Messenger RNA

Messenger RNA (mRNA) brings coded or genetic information from the the nucleus or from dna to the cytoplasm and takes part in protein synthesis. They are responsible for directing the proper sequence of amino acids in protein synthesis.

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

NEET Biology Translation Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 6. Charging (aminoacylation) of tRNA involves the attachment of

  1. Amino acid to mRNA
  2. Amino acid to trna
  3. Amino acid to rRNA
  4. Acidic amino acid to the ribosome

Answer: 2. Amino acid to trna

The first phase of translation is aminoacylation of trna, i.e. Activation of amino acids and the formation of aa-trna complex.

In the presence of an enzyme aminoacyl trna synthetase, the amino acid (aa) is activated, and then each amino acid is attached to the specific trna molecule at 3′/cca end to form aminoacyl-trna complex. The reaction needs ATP.

This process is thus, called charging of trna or aminoacylation of trna.

Question 7. 70S ribosome and 80s ribosome, respectively are found in

  1. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes
  2. Eukaryotes and prokaryotes
  3. Only prokaryotes
  4. Plants and animals

Answer: 1. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Messenger RNA (mRNA) brings coded or genetic information from the nucleus or from DNA to the cytoplasm and takes part in protein synthesis. They are responsible for directing the proper sequence of amino acids in protein synthesis

Question 8. Aminoacyl synthetase is responsible for

  1. Formation of peptide bond
  2. Binding of mRNA to ribosomes
  3. Attaching an amino group to an amino acid
  4. Joining of amino acid to trna

Answer: 4. Joining of amino acid to trna

The first phase of translation is aminoacylation of tRNA, i.e. activation of amino acids and the formation of AA-tRNA complex.

In the presence of an enzyme aminoacyl tRNA synthetase, the amino acid (AA) is activated, and then each amino acid is attached to the specific tRNA molecule at the 3′/CCA end to form the aminoacyl-tRNA complex. The reaction needs ATP. This process is thus, called charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 9. 80S ribosome is formed of subunits

  1. 30S and 50s
  2. 40S and 40s
  3. 20S and 60s
  4. 40S and 60s

Answer: 4. 40S and 60s

A eukaryotic ribosome has a large subunit that sediments at 60S and a small subunit that sediments at 40S. The whole structure sediments at 80S and not 100S. In the same way, the prokaryotic ribosome has two subunits.

The large subunit sediments at 50S and the small subunit sediments at 30S, but the two together
(that is, the whole ribosome) sediments at 70S, not 80S.

Question 10. A ribosome that acts as a catalyst or ribozyme is

  1. 40S rRNA
  2. 50S rRNA
  3. 70S rRNA
  4. 23S rRNA

Answer: 4. 23S rRNA

The 23S rRNA is 2904 base pair long and it is a component of bacterial ribosome.

Ribosomal peptidyl transferase activity resides in 23S rRNA for peptide bond formation between two amino acids during
translation.

Some naturally occurring ribozymes include Peptidyl transferase 23S rRNA RNase Group 1 and Group 2 introns

Question 11. Polysomes are

  1. Cell organelles in prokaryotes
  2. Cell organelles in eukaryotes
  3. Chain of nucleosomes
  4. Ribosomes attached to mRNA

Answer: 4. Ribosomes attached to mRNA

A polyribosome (polysome or orgasm) is a complex of a mRNA molecule and two or more ribosomes that help to translate mRNA instructions into polypeptides. So, polysomes are ribosomes attached to mRNA.

Question 12. Consider the following statements.

Polyribosomes are formed during active protein synthesis.
Different ribosomes of polyribosomes are connected with trna.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect

The incorrect statement can be corrected as The different ribosomes of a polyribosome are connected with a 10-20 Å thick strand of messenger or mRNA and its maintenance requires energy.

Polyribosomes are formed during periods of active protein synthesis when a number of copies of the same polypeptide are required.

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 13. Aminoacylation often is essential for

  1. Replication of RNA
  2. Formation of peptide bond
  3. Splicing
  4. Initiation of transcription
  5. Termination

Answer: 2. Formation of peptide bond

Charging or aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for protein synthesis, i.e. Polypeptide formation through the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids.

Question 14. Proteins are formed by

  1. Peptide link
  2. Glycosidic link
  3. Phosphate link
  4. Phosphodiamine linkage

Answer: 1. Peptide link

Proteins are formed by the joining of amino acids through a peptide bond

Question 15. Which enzyme takes part in peptide bond formation?

  1. Protease
  2. Peptidase
  3. Nitrogenase
  4. Peptidyl transferase

Answer: 4. Peptidyl transferase

Peptidyl transferase is an enzyme whose activity is carried out by ribosomes. It forms peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids using tRNAs during the translation process of protein biosynthesis.

Question 16. During the translation process, the incoming trna complexes other than aa 1 -trna get first attached to

  1. A-site
  2. P-site
  3. E-site
  4. Q-site

Answer: 1. A-site

During the translation process, the incoming tRNA complexes other than AA 1 -tRNA get first attached to the A-site. A-site is the aminoacyl site, also called the acceptor site. In this site, new amino acids are formed.

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 17. During translation, the p-site on the ribosome receives directly

  1. Amino acids
  2. Aa 1-trna
  3. Mrna with codon
  4. Mrna with anticodon

Answer: 2. Aa 1-trna

P-site is the peptidyl transfer or donor site, which holds the growing amino acids chain and makes the peptide bond between two amino acids. Activated tRNA, i.e.

AA 1 -tRNA occupies the P-site. Thus, the P-site on the ribosome receives directly AA1 -tRNA during translation.

Question 18. Amino acids are activated by

  1. Adp
  2. Amp
  3. Atp
  4. Special proteins

Answer: 3. Atp

Amino acids are activated by ATP. They become activated by binding with aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme in the presence of ATP.

Question 19. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a gtp molecule is needed in

  1. Association of 50s subunit of the ribosome with the initiation complex
  2. Formation of formyl-met-trna
  3. Binding of 30s subunit of the ribosome with mRNA
  4. Association of 30 s mRNA with formyl- met-trna

Answer: 4. Association of 30 s mRNA with formyl- met-trna

For the formation of an initiation complex during the translation of mRNA, GTP is also required. The initiation codon, AUG codes for the formylmethionine in prokaryotes.

The initiation of a polypeptide chain in prokaryotes is always brought about by the amino acid methionine, but it has to be formyl methionine (met). This methionine binds with tRNA-met to form feet-tRNA-met.

This met-tRNA-feet complex binds with the mRNA-30S subunit complex using initiation factors IF 2 IF1 and GTP.

Question 20. Non-proteinaceous enzyme that acts as a catalyst for the formation of peptide bond

  1. Spliceosome
  2. Ribozyme
  3. Rna poly-1
  4. Rna poly-3

Answer: 2. Ribozyme

Formation of the peptide bond that links each amino acid is catalyzed by the 23S RNA (ribozyme) molecule in the large subunit of the ribosome

Question 21. The ion required to keep the two ribosomal units together during protein synthesis is

  1. K+
  2. Mg2+
  3. Cl
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Mg2+

The two subunits of ribosomes come together only at the time of protein formation. The phenomenon is called association. Mg 2+ is essential for it

Question 22. Consider the following statements.

  • Anticodon binds with codons by hydrogen bonds.
  • During translation, ribosomes move over mRNA so that all codons on mRNA are exposed.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

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Question 23. Termination of protein synthesis occurs

  1. At stop signal
  2. Tata box
  3. Due to the release factor
  4. At the appearance of GUG and Aug codons

Choose the option containing the correct combination.

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: 1. 1 and 3

1 and 3 represent the correct combination for termination. Stop signals are the non-sense codons on mRNA and releasing factor
recognize the stop signals. There are three non-sense codons, i.e. UAA, UAG, and UGA.

These codons are not recognized by any of the tRNAs. There are two prokaryotic release factors, RF 1 -specific for UAG and UAA and
RF 2-specific for UAA and UGA. In eukaryotes, there is only one release factor eRF.

Question 24. Given below are sets of components and their types in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Identify the incorrect set. Component > prokaryotes > eukaryotes

  1. Initiation factor > if1 and if2 > if3
  2. Termination or release factor > rf1 and rf 2 > erf1
  3. Type of cistron > polycistronic > monocistronic
  4. First amino acid > formylated methionine > methionine

Answer: 1. Identify the incorrect set. Component > prokaryotes > eukaryotes

Option (a) shows incorrect matching and can be corrected as Prokaryotic initiation factors are IF-1, IF-2, and IF-3.

In contrast in eukaryotes, these are elF1, elF 2a,− elF c, elF 3, elF 4a,− elF 4 f, elF 5, and elF 6 Rest other options are the correct matching of prokaryotes and eukaryotes translation

Question 25. Which of the following set of options is used in translation?

  1. RNA, tRNA, rRNA
  2. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
  3. mRNA, tRNA, RNA
  4. hNRNA, rRNA, tRNA

Answer: 2. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

Post-transcriptional processing converts hnRNA into functional mRNA which then participates in translation (protein synthesis). mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are the functional RNAs that take part in translation. hnRNA (heterogeneous nuclear RNA) does not function until it undergoes processing.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 26. Where is the untranslated region present on mRNA?

  1. 5′ End
  2. 3′ End
  3. Before start codon
  4. After stop codon

Choose the correct option.

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Untranslated regions of mRNA are present on the 5′ and 3′ ends. These sequences do not participate in the translation process.

At the 5′ site, they (untranslated region) are present before the start codon and at the 3′ site, they are present after the termination codon. These regions are very important for efficient translation.

Question 27. Given below are different release factors and their functions.

  1. Rf-1 – recognize stop codons uaa and ag
  2. Rf-2 – recognize stop codons uaa and uga
  3. Rf-3 – gtp binding protein that binds rf-1 and rf-2 to ribosomes
  4. Erf-1 – recognize all 3 termination codons.

Choose the option containing incorrectly matched pairs.

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 2 and 3
  4. None of them

Answer: 2. Rf-2 – recognize stop codons uaa and uga

Question 28. What would happen if, in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, the 25th codon (uu) is mutated to use?

  1. A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
  2. A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
  3. Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
  4. A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed

Answer: 2. A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed

UAA is the stop codon. So, at 25th amino acid, the synthesis of polypeptide would stop. Thus, a polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
formed after mutation.

UAA does not code for any amino acid. If UAU is mutated to UAA, then the polypeptide chain will be terminated at that point because tRNA cannot bring the next amino acid.

Question 29. Which of the following characteristics are required for protein synthesis?

  1. Dna to provide the base sequence.
  2. 20 Types of amino acids.
  3. Genetic type of RNA.
  4. Non-genetic types of RNA such as mRNA, rRNA, and trna.
  5. Atp/gtp as a source of energy.

Choose the correct option 

  1. 1, 2, and 3 are required
  2. 1, 2, 4, and 5 are required
  3. 3 and 5 are required
  4. 1 and 5 are required

Answer: 2. 1, 2, 4, and 5 are required

All given characters are required for protein synthesis except III. The incorrect character can be corrected as Genetic RNAs do not play any role in protein synthesis.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 30. Choose the incorrect statement in the process of protein synthesis.

  1. After uncoiling of the dna molecule, one strand acts as a template for the formation of mRNA
  2. In the presence of dna polymerase enzyme, the mRNA is formed based on the triplet codes
  3. The mRNA that leaves the nucleus reaches the cytoplasm and gets attached to the 30s ribosomal subunit
  4. The amino acids are transferred from the intracellular amino acid pool to the active ribosomes by the trna
  5. The translation is the process in which proteins are synthesized from the RNA

Answer: 2. In the presence of dna polymerase enzyme, the mRNA is formed based on the triplet codes

The statement in option 2 is incorrect and can be corrected during protein synthesis, Polypeptides are formed based on
triplet codons on mRNA.

In the presence of RNA polymerase, mRNA is formed during transcription. Rest statements are correct regarding the process of protein synthesis

Question 31. Choose the correct options for a, b, c, and d.

NEET Biology Translation MCQs Question 31

A–uncharged trna, b–charged trna, c–3′ end, d–5′ end
A–charged trna, b–uncharged trna, c–3′ end, d–5′ end
A–charged trna, b–uncharged trna, c–5′ end, d–3′ end
A–charged trna, b–charged trna, c–5′ end, d–3′ end
Answer: 1. A–Uncharged tRNA, B–Charged tRNA, C–3′ end, D–5′ end

NEET Biology Genetic Code And RNA Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Biology MCQs with Answers for NEET Genetic Code And RNA

Question 1. A sequence of three base codes along the DNA molecule is called

  1. Genetic code
  2. Gene pool
  3. Genetic drift
  4. Genome

Answer: 1. Genetic code

The relationship between the sequence of bases in DNA or RNA and the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is called genetic code. It is a sequence of three base codes

Question 2. Who was the first one to suggest that genetic codes are a triplet?

  1. George Gamow
  2. Crick
  3. Ochoa
  4. Nirenberg

Answer: 1. George Gamow

Question 3. The genetic code is a triplet code. Three adjacent bases which specify an amino acid are called as

  1. Recon
  2. Muton
  3. Intron
  4. Codon

Answer: 4. Codon

Three bases in the genetic code that specify an amino acid are called codons.

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 4. Consider the following statements.

  1. Six codons do not code for any amino acid.
  2. Codon is read in mRNA in a continuous fashion.
  3. Three codons function as stop codons.
  4. The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine.

Choose the option containing an incorrect statement.

  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. Only 2
  5. Only 1

Answer: 3. 2, 3 and 4

All statements are correct except The incorrect statement can be corrected as 61 codons code for amino acids and 3 codons do not code for any amino acids, hence they function as stop codons.

Question 5. Genetic code is

  1. The sequence of nitrogenous bases on hnRNA
  2. The sequence of nitrogenous bases on tRNA
  3. The sequence of nitrogenous bases on rRNA
  4. The sequence of nitrogenous bases on DNA

Answer: 4. Sequence of nitrogenous bases on DNA

Genetic code comprises the sequence of nitrogenous bases (A, G, T, C, U) on DNA. These bases are arranged in a different manner to form a triplet codon.

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

NEET Biology Genetic Code And RNA Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 6. Genetic code determines

  1. Structure of proteins
  2. Structure of amino acids
  3. The sequence of amino acids
  4. Metabolic pathways

Answer: 3. Sequence of amino acids

Genetic code is the set of rules by which genetic information in DNA is translated into proteins within the cell.

This information is present in the form of a series of triplets of nitrogenous bases in DNA, from which a complementary sequence of codons in messenger RNA is transcribed.

The sequence of these codons, in turn, determines the sequence of amino acids during protein synthesis.

Question 7. The genetic code was explained by

  1. Nirenberg
  2. Matthaei
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Khorana

Answer: 3. Both 1 and 2

Nirenberg and his post-doctoral fellow Heinrich Matthaei explained the genetic code for the first time. Thus, option (c) is correct

Question 8. The initiation codon in eukaryotes is

  1. GAU
  2. AGU
  3. AUG
  4. UAG

Answer: 3. AUG

AUG codes for methionine and acts as an initiation codon in eukaryotes during translation. Thus, it has dual functions.

Question 9. Genetic code is

  1. Degenerate, overlapping, ambiguous
  2. Degenerate, non-overlapping, unambiguous
  3. Universal, overlapping, ambiguous
  4. Degenerate, non-overlapping, ambiguous

Answer: 2. Degenerate, non-overlapping, unambiguous

Salient features of the genetic code are as follows

The codon is a triplet, i.e. 61 codons code for amino acids, and 3 codons function as stop codons. One codon codes for only one particular amino acid, hence the code is unambiguous, non-overlapping, and specific. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the codons are degenerated. There are no punctuations in the triplet codon. The code is nearly universal. For example, from bacteria to humans, UUU codes for phenylalanine (phe). Some exceptions to this rule are found in mitochondria and protozoan’s codons.

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 10. Genetic code consists of

  1. Adenine and guanine
  2. Cytosine and uracil
  3. Cytosine and guanine
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Genetic code is the relationship between the amino acid sequence in a polypeptide chain and the base sequence of mRNA. I include adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil, and thymine.

Question 11. Which of the following is a non-sense codon?

  1. AUG
  2. USA
  3. UAG
  4. AGG

Answer: 3. UAG

A codon for which no normal tRNA molecule exists is called a non-sense codon.

It causes termination of translation. There are three non-sense codons, viz. amber (UAG), ochre (UAA), and opal (UGA).

Question 12. Which one of the following has dual functions?

  1. AUG
  2. AUC
  3. ACU
  4. ACA

Answer: 1. AUG

AUG codes for methionine and acts as an initiation codon in eukaryotes during translation. Thus, it has dual functions.

Question 13. Which of the following amino acids has a single codon?

  1. Tyrosine
  2. Tryptophan
  3. Serine
  4. Cysteine

Answer: 2. Tryptophan

Only tryptophan (UGG) and methionine (AUG) are specified by single codons.

Cysteine and tyrosine are coded by two codons, while serine is coded by 6 codons

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 14. Which triplet codon does not have a tRNA associated with it?

  1. UAA
  2. UUA
  3. UUU
  4. AUU
  5. GUU

Answer: 1. UAA

UAA is the termination codon and thus, no tRNA and no amino acid is associated with it

Question 15. The triplet UUU codes for

  1. Leucine Odisha
  2. Methionine
  3. Phenylalanine
  4. Glycine

Answer: 3. Phenylalanine

It is the first genetic code discovered by Nirenberg. It codes for phenylalanine

Question 16. Which sequence of codons specifies leucine-threonine-proline?

  1. CUC-GCU-CCC
  2. AAA-ACC-CCC
  3. UUG-AGC-UAG
  4. CUA-ACA-CCU

Answer: 4. CUA-ACA-CCU

It is the first genetic code discovered by Nirenberg. It codes for phenylalanine

Question 17. From bacteria to men, a nearly universal code for phenylalanine is

  1. UUU
  2. UUA
  3. UUG
  4. CUU

Answer: 1. UUU

It is the first genetic code discovered by Nirenberg. It codes for phenylalanine.

Question 18. Match the names of triplet codons listed under Column 1 with the amino acids given under Column 2. Choose the correct option from the codes given below.

NEET Biology Genetic Code And RNA MCQs Question 18 Match the following coloumn

Answer: 2. 1-5, 2-4, 3-3, 4-2.

Question 19. Which of the following groups of codons code for amino acid serine?

  1. CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG
  2. UAU, UAC, UGU, and UGC
  3. UCU, UCC, UCA and UCG
  4. UGU, UGC, UGA and UAG
  5. GUU, GUC, GCU, and GCC

Answer: 3. UCU, UCC, UCA and UCG

The codons UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG, AGU, and AGC, are all codes for the amino acid serine.

Question 20. The number of codons that code different amino acids is

16
31
61
64

Answer: 3. 61

There are 64 triplet codons which code for only 20 amino acids. Out of 64, three codons are non-sense codons as they do not specify any amino acid. Thus, only 61 codons code for amino acids.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 21. The starting codon is universal means HP

  1. It is the same universally for all organisms
  2. Two or more codons
  3. Any variable code is called starting which can start protein synthesis
  4. All codons originated from the same starting codon

Answer: 1. It is the same universally for all organisms

Starting codon is universal means it is the same universally for all organisms.

Question 22. Which of the following statements is correct regarding genetic code?

  1. It is the initiation codon which also codes for phenylalanine
  2. There are 64 triplet codons and only 20 amino acids
  3. Three random nitrogen bases specify the placement of one amino acid
  4. UAA is the non-sense codon which also codes for methionine

Answer: 2. Three random nitrogen bases specify the placement of one amino acid

The statement in option 2 is correct regarding genetic code. There are 64 triplet codons which code for only 20 amino acids.

This is due to the degeneracy of code as some amino acids are influenced by more than one codon. Only tryptophan and methionine are specified by a single codon.

Rest statements are not correct regarding genetic code and can be corrected as UUU is not the initiation codon, three
random nitrogen bases specify one codon and UAA does not code for any amino acid.

Question 23. Given below are different codons and amino acids coded by them.

  1. ACG – Threonine
  2. GAG – Glycine
  3. UAU – Tyrosine
  4. CGU – Leucine

Choose the option containing incorrectly matched pairs.

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 2 and 3

Answer: 2. 2 and 4

2 and 4 are incorrectly matched pairs and can be corrected as GAG codes for glutamic acid and CGU codes for arginine. The rest others are correctly matched pairs.

Question 24. Which one of the following pairs of codons are correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid?

  1. GUU, GCU–Alanine
  2. UAG, UGA–Stop
  3. AUG, ACG–Start-Methionine
  4. UUA, UCA–Leucine

Answer: 2. UAG, UGA–Stop

Option 2 is correctly matched pairs. UAG and UGA are stop codons. They do not code for any amino acid.

Rest options are not correctly matched pairs and can be corrected as GUU codes for valine and GCU codes for alanine. AUG is a start codon that codes for methionine but ACG codes for threonine.

UUA codes for leucine but UCA codes for serine.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 25. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. Cysteine is coded by UGU and UGC codons
  2. Tyrosine is coded by UAU and UAC codons
  3. UAA codon codes for lysine
  4. UGG codon codes for tryptophan

Answer: 3. UAA codon codes for lysine

The statement in option 3 is not correct and can be corrected as UAA is a stop codon. It does not specify any amino acid and thus, is called a non-sense codon. Rest statements are correct

Question 26. Match the codons in Column 1 with Column 2 their respective amino acids and choose the correct answer.

NEET Biology Genetic Code And RNA MCQs Question 26 Match the following coloumn

Answer: 1. A–3, B–4, C–1, D–5, E–2

Question 27. According to the wobble hypothesis,

  1. The process of polypeptide chain elongation has been established
  2. The first base is unstable
  3. The second base is the most unstable
  4. The third base is the most unstable

Answer: 4. Third base is the most unstable

The Wobble hypothesis discovered by Francis Crick states that the rules of base pairing are relaxed at the third position, i.e. it is most unstable. Thus, a base can pair with more than one complementary bases

Question 28. Which of the following codon anticodon combinations shows the wobble phenomenon?

  1. UUU/AAA
  2. GCA/CGA
  3. AAU/UUA
  4. CCA/GGU

Answer: 2. GCA/CGA

According to the wobble hypothesis, in codon-anticodon pairing, the third base may not be complementary. Thus, the wobble hypothesis applies to option 2, which shows A is being paired with A only.

Question 29. Genetic code is universal, it means

  1. It is the same for all living organisms
  2. It is the same for a specific protein
  3. It is the same for triplet codon
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. It is the same for all living organisms

The code is nearly universal which means it is the same for all living organisms. For example, from bacteria to humans, UUU codes for phenylalanine (Phe).

Question 30. Consider the following statements.

  1. Genetic code is unambiguous.
  2. One codon codes for more than one amino acid.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect

Question 31. Because most amino acids are represented by more than one codon, the genetic code is

  1. Overlapping
  2. Wobbling
  3. Degenerate
  4. Generate

Answer: 3. Degenerate

All amino acids are specified by more than one codon (except tryptophan and methionine).

Hence, they are degenerate.

Since there are 64 possible combinations of the four different nucleotides in sets of three, there is a redundancy in the system, which means that most amino acids can be coded by more than one triplet.

Question 32. Out of the total 64 codons, 61 code for 20 amino acids, this suggests

  1. Degeneracy Of Codons
  2. Overlapping Of Codons
  3. Redundancy Of Codons
  4. Both 1 and 3

Answer: 3. Redundancy Of Codons

All amino acids are specified by more than one codon (except tryptophan and methionine). Hence, they are degenerate.

Since there are 64 possible combinations of the four different nucleotides in sets of three, there is a redundancy in the system, which means that most amino acids can be coded by more than one triplet.

Question 33. The terminator codons are

  1. UAA, UAG, UGA
  2. AUG, UAG, UGA
  3. UAC, AUG, UAG
  4. DCC, UAA, CAC
  5. AUG, ACG, GAG

Answer: 1. UAA, UAG, UGA

UAA (ochre), UAG (amber), and UGA (opal) are the three codons, which bring about the termination of the polypeptide chain and thus, are called terminator codons.

Question 34. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

  1. 1
  2. 11
  3. 33
  4. 333

Answer: 3. 33

999 bases in RNA code for a protein with 333 amino acids. If the base at the 901 position is deleted, the first 900 bases will be normal, while the bases after the 901th position will be altered that is 99 bases will be altered.

3 bases = 1 codon. So, 99 bases = 33 codons will be altered 901 position

Question 35. Given below are the codons and their common names.

  1. UAA – Ochre
  2. UAG – Opal
  3. UGA –Amber

Choose the option containing incorrectly matched pairs.

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 3. 2 and 3

2 and 3 are incorrectly matched pairs and can be corrected as UAG is called amber and UGA is called opal. The rest other is a correctly matched pair.

Question 36. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf?

  1. rRNA
  2. hnRNA
  3. mRNA
  4. tRNA

Answer: 4. tRNA

The two-dimensional structure of tRNA looks like a clover leaf, hence its structure is referred to as a cloverleaf structure. It was given by Holley in 1965.

Question 37. DHU arm is also called

  1. Dihydrouracil arm
  2. Dihydroxyuracil arm
  3. Dehydroxyuracil arm
  4. Dihydroperoxyuracil arm

Answer: 1. Dihydrouracil arm

DHU arm is the base pair segment of the cloverleaf structure of transfer RNA. It has a loop containing 5,6-dihydrouracil attached to it.

Question 38. Which site of the tRNA molecule binds to a mRNA molecule?

  1. Codon
  2. Anticodon
  3. 5′ end of tRNA
  4. 3′ end of tRNA

Answer: 2. Anticodon

A tRNA molecule is held tightly at the A- and P-sites only if its anticodon forms base pairs with a complementary codon (allowing for wobble) on the mRNA molecule that is bound to the ribosome.

Question 39. tRNA contains

  1. 5 unpaired bases
  2. 7 unpaired bases
  3. 3 unpaired bases
  4. 4 unpaired bases

Answer: 3. 3 unpaired bases

Each tRNA contains a set of three unpaired nucleotide bases called an anticodon. The anticodon of a given tRNA can bind to one or a few specific mRNA codons.

Question 40. Anticodon occurs in

  1. tRNA
  2. mRNA
  3. rRNA
  4. DNA

Answer: 1. tRNA

Codons are present on mRNA and anticodon on tRNA.

Question 41. Consider the following statements.

  • The D-arm of tRNA is a highly variable region.
  • T ψ C arm of tRNA contains thymidine, pseudouridine, and cytidine.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Question 42. How many types of anticodons are present on tRNAs for stop codons?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

There are no anticodons on tRNA to read stop codons on mRNA (UAA, UAG, UGA). This implies there is no tRNA for the stop codon. Thus, option (4) is correct

Question 43. What is true about tRNA?

  1. It binds with an amino acid at its 3-end
  2. It has five double-stranded regions
  3. It has a codon at one end which recognizes the anticodon on messenger RNA
  4. It looks like a clover leaf in the three-dimensional structure

Answer: 1. It binds with an amino acid at its 3-end

Option (a) is true about tRNA. Anticodon is the sequence of three nucleotides in a transfer RNA molecule that pairs with a complementary sequence of three nucleotides (codon) on a molecule of messenger RNA.

tRNA has CCA nucleotides at the 3′ end that are meant for attaching to a specific amino acid (AA-binding site). Rest options are not true about tRNA. tRNA has four double-stranded regions.

It has an anticodon that recognizes a codon on mRNA. It looks L-shaped in a 3-D structure

Question 44. Identify A, B, C, and D in the image given below.

NEET Biology Genetic Code And RNA MCQs Variable arms and amino acid arms

  1. A–Variable arm, B–Amino acid arm, C–T-loop, D–Anticodon arm
  2. A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Variable arm, D–Anticodon arm,
  3. A–Amino acid arm, B–Variable arm, C–Codon, D–D-loop
  4. A–Amino acid arm, B–T-loop, C–Anticodon loop, D–Anticodon

Answer: 3. A–Amino acid arm, B–Variable arm, C–Codon, D–D-loop

Question 45. The similarity between the hairpin model and the clover leaf model of tRNA is that

  1. Both models show three arms
  2. Both models show the presence of a variable arm or lump
  3. Both models show CCA nucleotide at 3′ acceptor end
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Both models show CCA nucleotide at 3′ acceptor end

The hairpin model of tRNA structure was given by Hoagland and Cloverleaf was proposed by Holley. Both models show CCA nucleotide at 3′ acceptor end.

Question 46. An anticodon is the sequence of the nitrogenous bases on

  1. The complementary strand of DNA, which codes for one amino acid
  2. The complementary strand of mRNA, which codes for one amino acid
  3. Trna molecules, where the amino acid is attached
  4. tRNA molecule, which recognizes the appropriate sequence of a base on the mRNA

Answer: 4. tRNA molecule, which recognizes the appropriate sequence of the base on the mRNA

Each tRNA contains a set of three unpaired nucleotide bases called an anticodon. The anticodon of a given tRNA can bind to one or a few specific mRNA codons.

Question 47. The tRNA carrying the first amino acid in eukaryotes is denoted as

  1. N-formyl methionine- tRNA
  2. Val-tRNA
  3. Met-tRNA
  4. Amino acyl-tRNA

Answer: 3. Met-tRNA

In eukaryotes, the initiating amino acid is methionine rather than N-formylmethionine. However, as in prokaryotes, a special tRNA participates in initiation.

This aminoacyl-tRNA is called Met-tRNAi or Met-tRNAf (the subscript ‘i’ stands for initiation and ‘f ’ indicates that it can be formulated in vitro).