NEET Class 9 Biology

NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 1 The Fundamental Unit of Life Very Short Answer Questions

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The Fundamental Unit of Life Very Short Answer Questions

Directions: Give an answer in one word or one sentence.

Question 1. Write the names of the following organelles –

1. Power house of the cell
Answer:

Mitochondria

2. Digestive bag of the cell
Answer:

Lysosome

3. Protein factory of cell
Answer:

Ribosome

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4. Head quarter of cell
Answer:

Nucleus

Question 2. Defie cristae?
Answer:

Cristae are the infoldings of inner mitochondrial membrane which contains oxysomes. They are the sites containing respiratory enzymes.

Question 3. Which cell type probably evolved fist?
Answer:

Prokaryotic cell.

Question 4. What is the primary function of the plasma membrane?
Answer:

It regulates the movement of ions and molecules into and out of the cell.

Question 5. Why does water diffuse out of a cell if it is placed in a hypertonic Answer:

The water concentration is more inside the cell than outside the cell hence, and water diffuses down a concentration gradient.

Question 6. What are the structural differences between a prokaryotic cell and a normal eukaryotic cell?
Answer:

Eukaryotic cell contains a true nucleus and various types of membrane-bound organelles whereas prokaryotic cells do not contain these structures.

Question 7. What will happen if all the mitochondria of a cell are destroyed?
Answer:

The cell will die because mitochondria are the sites of respiration and contain various respiratory enzymes.

Question 8. What do you mean by “semi-autonomous genomes system”? In which organelle is it present?
Answer:

The system where there is a presence of replicable DNA molecule constitutes semiautonomous cell system as they themselves can divide and form a new individual of similar type.

Question 9. Name the process by which a cell engulfs its food?
Answer:

Cell engulfs its food by endocytosis.

Question 10. What is the function of ribosomes?
Answer:

Ribosomes help in protein synthesis in the cell.

Question 11. Which type of microscope would you use to study –

1. The changes in shape of a living human white blood cell.
Answer:

Light microscope

2. The first details ofsurface texture ofa human hair.
Answer:

Scanning electron microscope

3. The detailed structure of an organelle in the cytoplasm of a human liver cell.
Answer:

Transmission electron microscope

Question 12. How is the nucleoid region of a prokaryotic cell unlike the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell?
Answer:

There is no membrane enclosing the DNA of the nucleoid region.

Question 13. Why do phospholipids tend to organize into a bilayer in an aqueous environment?
Answer:

This structure shields the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids from water while exposing the hydrophilic heads to water

Question 14. What is the energy source for active transport
Answer:

ATP

Question 15. Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow all contributed to the development of the Cell Theory in the nineteenth century. Formulate two statements that comprise the cell theory of the nineteenth century.
Answer:

  1. Cells are the structural and functional units of organisms.
  2. All cells come from pre-existing cells.

Question 16. What three features of plant cells distinguish them from animal cells?
Answer:

In contrast to animal cells, plant cells have vacuoles, cell walls, and plastids.

Question 17. Endoplasmic reticulum helps in membrane biogenesis. Explain how?
Answer:

SER helps in synthesis of phospholipids and RER synthesises proteins both of these are membrane forming materials but they are packed inside the golgi body.

Question 18. Give two examples of prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

Bacteria and blue green algae.

Question 19. What is the main function of each of the following organelles?

1. Ribosome
Answer:

Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis.

2. Cell wall
Answer:

Cell wall provides shape, rigidity and protection to the cell.

Question 20. Name the cell organelle in which following structures are present

1. Cristae
Answer:

Mitochondria

2. Stroma
Answer:

Plastid (chloroplast)

3. Centriole
Answer:

Centrosome

4. Chromosome
Answer:

Nucleus.

Question 21. What is the main function of each of the following organelles?

1. Golgi bodies
Answer:

Golgi bodies help in the formation of cell plate (during cell division) and synthesis of lysomes.

2. Vacuole
Answer:

Vacuoles are involved in the maintenance of water balance.

Question 22. Name two cells organelles, which contain their own genetic material.
Answer:

Mitochondria and plastids.

Question 23. Is the plant cell wall living or dead?
Answer:

The cell wall is dead.

Question 24. What is the common name of mitochondria?
Answer:

Mitochondria are commonly known as power house of the cellls.

Question 25. Name the following:

1. Suicide bag of the cell.
Answer:

Lysosome

2. Kitchen of a cell.
Answer:

Chloroplast

Question 26. Name the scientist who fist studied living cell.
Answer:

Living cells were fist studied by A.V. Leeuwenhoek (1674).

Question 27. How many cells are present in human body?
Answer:

100 trillion cells.

Question 28. Name the book in which Robert Hooke published his work.
Answer:

Robert Hooke published his work in ‘Micrographia’ (1665).

Question 29. Name the smallest and the largest cell.
Answer:

The smallest cell is Mycoplasma (PPLO) and the largest cell is Ostrich egg.

Question 30. Name the structure from which all multicellular organisms develop.
Answer:

Zygote.

Question 31. Defie cell.
Answer:

Cell is the structural and functional unit of life.

Question 32. What is protoplasm?
Answer:

Protoplasm or living matter is a complex semiflid mass of various biochemicals that are often compartmentalised to perform different functions of life.

Question 33. What is semipermeable membrane?
Answer:

Semipermeable membrane is a membrane which is permeable to solvent but prevents the passage of all solutes through it, but selectively permit.

Question 34. Name the biochemicals present in cell membrane.
Answer:

Lipid (phospholipids), proteins and small quantity of carbohydrates.

Question 35. What do you mean by selectively permeable membrane?
Answer:

Selectively permeable membrane is the one which allows entry of certain substances, exit of some substances but prevents the passage of other substances.

Question 36. Define diffusion.
Answer:

The process of movement of a substance (solid, liquid or gas) from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration so as to spread uniformly is called diffusion

Question 37. What would happen if plasma membrane ruptures?
Answer:

It generally heals within time but if rupturing does not heal, the cell contents will spill over and the cell is killed.

Question 38. What is osmotic Solution?
Answer:

Osmotic Solution is the one which can cause osmosis if separated from its solvent by a semipermeable membrane.

Question 39. Defie endosmosis.
Answer:

Endosmosis is the osmotic entry of water into a cell or system due to presence of hypotonic Answer: of the outside.

Question 40. What is main function of plasma membrane?
Answer:

The main function of plasma membrane is to insulate the internal environment of the cell from external environment.

Question 41. What is exosmosis?
Answer:

Exosmosis is the osmotic exit of water from a cell or system due to presence of hypertonic Answer: on the outside.

Question 42. Define:
Answer:

Hypertonic Solution:

Hypertonic Solution is the one which has higher solute osmotic concentration and less solvent concentration as compared to another Solution

Hypotonic Solution:

Hypotonic Solution is the Solution that possesses lower (osmotic) concentration and higher solvent concentration as compared to another Solution

Isotonic Solution:

Isotonic Solution is the Solution that has the same concentration, solute (osmotic) as well as solvent, as that of another Solution

Question 43. What is the energy currency in mitochondria?
Answer:

ATP-Adenosine Triphosphate.

Question 44. Name the cell-organelle that helps in packaging?
Answer:

Golgi apparatus.

Question 45. Name the cell-organelle which helps in the transportating of material.
Answer:

Endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 46. Why does mitochondria have largely folded inner membrane?
Answer:

Mitochandria are the sites for cellular respiration and provides energy to the cell. The largely folded inner membrane provides the increase in surface area for ATP-to generate chemical reactions.

Question 47. What are cisterns?
Answer:

The golgi bodies consist of a system of membrane-bound vesicles arranged in stacks called cisterns

NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

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NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 7 Origin Of Life Multiple Choice Question And Answers

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Origin Of Life Exercise Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. If the fossil of an organism is found in the deeper layers of the earth, then we can predict that.

  1. The extinction of organisms has occurred recently.
  2. The extinction of organisms has occurred thousands of years ago.
  3. The fossil position in the layers of the earth is not related to its time of extinction
  4. The time of extinction cannot be determined.

Answer: 2. The extinction of organisms has occurred thousands of years ago.

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Question 2. From the list given below, select the character that can be acquired but not inherited.

  1. Colour of eye
  2. Colour of skin
  3. Size of body
  4. Nature of hair

Answer: 3. Size of body

Question 3. A trait is an organism is influenced by

  1. Paternal DNA only
  2. Maternal DNA only
  3. Both maternal and paternal DNA
  4. Neither by paternal nor by maternal DNA

Answer: 3. Both maternal and paternal DNA

Question 4. The theory of the evolution of species by natural selection was given by

  1. Mendel
  2. Darwin
  3. Morgan
  4. Lamarck

Answer: 2. Darwin

Question 5. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly birds have feathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution, this means that

  1. Reptiles have evolved from birds
  2. There is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds.
  3. Feathers are homologous structures in both organisms
  4. Birds have evolved from reptiles

Answer: 4. Birds have evolved from reptiles

Question 6. Archaeopteryx shows the origin of

  1. Birds from reptiles
  2. Mammals from reptiles
  3. Reptiles from amphibians
  4. Birds from amphibians

Answer: 1. Birds from reptiles

Question 7. Which of the following pairs are homologous?

  1. Sweet potato and ginger
  2. Passiflora tendril and Bougainvillea thorn
  3. Insect wing and bird wing
  4. Tortoiseshell and mollusk shell

Answer: 2. Passiflora tendril and Bougainvillea thorn

Question 8. The oldest age when life existed on the Earth is

  1. Archaeozoic
  2. Azoic
  3. Cenozoic
  4. Proterozoic

Answer: 1. Archaeozoic

Question 9. First photoautotroph organisms were

  1. Bryophytes
  2. Algae
  3. Cyanobacteria
  4. Bacteria

Answer: 4. Bacteria

Question 10. The study of fossils comes under

  1. Organic evolution
  2. Palaeogeography
  3. Paleontology
  4. Herpetology

Answer: 3. Palaeontology

Question 11. Tail is lacking in

  1. Lemurs
  2. Apes
  3. Monkeys
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Apes

Question 12. Which of the following is most important for the origin of life?

  1. Carbon
  2. Oxygen
  3. Water
  4. Nitrogen

Answer: 3. Water

Question 13. Galapagos islands are associated with the name of

  1. Wallace
  2. Malthus
  3. Darwin
  4. Lamarck

Answer: 3. Darwin

Question 14. Species occurring in different geographical areas are called

  1. Sibling
  2. Neopatric
  3. Sympatric
  4. Allopatric

Answer: 4. Allopatric

Question 15. Lamarck’s theory of evolution is also called

  1. Survival of the finest
  2. Special creation theory
  3. Inheritance of acquired characters
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Inheritance of acquired characters

Question 16. The theory of spontaneous generation was given by

  1. Louis Pasteur
  2. Spallanzani
  3. F. Redi Van
  4. Helmont

Answer: 4. Helmont

Question 17. Which of the following were first evolved organisms?

  1. Chemoautotrophs
  2. Chemoheterotrophs
  3. Cyanobacteria
  4. Bacteria

Answer: 2. Chemoheterotrophs

Question 18. Darwin’s theory does not include

  1. Natural selection
  2. Survival of the fittest
  3. Evolution through inheritance
  4. Struggle for existence

Answer: 1. Natural selection

Question 19. Which is the most advanced theory of the origin of life?

  1. Spontaneous
  2. Catastrophic
  3. Oparin and Haldane
  4. Non-spontaneous

Answer: 3. Oparin and Haldane

Question 20. Which one of the following aspects was found in Darwin’s fiches?

  1. Biogeographic evidence
  2. Industrial melanism
  3. Biochemical evidence
  4. Embryological evidence

Answer: 1. Biogeographic evidence

Question 21. The wings of bats and birds are

  1. Homologous but not analogous
  2. Neither homologous
  3. Nor analogous analogous but not homologous
  4. Vestigial

Answer: 1. Homologous but not analogous

Question 22. ‘Use and disuse theory was proposed by

  1. Lamarck
  2. Darwin
  3. Hugo de Vries
  4. Malthus

Answer: 1. Lamarck

Question 23. Darwin’s theory states that

  1. Characters are acquired through inheritance
  2. Nature selects species that can adapt
  3. Species change morphologically with
  4. Nature’s effect of environment on Evolution

Answer: 2. Nature selects species that can adapt

Question 24. There is no life on the moon because of the absence of

  1. Water
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Hydrogen

Answer: 1. Water

Question 25. The gases used in the spark-discharge apparatus were

  1. NH3 ,NH4 and O2 O2,
  2. CO2 and NH3
  3. CO2, NH3 and CH4 H2,
  4. CH4  and NH3

Answer: CH4  and NH3

Question 26. Which of the following is a living fossil?

  1. Moss
  2. Saccharomyces
  3. Spirogyra
  4. Cycas

Answer: 4. Cycas

Question 27. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?

  1. Oxygen
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Water
  4. Vapour Methane

Answer: Oxygen

Question 28. The evolutionary history of an organism is known as

  1. Ontogeny
  2. Phylogeny
  3. Ancestry
  4. Paleontology

Answer: 2. Phylogeny

Question 29. Which of the following provides the most evident proof of evolution?

  1. Fossils
  2. Morphology
  3. Embryo
  4. Vestigial organs

Answer: 1. Fossils

Question 30. The concept of chemical evolution is based on

  1. Interaction of water, air, and clay under intense heat
  2. Effect of solar radiation on chemicals
  3. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
  4. Crystallization of chemicals

Answer: 3. Possible origin of life by a combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions

Question 31. The fiches of the Galapagos islands provide evidence in favor of

  1. Evolution due to mutation
  2. Retrogressive evolution
  3. Biogeographical evolution
  4. Special Creation

Answer: 1. Retrogressive evolution

Question 32. The first organisms to evolve on the earth were

  1. Saprotrophs
  2. Photoautotrophs
  3. Chemoautotrophs
  4. Chemoheterotroph

Answer: 4. Chemoheterotroph

Origin Of Life Assertion And Reason

Directions: Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by a Reason. Read them carefully and answer the question on the basis of the following options. You have to select the one that best describes the two statements.

  1. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
  2. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Assertion.
  3. Assertion is True, Reason is False.
  4. Assertion is False, Reason is True.

Question 1.

Assertion: The primary atmosphere of primitive earth was reducing.

Reason: Primary atmosphere had an abundance of NH3, CH4, CO2 but had no free O2

Answer: 1. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.

Question 2.

Assertion: Homologous organs serve different functions and look alike, but have the same embryonic origin.

Reason: Homologous organs have specific significance.

Answer: 2. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Assertion.

Question 3.

Assertion: The first living organisms were heterotrophs.

Reason: They were surrounded by preformed organic molecules which they used as food.

Answer: 1. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.

Question 4.

Assertion: Organic compounds gradually accumulate in the ocean.

Reason: These were pre-determined as oceans favored their growth.

Answer: 3. Assertion is True, and Reason is False.

Question 5.

Assertion: A single mutation may produce a new species.

Reason: Mutations cause variation in chromosomes and genes and are, therefore, inheritable.

Answer: 1. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.

Question 6.

Assertion: Acquired characters are noninheritable.

Reason: Acquired characters generally affect the somatic cells and it is the germ cells that are passed on to the next generation.

Answer: 1. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.

Question 7.

Assertion: Man has descended from apes.

Reason: Monkeys resemble humans more than apes do.

Answer: 3. Assertion is True, and Reason is False.

Question 8.

Assertion: Homologous organs are similar in basic structure and embryonic origin, but serve different functions.

Reason: Similarity in basic structure points to common ancestry whereas diversity in function reflects adaptation to different modes of life.

Answer: 1. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.

Question 9.

Assertion: Vestigial organs are greatly reduced and functionless.

Reason: These organs were fully developed and functional in the ancestral forms, but are gradually disappearing due to changes in the mode of life of their descendants.

Answer: 1. Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.

Question 10.

Assertion: Tadpole has a bird-like form, tail and gills.

Reason: The Tadpole stage is the recapitulation of the fish-like ancestor of the frog in the latter life history

Answer: 4. Assertion is False, Reason is True.

 

 

NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 6 Natural Resources Multiple Choice Question And Answers

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Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: This section contains multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), and out of which Only One is correct.

Question 1. MAB stands for

  1. Man And Biosphere
  2. Man antibodies and bacteria
  3. Man and biotic community
  4. Mayer, Anderson and Bishby

Answer: 1. Man And Biosphere

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Question 2. The sphere of living matter together with water, air and soil On the surface of the earth is

  1. Lithosphere
  2. Biosphere
  3. Hydrosphere
  4. Atmosphere

Answer: 2. Biosphere

Question 3. The conversion of nitrate to nitrous oxide and nitrogen gas is termed as

  1. Nitrification
  2. Denitrification
  3. Nitrogen-fixation
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Denitrification

Question 4. The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is called

  1. Chemical cycle
  2. Geochemical cycle
  3. Biogeochemical cycle
  4. Geological cycle

Answer: 3. Biogeochemical cycle

Question 5. The limiting factor in the nitrification of soil is

  1. pH
  2. Temperature
  3. Light
  4. Air

Answer: 1. pH

Question 6. The greenhouse effect is due to the presence of

  1. The ozone layer in the atmosphere
  2. Infrared light reaching the earth
  3. Moisture layer in the atmosphere
  4. CO2 layer in the atmosphere

Answer: The CO2 layer in the atmosphere

Question 7. Acid rain is caused by to increase in concentration of (in the atmosphere)

  1. SO2 and NO2
  2. CO and CO2
  3. CO and SO3
  4. O3and dust

Answer: 1. SO2 and NO2

Question 8. The pollution in a city like Delhi may be controlled to a great extent

  1. By proper sewage and proper exit of chemicals from factories
  2. By wide roads and factories away from the city
  3. By cleaning the city and scanty use of pesticides all of the above
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 9. The stratospheric ozone depletion leads to

  1. Global warming
  2. Increase in the incidence of skin cancers
  3. Forest fires
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 10. Green house effect refers to

  1. Cooling of earth trapping of
  2. UV rays
  3. Production of cereals
  4. Warming of earth

Answer: 4. Warming of earth

Question 11. Which of the following is most poisonous?

  1. CO
  2. CO2
  3. C
  4. SO2

Answer: 1. CO

Question 12. Acid rain is the secondary effect of

  1. Water pollution
  2. Air pollution
  3. Soil pollution
  4. Sound pollution

Answer: 3. Soil pollution

Question 13. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of

  1. Industrial wastes poured into water bodies
  2. The extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds
  3. Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin
  4. Amount of oxygen needed by green plants during the night

Answer: 2. Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds

Question 14. Which one of the following is not used for disinfection of drinking water?

  1. Chlorine
  2. Ozone
  3. Chloramine
  4. Phenyl

Answer: 4. Phenyl

Question 15. Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NOx smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO2 hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2 hydrocarbons, ozone and SOx

  1. Ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate and NOX
  2. Smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO
  3. Hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2
  4. Hydrocarbons, ozone and SOx

Answer: 2. Smoke, peroxyacetyl nitrate and SO

Question 16. Molecules of carbohydrate, fats, and proteins contain

  1. Carbon
  2. Bromine
  3. Chlorine
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Carbon

Question 17. Soil conservation is the process where

  1. Sterile Soil is converted to fertile soil
  2. Soil is aerated
  3. Soil erosion is allowed
  4. Soil is protected against loss

Answer: 4. Soil is protected against loss

Question 18. Overgrazing causes  negative pollution positive pollution soil erosion reduction in crop yield.

  1. negative pollution
  2. positive pollution
  3. soil erosion
  4. reduction in crop yield

Answer: 1.

Question 19. Water is a resource nondegradable nonmaintainable

  1. Degradable
  2. Maintainable
  3. Renewable
  4. Non-renewable

Answer: 4. Non-renewable

Question 20. In hilly areas, erosion is minimised by

  1. Terracing
  2. Manuring
  3. Ploughing
  4. Mixed cropping

Answer: 1. Terracing

Question 21. The nitrogen cycle involves bacteria capable of changing proteins to ammonia is bacteria of decay denitrifying bacteria

  1. Nitrogen fixing
  2. Bacteria
  3. Ammonifying
  4. Bacteria

Answer: 4. Bacteria

Question 22. Biogeochemical cycles are of

  1. Two types
  2. Three types
  3. Four types
  4. Five types

Answer: 1. Two types

Question 23. Burning of fossil fuels affects

  1. Nitrogen cycle
  2. Carbon cycle
  3. Phosphorus cycle
  4. Water cycle

Answer: 2. Carbon cycle

Question 24. The process of evapotranspiration and precipitation is known as

  1. Carbon cycle
  2. Hydrological cycle
  3. Nitrogen cycle
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Hydrological cycle

Question 25. The nitrogen content of the biosphere remains constant due to

  1. Nitrogen fixation
  2. Nitrogen cycle
  3. Industrial pollution
  4. Absorption of nitrogen

Answer: 2. Nitrogen cycle

Question 26. The major factor in causing global warming is

  1. Increase in oxygen concentration in the atmosphere
  2. Decrease in carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere
  3. Increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere
  4. Decrease in atmospheric nitrogen

Answer: 3. Increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere

Question 27. Non-renewable source is

  1. Water and gas
  2. Plant and coke
  3. Coke and mineral substances
  4. Energy and water

Answer: 3. Coke and mineral substances

Question 28. Conservation is

  1. Protection of natural resources
  2. Management of natural resources
  3. Proper use of natural resources
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 29. The largest amount of fresh water is found in

  1. Lakes and streams
  2. Underground
  3. Polar ice and glaciers
  4. Rivers

Answer: 3. Polar ice and glaciers

Question 30. Which of the following do most ecologists think is mainly responsible for the current high rate of extinction of species?

  1. Increased CO2 concentration in the atmosphere
  2. Global warming
  3. Hunting and fishing
  4. Land and water transformation

Answer: 4. Land and water transformation

Question 31. CO2 absorbs some of the …………………… that radiates from the surface of Earth to space.

  1. Ozone
  2. Heat
  3. Ultraviolet light
  4. Smog

Answer: 2. Heat

Question 32. The conversion of N2 gas to a form of nitrogen that can be used by plants is called

  1. Nitrogen fixation
  2. Nitrogen assimilation.
  3. Nitrogen cycling
  4. Nitrogen uptake.

Answer: 1. Nitrogen fixation

Question 33. Human-caused changes to the nitrogen cycle are expected to result in

  1. An increase in acid rain.
  2. An increase in the loss of species from ecosystems.
  3. Higher concentrations of a greenhouse gas.
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 34. Local conditions, such as heavy rainfall or the removal of plants, may limit the amount of nitrogen, phosphorus, or calcium available to a particular ecosystem, but the amount of carbon available to the system is seldom a problem

  1. Organisms do not need very much carbon.
  2. Plants can make their own carbon using water and sunlight.
  3. Plants are much better at absorbing carbon from the soil.
  4. Many nutrients come from the soil, but carbon comes from the air.

Answer:  4. Many nutrients come from the soil, but carbon comes from the air.

Question 35. The recent increase in atmospheric CO2 concentration is mainly a result of an increase in

  1. Primary productivity
  2. The biosphere’s biomass
  3. The absorption of infrared radiation escaping from Earth.
  4. The burning of fossil fuels and wood.

Answer: 3. The absorption of infrared radiation escaping from Earth.

Question 36. The major source(s) of carbon for living things is (are)

  1. Coal, oil, and natural gas
  2. Plants
  3. CO2 in the atmosphere and oceans
  4. Methane in the atmosphere

Answer: 3. CO2 in the atmosphere and oceans

Question 37. Which one of the following groups of organisms is able to fix atmospheric nitrogen by living organisms?

  1. Plants
  2. Fungi
  3. Insects
  4. Bacteria

Answer: 4. Bacteria

Question 38. The biological process by which carbon is returned to its reservoir is

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Denitrification
  3. Carbon fixation
  4. Cellular respiration

Answer: 4. Cellular respiration

Question 39. Herbivores can also be called

  1. Primary producers
  2. Primary consumers
  3. Secondary consumers
  4. Decomposers

Answer: 2. Primary consumers

Question 40. In the nitrogen cycle, which group of bacteria convert nitrates and nitrites back to atmospheric gas?

  1. Denitrifying bacteria
  2. Nitrifying bacteria
  3. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
  4. All of these are correct.

Answer: 1. Denitrifying bacteria

Question 41. Burning of fossil fuels add

  1. CO2,SO2, NO2 gases in air
  2. C, SO2, N2 gases in air
  3. CO, SO3 , NO3 gases in air
  4. CH2,CO2,NO2 gases in air

Answer:  1. CO2, SO2, NO2gases in air

Question 42. The atmosphere maintains the temperature on the surface of the earth because

  1. It contains water vapour in it
  2. It holds air, which is a bad conductor of heat
  3. It reflects the heat rays
  4. It absorbs the heat rays

Answer:  2. It holds air, which is a bad conductor of heat

Question 43. Life cannot be sustained on Mars and Venus because of

  1. Oxygen
  2. Carbon dioxide
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Ozone

Answer: 2. Carbon dioxide

Question 44. On moon the temperature ranges from –190°C to 110°C, this is due to

  1. No water bodies present
  2. No water bodies present
  3. No bio-geochemical cycle
  4. No atmosphere

Answer: 4. No atmosphere

Question 45. The life-supporting zone of Earth is

  1. Lithosphere
  2. Hydrosphere
  3. Atmosphere
  4. Biosphere

Answer: 4. Biosphere

Question 46. The percentage of nitrogen present in the atmosphere is

  1. 20%
  2. 50%
  3. 78%
  4. 86%

Answer: 3. 78%

Question 47. Air is

  1. Exhaustible resource
  2. Inexhaustible resource
  3. Perishable resource
  4. both (2) and (3)

Answer: 2. Inexhaustible resource

Question 48. Nitrosomonas changes

  1. Ammonia to nitrate
  2. Ammonia to nitrite
  3. Nitrite to nitrate
  4. Nitrate to ammonia

Answer: 2. Ammonia to nitrite

Question 49. Biosphere occurs

  1. In lithosphere
  2. In the lithosphere and hydrosphere
  3. Interaction of lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere
  4. In the atmosphere and hydrosphere

Answer: 3. Interaction of lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere

Question 50. The daytime temperature of the moon is

  1. 60°C
  2. 70°C
  3. 90°C
  4. 110°C

Answer:  4. 110°C

51. Wind causes weathering of rocks through

  1. Chemical changes
  2. Abrasion
  3. Mechanical forces
  4. Frost action

Answer: 2. Abrasion

Question 52. The amount of rainfall in the wet zones of India is more than

  1. 200 cm
  2. 100-200 cm
  3. 50-100 cm
  4. 20-50 cm

Answer:  200 cm

53. Which one of the following promotes soil erosion?

  1. Conservation tillage
  2. Terracing
  3. Over-grazing
  4. Wind breaks

Answer: 3. Over-grazing

Question 54. Rhizobium is an imprtant…………bacterium.

  1. Nitrogen-fixing
  2. Nitrifying
  3. Denitrifying
  4. Ammonifying

Answer: 1. Nitrogen fixing

Question 55. The ozone hole was discovered in

  1. 1992
  2. 1985
  3. 1995
  4. 1998

Answer: 2. 1985

Question 56. The gas which is mainly responsible for the greenhouse effect is

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Oxygen
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Argon

Answer: 3. Carbon dioxide

Question 57. The most exploited non-renewable resource is water petroleum electricity all of the above

  1. water
  2. petroleum
  3. electricity
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 58. Of the total fresh water available on earth, what percentage is in a frozen state?

  1. 90%
  2. 77%
  3. 22%
  4. 10%

Answer: 2. 77%

Question 59. Which one of the following is not a biotic natural resource?

  1. Water
  2. Milk
  3. Fruits
  4. Fish

Answer: 1. Water

Question 60. Smog is a combination of

  1. Fie and water
  2. Smoke and fog
  3. Water and smoke
  4. Air and water

Answer: 2. Smoke and fog

Question 61. Which of the following is a renewable resource?

  1. Wood
  2. Wildlife
  3. Forest
  4. All of them

Answer:  4. All of them

Question 62. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in 

  1. drying of the lake due to algal bloom
  2. an increased production of fih due to a lot of nutrients
  3. Death of fih due to lack of oxygen
  4. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms

Answer: 3. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms

Question 63. Drip irrigation is a device to recharge the groundwater to reduce the wastage of water to prevent water pollution all of them

  1. to recharge the groundwater
  2. To reduce wastage of water
  3. to prevent water pollution
  4. all of them

Answer: 2. To reduce waste of water

Question 64. Ozone ( O3) is formed in which zone of the atmosphere?

  1. Mesosphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Troposphere
  4. Ionosphere

Answer:  2. Stratosphere

Question 65. The term “water pollution” can be defied in several ways. Which of the following statements does not give the correct definition?

  1. The addition of undesirable substances to water bodies.
  2. The removal of desirable substances from water bodies.
  3. A change in pressure of the water bodies.
  4. A change in temperature of the water bodies.

Answer: The removal of desirable substances from water bodies.

Question 66. Which component of the soil makes it porous?

  1. Humus
  2. Water
  3. Minerals
  4. Living organisms

Answer: 1. Humus

Question 67. CFCs cause

  1. Depletion of the ozone layer
  2. Depletion of CO2
  3. Acid rain
  4. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Answer: 1. Depletion of ozone layer

Question 68. The hydrological cycle is under the control of

  1. Grassland
  2. Forest
  3. Planktons
  4. Epiphytes

Answer: 2. Forest

NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 5 Improvement In Food Resources Multiple Choice Question And Answers

by

Improvement In Food Resources Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. The best way to increase the yield of wheat in India is

  1. To sow seeds of improved varities
  2. To use tractors
  3. To reduce the quantity of ration consumers
  4. To remove weeds from wheat filds

Answer: 1. To sow seeds of improved varities

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. A plant cell has potential to develop into full plant. This property of the plant cell is called

  1. Tissue culture
  2. Totipotency
  3. Pleuripotency
  4. Gene cloning

Answer: 2. Totipotency

Question 3. Production of plant without fertilization is done by

  1. Vegetative propagation
  2. Transplantation
  3. Grafting
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Vegetative propagation

Question 4. Cultivation ofbt cotton has been much the news. The prefi “bt” means

  1. “Barium-treated” cotton seeds
  2. “Bigger thread” variety of cotton with better tensile strength
  3. Production by “biotechnology” using restriction enzymes and ligases
  4. Carrying an endotoxin gene from bacillus thuringiensis

Answer: 4. Carrying an endotoxin gene from bacillus thuringiensis

Question 5. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in

  1. Drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
  2. An increased production offih due to lot ofnutrient
  3. Death offih due to lack ofoxygen
  4. Increased population of aquatic web organism

Answer: 3. Death offih due to lack ofoxygen

Question 6. Birds specially chicken grown for meat only is known as

  1. Hybrid
  2. Broiler
  3. Bird management
  4. Bird culture

Answer: 2. Broiler

7. In poultry industry, production of hatching eggs is more expensive than the production of market eggs mainly because

  1. Cost of males and their depreciation value is high
  2. Mortality among females is usually lower when they are mated with males
  3. Number of eggs produced by hatchery flck are to be sold only as market eggs
  4. Some ofthe eggs produced by hatchery flcks are not acceptable for incubation

Answer: 4. Some ofthe eggs produced by hatchery flcks are not acceptable for incubation

Question 8. Silkworm silk is the product of

  1. The salivary gland of the larva
  2. Cutical of the adult
  3. Cuticle of the larva
  4. Salivary gland of the adult

Answer: 1. Salivary gland of the larva

Question 9. If the source is opposite to the direction of sun, then honey bee will convey the direction by

  1. Clockwise round dance
  2. Upright down tail wagging dance
  3. Anticlockwise round dance
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Upright down tail wagging dance

Question 10. First commercial pesticide was

  1. Ddt
  2. 2,4-D
  3. Burgandy mixture
  4. Bordeaux mixture

Answer: 4. Bordeaux mixture

Question 11. The major drawback of DDT as a pesticide is that

  1. Organisms at once develop resistance to it
  2. It is signifiantly less effective than other pesticides
  3. Its cost of production is high
  4. It is not easily and rapidly degraded in nature

Answer: 3. Its cost of production is high

Question 12. Nobel prize was awarded to paul muller on the discovery of which of the following pesticides

  1. Malathion
  2. Parathion
  3. Pyrethrum
  4. Ddt

Answer: 4. Ddt

Question 13. The carnivorous fish gamusia, introduced in the lakes, ponds, etc., Control a deadly disease in india, feeds on the larvae of

  1. Nephantis
  2. Dragonfly
  3. Anopheles
  4. All of these

Answer: 3. Anopheles

Question 14. Fish which eradicates the mosquito larvae, is

  1. Anabus
  2. Rohu
  3. Gambusia
  4. Cutter fih

Answer: 3. Gambusia

Question 15. Biological control of agricultural pests, unlike the chemical control, is

  1. Toxic
  2. Polluting
  3. Very expensive
  4. Self-perpetuating

Answer: 4. Self-perpetuating

Question 16. Which of the following plants are used as green manure in crop filds and in sandy soils

  1. Dicanthium annulatum and azolla pinnata
  2. Crotalaria junecea and alhagi camelorum
  3. Calotropis procera and pitylanthus niruri
  4. Saccharum munja and lantana camara

Answer: 2. Crotalaria junecea and alhagi camelorum

Question 17. Which one of the following is a biofertilizer?

  1. Vam
  2. Sporeine
  3. Devine
  4. Agent orange

Answer: 1. Vam

Question 18. Which one of the following is an improved variety of wheat ?

  1. 77
  2. Sonalika
  3. Chandramukhi
  4. Kuber

Answer: 2. Sonalika

Question 19. Which of the following is not used for crop improvement?

  1. Inbreeding
  2. Introduction
  3. Hybridization
  4. Mutations

Answer: 1. Inbreeding

Question 20. In high yielding ‘hybrid crop varieties’ to exploit hybrid vigour, the farmers need to purchase fresh hybrid seen every year, because

  1. They are not allowed to grow their own seed
  2. The hybrid vigour is lost due to inbreeding depression
  3. The government of india has accepted dunkel’s proposals
  4. It is cheaper to purchase fresh seed

Answer: 2. The hybrid vigour is lost due to inbreeding depression

Question 21. Which of the following is a rabi cereal ?

  1. Bajra
  2. Jawar
  3. Wheat
  4. All the above

Answer: 1. Wheat

Question 22. Maize belongs to

  1. Cereals
  2. Millets
  3. Pulses
  4. Oil crop

Answer: 1. Cereals

Question 23. The most important cereal at world level is

  1. Wheat
  2. Maize
  3. Rice
  4. Oat

Answer: 3. Rice

Question 24. One of the plant introduced from new world to the old world

  1. Wheat
  2. Potato
  3. Rice
  4. Sugarcane

Answer: 2. Potato

Question 25. The principal cereal crop in india is

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Maize
  4. Sorghum

Answer: 2. Rice

Question 26. The cheapest high-energy fruit crop of india is

  1. Banana
  2. Guava
  3. Apple
  4. Mango

Answer: 1. Banana

Question 27. Cereals are major sources of

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Proteins
  3. Fats
  4. Vitamins

Answer: 1. Carbohydrates

Question 28. The main source of food and fodder is

  1. Lichen
  2. Cereals
  3. Fungus
  4. Cotton

Answer: 2. Cereals

Question 29. Roughages includes

  1. Cereals
  2. Millets
  3. Abundant fires
  4. Broken grams

Answer: 3. Abundant fires

Question 30. Livestock refers to

  1. Pet animals
  2. Poultry and pet animals
  3. Domestic animals that are kept for use or profit
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Domestic animals which are kept for use or profit

Question 31. Viral diseases of animals include

  1. Cephalitis, blue tongue, foot and mouth disease
  2. Bluetongue, foot and mouth disease, rinderpest, rabies
  3. Bluetongue, rinderpest, cephalitis, rabies
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Bluetongue, foot and mouth disease, rinderpest, rabies

Question 32. Domestication of silk work is called

  1. Sericulture
  2. Pisciculture
  3. Apiculture
  4. Horticulture

Answer: 1. Sericulture

Question 33. Honey is

  1. Nector of flwer
  2. Nectar is stored in the honey sac.
  3. Nectar mixed with saliva and stored in honey sac
  4. Nectar and water sucked by the honey bee.

Answer: 3. Nectar mixed with saliva and stored in honey sac

Question 34. Number of queens in a hive is

  1. 20
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 1

Answer: 4. 1

Question 35. The honey bees exhibit bees exhibit a type of dance to communicate the location of food. This is known as

  1. Waggle dance
  2. Tap dance
  3. Round dance and waggle dance
  4. Breakdance

Answer: 3. Round dance and waggle dance

Question 36. Which one of the following insects produces honey ?

  1. Antherae paphia
  2. Apis indica
  3. Kerria lacca
  4. Bombyx mori

Answer: 2. Apis indica

Question 37. Nutritional diet of poultry birds includes

  1. Cereals, oil cakes, milk cakes, green vegetables
  2. Millets, proteins, oil cakes only
  3. Cereals, millets, proteins, oil cakes, green vegetables
  4. Proteins, oil cakes, cereals only

Answer: 3. Cereals, millets , proteins, oil cakes, green vegetables

Question 38. Pesticides are the chemicals that kill

  1. Weeds
  2. Mites
  3. Insects
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 39. Most common pesticides used in the crops are

  1. Bhc, aldrin, malathion, pyrethrin
  2. Aldrin, malathion, lead arsinate, sodium floride
  3. Aldrin, malathion, sodium arsinate, lead arsinate
  4. Cryolite, aldrin, pyrethrin
  5. Answer: 1. Bhc, aldrin, malathion, pyrethrin

Question 40. The most common pesticide used in india is

  1. Baygon
  2. Bhc
  3. Ddt
  4. Endrin

Answer: 2. Bhc

Question 41. A green manure is

  1. Rice
  2. Sorghum
  3. Maize
  4. Sesbania

Answer: 4. Sesbania

Question 42. Biofertilizer include

  1. Nitrogen fiing bacteria
  2. Nitrogen fiing cyanobacteria
  3. Both bacteria and cyanobacteria
  4. Bacteria, cyanobacteria and mycorrhizal fungi

Answer: 4. Bacteria, cyanobacteria and mycorrhizal fungi

Question 43. Crop rotation is carried out for

  1. Increasing acidity of soil
  2. Decreasing fertility of soil
  3. Increasing fertility of soil
  4. All the above

Answer: 3. Increasing fertility of soil

Question 44. Ipm (integrated pest management) involves

  1. Biological control
  2. Pesticides
  3. Confusion technique
  4. Biofertilizers

Answer: 4. Biofertilizers

Question 45. Latest trend in plant disease control is

  1. Chemical control
  2. Biological control
  3. Good manure and fertilizer
  4. Breeding for disease resistance

Answer: 2. Biological control

Question 46. The use of fertilizers in farming is an example of

  1. No-cost production
  2. Low cost-production
  3. High-cost production
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Low cost-production

Question 47. Pasturage is related to

  1. Cattle
  2. Fihery
  3. Apiculture
  4. Poultry

Answer: 3. Apiculture

Question 48. Mullets, bhetki, pearl spots, prawns, mussels are the example of

  1. Marine fihes
  2. Fresh water fihes
  3. Fined fihes
  4. Shell fih

Answer: 1. Marine fihes

Question 49. Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium are examples of

  1. Micro-nutrients
  2. Macronutrients
  3. Fertilizer
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Macronutrients

Question 50. Which one of the following is not a milch breed of cattle?

  1. Sahiwal
  2. Malvi
  3. Tharparkar
  4. Red sindhi

Answer: 2. Malvi

Question 51. Which of the following constituent of honey acts as preservative ?

  1. Formic acid
  2. Pantothenic acid
  3. Dextrin
  4. Pyridoxin

Answer: 1. Formic acid

Question 52. The drones in honey bee are

  1. Sterile male
  2. Fertile male
  3. Sterite female
  4. Fertile female

Answer: 2. Fertile male

Question 53. Which one ofthe following is not a marine fih?

  1. Tuna
  2. Salmon
  3. Sardine
  4. Mrigal

Answer: 4. Mrigal

Question 54. Silver revolution is related to

  1. Egg production
  2. Milk production
  3. Grain production
  4. Meat production

Answer: 1. Egg production

Question 55. Which one ofthe following is an exotic fih variety?

  1. Silver carp
  2. Rohu
  3. Catla
  4. Mangur

Answer: 1. Silver carp

Question 56. Which of the following cattle food is included in ‘concentrates’.?

  1. Berseem
  2. Green fodder
  3. Hay
  4. Cotton seeds

Answer: 4. Cotton seeds

Question 57. Which one is an oil yielding plant among the following?

  1. Lentil
  2. Sunflwer
  3. Cauliflwer
  4. Hibiscus

Answer: 2. Sunflwer

Question 58. To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is necessary?

  1. Increased production and storage of food grains
  2. Easy access of people to the food grain
  3. People should have money to purchase the grains
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 59. Which one is not a source of carbohydrate?

  1. Rice
  2. Millets
  3. Sorghum
  4. Gram

Answer: 4. Gram

Question 60. When both crops and livestock are raised on the same farm, it is known as

  1. Mixed farming
  2. Mixed cropping
  3. Inter cropping
  4. Crop rotation

Answer: 1. Mixed farming

Question 61. The technique of growing two or more different crops together in the same fild is known as

  1. Mixed cropping
  2. Mixed farming
  3. Inter-cropping
  4. Crop rotation

Answer: 1. Mixed cropping

Question 62. Rhizobium is present in

  1. Soil
  2. Root nodules of legumes
  3. Stem nodules
  4. Tumours of leaf

Answer: 2. Root nodules of legumes

Question 63. Milk does not provide

  1. Vitamins a and d
  2. Minerals like phosphorus and calcium
  3. Iron
  4. Carbohydrates, proteins and fats

Answer: 3. Iron

Question 64. Opuntia weed can be eradicated by

  1. Gambusia
  2. Cochineal isect
  3. Grass carp
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 2. Cochineal isect

Question 65. What is the pulse rate of buffalo/minute?

  1. 40-45 Min.
  2. 16-18 Min.
  3. 70-72 Min.
  4. 40-60 Min.

Answer: 1. 40-45 Min.

Question 66. The fistexperimentin artifiial insemination was performed by

  1. Spallanzani
  2. Berzelius
  3. Linneaus
  4. Aristotle

Answer: 1. Spallanzani

Question 67. Kranti, pusa agarni and pusa bold are improved varieties

  1. Urad bean
  2. Sunflwer
  3. Chick pea
  4. Mustard

Answer: 4. Mustard

Question 68. The poultry birds groomed for obtaining meat are called

  1. Layers
  2. Broilers
  3. Pork
  4. Growers

Answer: 2. Broilers

Question 69. Which one of the following is micro-nutrients?

  1. Phosphorus
  2. Potassium
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Boron

Answer: 4. Boron

Question 70. Gundhy bug is a pest of

  1. Rice
  2. Mustard
  3. Wheat
  4. Groundnut

Answer: 1. Rice

Question 71. Sustainable agriculture involves

  1. Mixed cropping
  2. Crop rotation
  3. Mixed farming
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 72. Which of the following poultry bird lays maximum number of eggs annually?

  1. Ils-82
  2. B-77
  3. Hh-260
  4. Ibl-80

Answer: 3. Hh-260

Question 73. Iodine solution is the solution of

  1. Pure iodine
  2. Potassium iodide solution
  3. Iodine and potassium iodide solution
  4. Iodine and potassium dichromate solution

Answer: 3. Iodine and potassium iodide solution

Question 74. A solution was dropped over a slice of potato. It turned blue-black. The solution was

  1. Iodine solution
  2. Metanil solution
  3. Benedict’s solution
  4. Hcl

Answer: 1. Iodine solution

Question 75. Besides iodine which other chemical is used to test starch?

  1. Safranin
  2. Methylene blue
  3. Eosine
  4. Hcl

Answer: 1. Safranin

Question 76. An adulterant ofarhar (tuhar) dal is

  1. Brick powder
  2. Metanil yellow
  3. Kesari dal
  4. Gram dal

Answer: 2. Metanil yellow

Question 77. Metanil yellow causes

  1. Stomach ulcer
  2. Diarrhoea
  3. Cancer
  4. Paralysis

Answer: 4. Paralysis

Question 48. Mullets, bhetki, pearl spots, prawns, and mussels are the example of

  1. Agmark
  2. Isi
  3. Nafed
  4. Hafed

Answer: 1. Agmark

Question 79. Wetting arhar/tuar dal with water makes the latter yellow because of

  1. Yellow powder of
  2. Yellow pigment from dal
  3. Adulterant metanil
  4. Kesari dal

Answer: 3. Adulterant metanil

Question 80. The culture ofmarine fi fih is called

  1. Mariculture
  2. Pisciculture
  3. Aquaculture
  4. None

Answer: 1. Mariculture

Question 81. Which one of the following is not a weed?

  1. Xanthium
  2. Amaranthus
  3. Chenopodium
  4. Finger millet

Answer: 4. Figer millet

Question 82. Poultry farming is undertaken for

  1. Egg and feather production
  2. Feather and chicken meat
  3. Egg and chicken meat
  4. Milk and egg

Answer: 3. Egg and chicken meat

Question 83. Which one of the following combinations are most suitable for composite fih culture?

  1. Surface feeders and bottom feeders
  2. Middle zone feeders and bottom feeders
  3. Surface feeders only
  4. Surface feeders, middle zone feeders and bottom feeders

Answer: 4. Surface feeders, middle zone feeders, and bottom feeders

Question 84. Which one of the following is an Italian bee variety?

  1. Apis mellifera
  2. Apis dorsata
  3. Apis flrae
  4. Apis cerana indica

Answer: 1. Apis mellifera

Question 85. Potato tuber wash and iodine solution placed together change their color to

  1. Blue-black
  2. Blue
  3. Brick-red
  4. Magenta

Answer: 1. Blue-black

NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 4 Why Do We Fall Ill Multiple Choice Question And Answers

by

Why Do We Fall Ill Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: This section contains multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), and out of which only one is correct.

Question 1. AIDS is caused by

  1. Blood cancer
  2. HTLV-III
  3. Bacterium
  4. TMV

Answer: 2. HTLV-III

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. Passive immunity was discovered by

  1. Robert Koch
  2. L. Pasteur
  3. Edward Jenner
  4. Eemil Von Behring

Answer: 2. L. Pasteur

Question 3. Vaccines are prepared from immune

  1. Vitamins
  2. Blood
  3. Serum
  4. Plasma

Answer: 4. Plasma

Question 4. Which one of the following pairs of diseases can spread through blood transfusion?

  1. Cholera and hepatitis
  2. Hepatitis and AIDS
  3. Diabetes mellitus and malaria
  4. Hay fever and AIDS

Answer: 2. Hepatitis and AIDS

Question 5. The term “antibiotic” was coined by

  1. Alexander flming
  2. Edward Jenner
  3. Louis Pasteur
  4. Selman Waksman

Answer: 4. Selman waksman

Question 6. Antibodies are produced by

  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Thrombocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Lymphocytes

Answer: 4. Lymphocytes

Question 7. B.C.G. vaccine is used against

  1. T.B.
  2. Leprosy
  3. Food Poisoning
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. T.B.

Question 8. DPT vaccine is given for

  1. Tetanus, Polio, Plague
  2. Diptheria, Whooping Cough, And Leprosy
  3. Diptheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus
  4. Diptheria, whooping cough, tetanus

Answer: 4. Diptheria, whooping cough, tetanus

Question 9. Active immunity is obtained by

  1. Antibodies
  2. Weakened Germs Infection
  3. Natural Resistance
  4. None Of these

Answer: 2. Weakened Germs Infection

Question 10. Which is an auto-immune disease?

  1. Cancer
  2. Asthma
  3. Erythroblastosis foetalis
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: 3. Erythroblastosis foetalis

Question 11. ‘Polio’ is caused by

  1. A Bacteriophage
  2. A Virus With Single Strand Rna
  3. A Virus With Single Strand DNA
  4. A Virus with double-strand DNA

Answer: 2. A Virus With Single Strand Rna

Question 12. The Jaundice is a physiological liver disease. It is caused by a

  1. Bacterium
  2. Virus
  3. Protozoan
  4. Helminth

Answer: 2. Virus

Question 13. Which of the following disease is not transmitted by house flies?

  1. Typhoid
  2. Yellow fever
  3. Cholera
  4. Dysentery

Answer: 2. Yellow fever

Question 14. Cholera is caused by

  1. Virus
  2. Bacteria
  3. Fungi
  4. Protozoan

Answer: 2. Bacteria

Question 15. The Malignant tertian malaria is caused by

  1. Plasmodium vivax
  2. Plasmodium falciparum
  3. Plasmodium ovale
  4. Plasmodium malaria

Answer: 2. Plasmodium falciparum

Question 16. All diseases are spread by housefuls except

  1. Leprosy
  2. Dysentery
  3. Typhoid
  4. Sleeping sickness

Answer: 4. Sleeping sickness

Question 17. Kala-azar is used and transmitted respectively by

  1. Leishmania and Phlebatomus
  2. Trypanosoma and sand fl
  3. Leishmania and tsetse fl
  4. Trypanosoma and Glossina palpalis

Answer: 1. Leishmania and Phlebatomus

Question 18. Fever in malaria is due to

  1. Entry Of Sporozoites Into Blood Capillaries
  2. Entry Of Merozoites Into Liver Cells
  3. Release Of Merozoites From Red Blood Cells
  4. Entry Of Cryptomerozoites Into Red Blood Cells

Answer: 3. Release Of Merozoites From Red Blood Cells

Question 19. Cancer is related to

  1. Uncontrolled Growth Of Tissues
  2. Non-Malignant Tumor
  3. Controlled Division Of Tissues
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Uncontrolled Growth Of Tissues

Question 20. Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide which

  1. Reduces The Oxygen-Carrying Capacity Of Blood
  2. Causes Gastric Ulcers
  3. Raises Blood Pressure
  4. Is Carcinogenic

Answer: 1. Reduces The Oxygen-Carrying Capacity Of Blood

Question 21. A group of viral borne disease is

  1. Gepatities And Typhoid
  2. Polio And Dengue
  3. Rabies And Tetanus
  4. Measles and cholera

Answer: 2. Polio And Dengue

Question 22. Mosquito is not a vector for a disease in the following

  1. Malaria
  2. Typhoid
  3. Dengu
  4. Elephantitis

Answer: 2. Typhoid

Question 23. Health is

  1. Complete Physical well-being
  2. Mental Well Being
  3. Social Well Being
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 24. Community health aims at

  1. Better health and family planning
  2. Better hygiene and a clean environment
  3. Removing communicable diseases
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 25. ‘Pathogens’ were discovered by

  1. Edward Jenner
  2. William Harvey
  3. Pasteur
  4. Robert Koch

Answer: 4. Robert Koch

Question 26. A scientist associated with ‘antibiotics’ is

  1. Brown
  2. Flemming
  3. Leeuwenhoek
  4. Koch

Answer: 2. Flemming

Question 27. An antibody is

  1. Molecule That Specifically Inactivates An Antigen
  2. WBC Which Invades Bacteria
  3. Secretion Of Mammalian RBC
  4. Component of blood

Answer: 1. Molecule That Specifically Inactivates An Antigen

Question 28. ‘AIDS’ stands for

  1. Anto immune deficiency syndrome
  2. Auto immune deficiency syndrome
  3. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
  4. Acquired immune disease syndrome

Answer: 3. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

Question 29. The AIDS test is known as

  1. ELISA
  2. Australian antigen
  3. HIV test
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. ELISA

Question 30. Which of the following is a communicable disease?

  1. Phenylketoneuria
  2. Cancer
  3. Rabies
  4. Alkaptonuria

Answer: 3. Rabies

Question 31. The biological agents of disease included

  1. Binerals, Vitamins, Proteins And Carbohydrates
  2. Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, Helminths And Other Organisms
  3. Heat, Cold, Humidity Pressure, Radiations
  4. All The above

Answer: 2. Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, Helminths And Other Organisms

Question 32. Tuberculosis is caused by

Bacterium

Virus

Protozoan

Malnutrition

Answer: 1. Bacterium

Question 33. ‘Plague’ is transmitted by

  1. House fl
  2. Tse-tse fl
  3. Rat file
  4. Mosquito

Answer: 3. Rat file

Question 34. ‘Black Death’ is related with

  1. Plague
  2. Cancer
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Measles

Answer: 1. Plague

Question 35. Cholera, leprosy, and diphtheria are

  1. Bacteria Diseases
  2. Viral Diseases
  3. Fungal Diseases
  4. Functional Diseases

Answer: 1. Bacteria Diseases

Question 36. Which disease is caused by a flagellate?

  1. Sleeping sickness
  2. Dysentery
  3. Whooping cough
  4. Jaundice

Answer: 1. Sleeping sickness

Question 37. Cancer can be caused by the use of

  1. Tobacco
  2. Alcohol
  3. Opium
  4. LSD

Answer: 1. Tobacco

Question 38. Dilation of blood vessels, increase in fat synthesis, low blood sugar, and inflammation of stomach are due to the consumption of

  1. Tobacco
  2. Drug Addition
  3. Alcohol
  4. Tobacco and drug addiction

Answer: 3. Alcohol

Question 39. Which of the following are intimately related?

  1. Disease and health
  2. Body and health
  3. Body and mind
  4. Body and spiritual values

Answer: 3. Body and mind

Question 40. The group of diseases spread by houseflies is

  1. Malaria, Cholera, Scabies
  2. Abies, Rickets, Diarrhoea
  3. Typhoid, Dysentery, Tuberculosis
  4. Ingworm, Scurvy, Vomiting

Answer: 3. Yphoid, Dysentery, Tuberculosis

Question 41. In order to prevent the spreading of a communicable disease like Cholera it is necessary to

  1. Control The Population Of Mosquitoes
  2. Ry Up All Ponds In The Neighborhood
  3. Educate People To Drink Boiled Water And Not To Eat Exposed Food
  4. Prevent Others From Coming In Contact With The Diseased Person

Answer: 3. Educate People To Drink Boiled Water And Not To Eat Exposed Food

Question 42. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Mallpox
  3. Owl Cholera
  4. Alf diphtheria

Answer: 2. Mallpox

Question 43. Tuberculosis is a disease caused by

  1. Acteria
  2. Irus
  3. Protozoan
  4. Malnutrition

Answer: 1. Acteria

Question 44. Which of the following can be used for the biological control of mosquitoes?

  1. Oil
  2. Ointments
  3. DDT
  4. Gambusia

Answer: 4. Gambusia

Question 45. Fevers

  1. Decrease Interferon Production.
  2. Decrease The Concentration Of Iron In The Blood.
  3. Decrease The Activity Of Phagocytes.
  4. Increase the reproduction rate of invading bacteria.

Answer: 2. Decrease The Concentration Of Iron In The Blood.

Question 46. ‘Smallpox’ (Variola) disease is caused by

  1. Virus
  2. Bacterium
  3. Protozoan
  4. Mosquito

Answer: 1. Virus

Question 47. Pulse-Polio programme is organised in our country

  1. To Cure Polio
  2. To Eradicate Polio
  3. To Spread Polio
  4. None Of these.

Answer: 2. To Eradicate Polio

Question 48. The vector for causing sleeping sickness in men is

  1. House Fl
  2. Mosquito
  3. Tse-Tse Fl
  4. Butter fl

Answer: 3. Tse-Tse Fl

Question 49. Examples of congenital diseases are

  1. Alkaptonuria, albinism
  2. Albinism, sickle cell anemia
  3. Hemophilia
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 50. Arteether is the latest drug for

  1. Polio
  2. Malaria
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Common cold

Answer: 2. Malaria

Question 51. Hydrophobia occurs during

  1. Tetanus
  2. Rabies
  3. Polio
  4. Cholera

Answer: 2. Rabies

Question 52. The primary organ affected by tuberculosis is

  1. Bone Marrow
  2. Spleen
  3. Intestine
  4. Lungs

Answer: 4. Lungs

Question 53. The diseases that can be transmitted through body fluid only are

  1. TB and cholera
  2. Typhoid And Cholera
  3. Cholera And Rabies
  4. AIDS and hepatitis B

Answer: 4. AIDS and hepatitis B

Question 54. BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Typhoid
  3. AIDS
  4. Cholera

Answer: 1. Tuberculosis

Question 55. World AIDS Day is celebrated on

  1. 5th June
  2. 1st October
  3. 11th July
  4. 1st December

Answer: 4. 1st December

Question 56. If you live in an overcrowded and poorly ventilated house, it is possible that you may suffer from which of the following diseases

  1. Cancer
  2. AIDS
  3. Air Borne Diseases
  4. Cholera

Answer: 3. Air Borne Diseases

Question 57. The interval between infection and the appearance of a disease is known as

  1. Inoculation
  2. Penetration
  3. Infection Period
  4. Incubation period

Answer: 4. Incubation period

Question 58. Microbes that generally enter the body through the nose are likely to affect

  1. Gut
  2. Lungs
  3. Liver
  4. Lymph nodes

Answer: 2. Lungs

Question 59. Which of the following is a mismatch?

  1. AIDS – Bacterial infection
  2. Polio – Viral infection
  3. Malaria – Protozoan infection
  4. Elephantiasis – Helminth infection

Answer: 1. AIDS – Bacterial infection

Question 60. The type of disease that begins abruptly, affects a patient’s normal functioning but lasts for a short duration is termed as

  1. Chronic Disease
  2. Acute Disease
  3. Hormonal Disease
  4. Deficiency disease

Answer: 2. Acute Disease

Question 61. Goitre is related with

  1. Vitamin A
  2. Florine
  3. Iodine
  4. Pancreas

Answer: 3. Iodine

Question 62. An animal that transmits a disease from an infected person or its stools etc. to another potential host is called

  1. Primary Host
  2. Secondary Host
  3. Parasite
  4. Vector

Answer: 4. Vector

Question 63. Which one of the following has a long-term effect on the health of an individual?

  1. Common cold
  2. Chickenpox
  3. Chewing tobacco
  4. Stress.

Answer: 3. Chewing tobacco

Question 64. We should not allow mosquitoes to breed in our surroundings because they

  1. Multiply Very Fast And Cause Pollution
  2. Are Vectors For Many Diseases
  3. Bite And Cause Skin Diseases
  4. Are Not important insects

Answer: 2. Are Vectors For Many Diseases

Question 65. Making anti-viral drugs is more difficult than making antibacterial medicines because

  1. Virus Make Use Of Host Machinery
  2. Viruses Are On The Border Line Of Living And Nonliving
  3. Viruses Have Few Biochemical Mechanisms Of Their Own
  4. Viruses Have A Protein Coat

Answer: 3. Viruses Have Few Biochemical Mechanisms Of Their Own

Question 66. Which one of the following diseases is caused by protozoans?

  1. Malaria
  2. Influenza
  3. AIDS
  4. Cholera

Answer: 1. Malaria

Question 67. Which one of the following is not important for individual health?

  1. Living in a clean space
  2. Good economic condition
  3. Social equality and harmony
  4. Living in a large and well-furnished house

Answer: 4. Living in a large and well-furnished house

Question 68. Vectors can be defined as

  1. Animals Carry The Infecting Agents From a Sick Person To Another Healthy Person
  2. Microorganisms That Cause Many Diseases
  3. Infected Person
  4. Diseased plants

Answer: 1. Animals Carry The Infecting Agents From Sick Person To Another Healthy Person

Question 69. The disease caused due to worms is

  1. Tetanus
  2. Rabies
  3. Sleeping Sickness
  4. Fiariasis

Answer: 4. Fiariasis

Question 70. Penicillin is a drug that can

  1. Interfere In The Biological Pathway Of Bacteria
  2. An Antibiotic That Can Kill Bacteria
  3. Interfere In The Biological Pathways Of Virus
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Interfere In The Biological Pathways Of Virus

Question 71. Which one of the following is attacked by the HIV virus?

  1. Red-blood cell
  2. White-blood cells
  3. Liver cell
  4. Long cell

Answer: 2. Liver cell

Question 72. Trypanosoma, Leishmania, and Plasmodium are the examples of

  1. Virus
  2. Bacteria
  3. Protozoa
  4. Worm

Answer: 3. Protozoa

Question 73. The pathogens of disease are

  1. Bacteria
  2. Virus
  3. Protozoa
  4. All Of the above

Answer: 4. All Of the above

Question 74. Diarrhea, cholera, and typhoid, are diseases that have one thing in common, that is

  1. All Of Them Are Caused By Bacteria
  2. All Of Them Are Transmitted By Contaminated Food And Water.
  3. All Of Them Are Cure By Antibiotics
  4. All Of the above

Answer: 4. All Of the above

Question 75. The commonest antimalarial drug is obtained from

  1. Roots Of Cinchona Tree
  2. Bark Of Cinchona Tree
  3. Leaf Of Cinchona Tree
  4. Any Part Of The Plant.

Answer: 2. Bark Of Cinchona Tree

Question 76. The vaccine is not available against which of the following diseases?

  1. Polio
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Malaria

Answer: 4. Malaria

Question 77. In chronic disease-patient suffers from

  1. Poor Appetite
  2. Short Breath
  3. Tiredness
  4. All The above.

Answer: 4. All The above

Question 78. Tuberculosis can be prevented through vaccination with

  1. MMR
  2. BCG
  3. Hib
  4. TAB

Answer: 2. BCG

Question 79. Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?

  1. Allergy
  2. Malaria
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Tuberculosis.

Answer: 1. Allergy

Question 80. Ascaris lumbricoides is a common roundworm of

  1. Large Intestine
  2. Liver
  3. Bile Duct
  4. Small Intestine

Answer: 4. Small Intestine

Question 81. The droplet method of transmission of the disease is found in

  1. Common cold
  2. AIDS
  3. Hepatitis
  4. Syphilis

Answer: 1. Common cold

Question 82. A chronic disease is

  1. Hypertension
  2. Typhoid
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Kala-Azar

Answer: 1. Hypertension

NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 3 Diversity in Living Organism Multiple Choice Question And Answers

by

Diversity in Living Organism Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: This section contains multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices , , and out of which Only One is correct.

Question 1. Species is

  1. Not Related To Evolution
  2. Specific Class Ofevolution
  3. Specific Unit Ofevolution
  4. Fertile specific unit in the evolutionary history ofa race

Answer: 4. Fertile specific unit in the evolutionary history ofa race

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. Binomial system refers to

  1. One Name
  2. One International Name
  3. One Generic And One Specific Name
  4. None above

Answer: 3. One Generic And One Specific Name

Question 3. Two words comprising binomial nomenclature are

  1. Family And Genus
  2. Order And Family
  3. Genus And Species
  4. Species And Variety

Answer: 3. Genus And Species

Question 4. Maximum diversity is seen amongst

  1. Monera
  2. Animalia
  3. Plantae
  4. Protista

Answer: 2. Animalia

Question 5. System of classification used by Linnaeus was

  1. Natural System
  2. Artifiial System
  3. Phylogeneric System
  4. Asexual system

Answer: 2. Artifiial System

Question 6. The book ‘Origin of Species’ was written by

  1. Lamarck
  2. Darwin
  3. Wallace
  4. Oparin

Answer: 2. Darwin

Question 7.Which one of the following phyla has maximum species?

  1. Annelida
  2. Mollusca
  3. Arthropoda
  4. Echinodermata

Answer: 3. Arthropoda

Question 8. The latest classification of biological kingdom has been contributed by

  1. Whittaker
  2. Darwin
  3. Haeckel
  4. Linnaeus

Answer: 1. Whittaker

Question 9. Which of the followings are correct order of hierarchy?

  1. Kingdom, division, phylum, genus and species
  2. Phylum, division, genus, and class
  3. Kingdom, genus, class, phylum, and division
  4. Phylum, kingdom, genus, species and class

Answer: 1. Kingdom, division, phylum, genus, and species

Question 10. The five kingdom classification was given by

  1. Whittaker (1969)
  2. Linnaeus (1758)
  3. Copeland (1966)
  4. Haeckel (1866)

Answer: 1. Whittaker (1969)

Question 11. Who was the first to describe that species is the unit of classification?

  1. John Ray
  2. Huxley
  3. Linnaeus
  4. Candolle

Answer: 1. John Ray

Question 12. Species are considered as

  1. Real Basic Units Of classification
  2. The Lowest Units Of classification
  3. Artifiial Concept Of Human Mind Which Cannot Be Defined In Absolute Terms
  4. Real units of classification devised by taxonomists

Answer: 1. Real Basic Units Of classification

Question 13. Mitochondria are absent in

  1. Green Algae
  2. Brown Algae
  3. Cynobacteria And Bacteria
  4. All above

Answer: 3. Cynobacteria And Bacteria

Question 14. Spirogyra is found in

  1. Stagnant Fresh Water
  2. Fresh Running Water
  3. Salty Water
  4. Sea

Answer: 1. Stagnant Fresh Water

Question 15. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in having

  1. Archegonia
  2. Motile Sperms
  3. Vascular Tissues
  4. Antheridia

Answer: 3. Vascular Tissues

Question 16. Bryopytes differ from algae in having

  1. Archegonium
  2. Thalloid Body
  3. Chlorophyll A
  4. Carotenoids

Answer: 1. Archegonium

Question 17. Bryophytes are dependent on water because

  1. Archegonium Has To Remain Filled With Water For Fertilization.
  2. Water Is Essential For Fertilization For Their Homosporous Nature.
  3. Water Is Essential For Their Vegetative Progagation.
  4. The sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium.

Answer: 4. The sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium.

Question 18. Bryophytes are characterized by

  1. Multicellular Jacketed Archegonia.
  2. Thalloid Body.
  3. Dominant Gametophyte And Partial Parasitic Sporophytic.
  4. All above

Answer: 4. All above

Question 19. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the

  1. Cytoplasm Of Chlorella
  2. Mycelium Of A Green Mould Such As Aspergillus
  3. Spore Capsule Of A Moss
  4. Pollen tube of pinus

Answer: 3. Spore Capsule Of A Moss

Question 20. ‘Sanjeevani booti’ is

  1. Selaginella kraussiana
  2. Selaginella chrysocaulos
  3. Selaginella bryopteris
  4. None above

Answer: 3. Selaginella bryopteris

Question 21. Which of the following are absent in gymnosperms?

  1. Xylem vessels
  2. Xylem fires
  3. Tracheids and fires
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Xylem vessels

Question 22. Angiosperms have

  1. Tracheids And Vessels
  2. Tracheids Only
  3. Vessels Only
  4. Tracheids and albuminous cells

Answer: 1. Tracheids And Vessels

Question 23. Botanical name of tea is

  1. Piper nigrum
  2. Thea/Camellia sinensis
  3. Coffea arabica
  4. Tectona grandis

Answer: 2. Thea/Camellia sinensis

Question 24. Venus flower basket belongs to

  1. Arthropoda
  2. Cnidaria
  3. Porifera
  4. Archelminthes

Answer: 3. Porifera

Question 25. Sponges have originated from

  1. Ciliate Protozoans
  2. Sporozoan Protozoans
  3. Sarcodine Protozoans
  4. Choanoflagellates protozoans

Answer: 4. Choanoflgellate protozoans

Question 26. Porifers are

  1. Generally Marine, But Few Are Found In Fresh Water.
  2. Generally Found In Fresh Water, But Few Are Marine
  3. All Are Marine
  4. All Are Found In Fresh Water

Answer: 1. Generally Marine, But Few Are Found In Fresh Water.

Question 27. Cavity that helps circulation and digestion is found in

  1. Sponges
  2. Cnidarians
  3. Annelida
  4. Round-worms

Answer: 2. Cnidarians

Question 28. Chenopodium oil is most successfully used for the expulsion of

  1. Tape Worm
  2. Live Flkes
  3. Flt Worms
  4. Round-worms

Answer: 4. Round-worms

Question 29. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. Water-vascular system – sponge
  2. Flame cell – flt worm
  3. Bludder – kangroo
  4. Marsupium – platypus

Answer: 2. Flame cell – flt worm

Question 30. Which is not a feature of Annelida?

  1. Metameric segmentation
  2. Nephridia
  3. Pseudocoelom
  4. Clitellum

Answer: 3. Pseudocoelom

Question 31. Bacteria flgella is made up of

  1. Protein
  2. Amines
  3. Lipids
  4. Carbohydrates

Answer: 1. Protein

Question 32.Which of the following is an edible ‘Fungi’?

  1. Mucor
  2. Penicellium
  3. Agaricus
  4. Rhizopus

Answer: 3. Agaricus

Question 33. Symmetry in Cnidaria is

  1. Radial
  2. Bilateral
  3. Pentamerous
  4. Spherical

Answer: 1. Radial

Question 34. The group of animals belonging to phylum protozoa is

  1. Paramaecium and Leucosolenia
  2. Hydra and Amoeba
  3. Euglena and Ascaris
  4. Paramaecium and Plasmodium

Answer: 4. Paramaecium and Plasmodium

Question 35. Plants that grow in the desert are called

  1. Hydrophytes
  2. Mesophytes
  3. Xerophytes
  4. Epiphytes

Answer: 3. Xerophytes

Question 36. Which one of the following is a basic unit of classification?

  1. Genus
  2. Species
  3. Both Genus And Species
  4. None Of The Above

Answer: 2. Species

Question 37. The generic name of mango is

  1. Magnifera indica
  2. Helminthosporium oryzae
  3. Solanum tuberosum
  4. Lycopersicon esculentum

Answer: 1. Magnifera indica

Question 38. The main plant body of pteridophytes is

  1. Sporophyte
  2. Epiphyte
  3. Saprophyte
  4. Gametophyte

Answer: 1. Sporophyte

Question 39. Which of the following groups of plants produce seeds but lacks fruits?

  1. Fungi
  2. Bryophytes
  3. Pteridophytes
  4. Gymnosperms

Answer: 4. Gymnosperms

Question 40. Contractile vacuole in Amoeba is analogous to the

  1. Gastro Vascular Cavity Of Hydra
  2. Sweal Glands Of Mammals
  3. Uriniferous Tubules Of Frog
  4. Typosole of earthworm

Answer: 3. Uriniferous Tubules Of Frog

Question 41. Which one of the following statements is true about sponges?

  1. One mouth and innumerable exits
  2. Innumerable mouths and one exit
  3. A large spacious stomach
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Innumerable mouths and one exit

Question 42. The First Segment Of Earthworm, In Which The Mouth Is Situated, Is Called

  1. Stomium
  2. Peistomeum
  3. Protostomium
  4. Periosteum

Answer: 2. Peistomeum

Question 43. The body cavity of cockroach is a

  1. Paragastric Cavity
  2. Pseudocoelom
  3. Coelom
  4. Haemocoel

Answer: 4. Haemocoel

Question 44. Most primitive vascular plants are

  1. Bacteria
  2. Mosses
  3. Ferns
  4. Pines

Answer: 3. Ferns

Question 45. Radial symmetry is best seen in

  1. Fishes
  2. Starfish
  3. Jellyfish
  4. Sponges

Answer: 2. Starfish

Question 46. Presence of chitinous exoskeleton is an identifying feature of

  1. Corals
  2. Molluscs
  3. Coelenterates
  4. Arthropods

Answer: 4. Arthropods

Question 47. Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?

  1. Arthropod
  2. Insect
  3. Invertebrate
  4. Arachnid

Answer: 3. Invertebrate

Question 48. It is possible to imagine the various levels of taxonomic classification as a kind of “family tree” for an organism. If the kingdom is analogous to the trunk of the tree, which taxonomic category would be analogous to the large limbs coming off that trunk?

  1. Class
  2. Family
  3. Order
  4. Phylum

Answer: 4. Phylum

Question 49. An organism is described to you as having many nuclei containing cells, each surrounded by a cell wall of chitin and absorbing its food. In which kingdom or domain would you place it?

  1. Plantae
  2. Protista
  3. Animalia
  4. Fungi

Answer: 4. Fungi

Question 50. Classification places emphasis on

  1. Similarities
  2. Differences
  3. Similarities And Differences
  4. Color

Answer: 3. Similarities And Differences

Question 51. The kingdom Protista is primarily made up of organisms that are

  1. Eukaryotic And Multicellular
  2. Prokaryotic And Multicellular
  3. Prokaryotic And Single-Celled
  4. Eukaryotic and single-celled

Answer: 4. Eukaryotic and single-celled

Question 52. While collecting animals in a tidepool, you find an animal that looks like a cnidarian medusa; however, it lacks stinging cells. In all probability, the animal belongs to the phylum or is a(n)

Ctenophora

Planula larvae

Porifera

Cnidaria

Answer: 1. Ctenophora

Question 53. The two major evolutionary lines of animals, the protostomes and deuterostomes, are classified on the basis of

  1. Nature Of Embryonic Development
  2. Formation Of The Mouth And Anus
  3. Cleavage Patterns
  4. All Of the above

Answer: 4. All Of the above

Question 54. The arthropods are the most successful animal group on earth, and they share all the following characteristics except

  1. Endoskeleton
  2. Exoskeleton
  3. Jointed Appendages
  4. Complex nervous system

Answer: 1. Endoskeleton

Question 55. Generally speaking, fungi are

  1. Saprophytes
  2. Autotrophs
  3. Prokaryotic
  4. All of these are correct

Answer: 1. Saprophytes

Question 56. Compared to bryophytes, ferns are more advanced from an evolutionary perspective because they

  1. A Produce Spores
  2. Produce Windborne Pollen
  3. Have Vascular Tissue
  4. Do Not Require Water For Reproduction

Answer: 3. Have Vascular Tissue

Question 57. Which of the following groups contains organisms that represent early stages in the evolution of the eukaryotic cell?

  1. Archaea
  2. Protista
  3. Fungi
  4. Animalia

Answer: 2. Protista

Question 58. Fungi grow using

  1. Hyphae
  2. Chloroplasts
  3. Angiosperms
  4. Prokaryotes

Answer: 1. Hyphae

Question 59. Which of the following is the largest phylum?

  1. Arthropoda
  2. Annelida
  3. Mollusca
  4. Coelenterata.

Answer: 1. Arthropoda

Question 60. Basic taxonomic category is

  1. Population
  2. Species
  3. Variety
  4. Breed

Answer: 2. Species

Question 61. Male Ascaris can be distinguished from female Ascaris by

  1. Curved Posterior End
  2. Round Shape
  3. Presence Of Penial Setae
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 62. Natural system of classification employs

  1. Complexity Of Cell Structure
  2. Complexity Of Body Structure
  3. Organization
  4. All The Above

Answer: 4. All The Above

Question 63. Mammals

  1. Lay Eggs
  2. Possess Body Hair
  3. Have A Skin With Scales
  4. All the above

Answer: 2. Possess Body Hair

Question 64. Sex organs are unicellular and non-jacked in

  1. Algae
  2. Bryophyta
  3. Pteridophyta
  4. Gymnosperms

Answer: 1. Algae

Question 65. Canal system is present in phylum

  1. Protozoa
  2. Porifera
  3. Coelenterata
  4. Echinodermata

Answer: 2. Porifera

Question 66. Placoid scales are present in

  1. Lizard
  2. Scoliodon
  3. Anabas
  4. Crocodile

Answer: 2. Scoliodon

Question 67. Which of the following has a chambered heart?

  1. Toad
  2. Lizard
  3. Ostrich
  4. Rohu

Answer: 4. Rohu

Question 68. Which one is a true fish?

  1. Jellyfish
  2. Starfish
  3. Dogfish
  4. Silverfish

Answer: 3. Dogfish

Question 69. Elephantiasis is caused by

  1. Wuchereria
  2. Pinworm
  3. Planarians
  4. Liver flukes

Answer: 1. Wuchereria

Question 70. Pteridophytes do not have

  1. Root
  2. System
  3. Flowers
  4. Leaves

Answer: 3. Flowers

Question 71. Corals are

  1. Poriferans attached to some solid support
  2. Cnidarians that are solitary living
  3. Poriferans present at the sea bed
  4. Cnidarians that live in colonies

Answer: 4. Cnidarians that live in colonies

Question 72. The skeleton is made entirely of cartilage in

  1. Sharks
  2. Tuna
  3. Rohu
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Sharks

Question 73. Spirogyra is also called

  1. Pond scum
  2. Pond silk
  3. Fairy ring
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 74. Nutritionally Agaricus is

  1. Parasitic
  2. Autotroph
  3. Saprophytic
  4. Detrivores

Answer: 3. Saprophytic

Question 75. Funaria has

  1. Two Shoots, Male And Female
  2. Many Shoots
  3. One Shoot
  4. Flt thallus

Answer: 1. Two Shoots, Male And Female

Question 76. In moss, the sporophyte is

  1. Small And Independent
  2. Large And Independent
  3. Small And Dependent Upon Gametophyte
  4. Stalked and dependent upon gametophyte.

Answer: 4. Stalked and dependent upon gametophyte.

Question 77. Fronds are

  1. Fern Leaves
  2. Fern Sporangia
  3. Fern Scales
  4. Fern Rhizomes

Answer: 1. Fern Leaves

Question 78. Fern differs from moss in having

  1. Independent Gemetophyte
  2. Parasitic Gametophyte
  3. Independent Sporophyte
  4. Dependent sporophyte

Answer: 3. Independent Sporophyte

Question 79. Fern leaves bearing spores are called

  1. Sporangia
  2. Sori
  3. Sporophylls
  4. Fronds

Answer: 3. Sporophylls

Question 80. Male cones of Pinus occur

  1. Single On Top Branches
  2. In Whorls Over Top Branches
  3. In Clusters Subapically Over Lower Branches
  4. In clusters over top branches.

Answer: 3. In Clusters Subapically Over Lower Branches

Question 81. In angiosperms, megasporophyll is specialized to form

  1. Stamen
  2. Petal
  3. Carpel
  4. Sepal

Answer: 3. Carpel

Question 82. Earthworm has an unsegmented band called

  1. Clitellum
  2. Cephalothorax
  3. Thorax
  4. Metathorax

Answer: 1. Clitellum

Question 83. Clitellum occurs in segments

  1. 8-10
  2. 10-12
  3. 14-15
  4. 16-18

Answer: 3. 14-15

Question 84. Mouth parts of Cockroach are of type

  1. Biting And Chewing
  2. Piercing And Sucking
  3. Siphoning
  4. Sponging

Answer: 1. Biting And Chewing

Question 85. An important character of chordata is presence of

  1. Dorsal Notochord
  2. Dorsal Hollow Nerve Cord
  3. Post-Anal Tail
  4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 2 Tissues Multiple Choice Question And Answers

by

Tissues Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: This section contains multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)  out of which only one is correct.

Question 1. Simple tissues are:

  1. Parenchyma, Xylem, And Collenchyma
  2. Parenchyma, Collenchyma, And Sclerenchyma
  3. Parenchyma, Xylem, And Sclerenchyma
  4. Parenchyma, xylem, and phloem

Answer: 2. Parenchyma, Collenchyma And Sclerenchyma

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. Meristematic tissues are found in

  1. Only Stems Of The Plants
  2. Both Roots And Stems
  3. In All Growing Tips Of The Plant Body
  4. Only roots of the plants

Answer: 3. In All Growing Tips Of The Plant Body

Question 3. Aerenchyma is formed by

  1. Parenchyma
  2. Collenchyma
  3. Scelerechyma
  4. Xylem

Answer: 1. Parenchyma

Question 4. The living cells providing tensile strength are

  1. Parenchyma
  2. Collenchyma
  3. Sclerenchyma
  4. Sclerotic Cells

Answer: 2. Collenchyma

Question 5. The characteristics feature of water storage tissue is

  1. Large Sized Cells
  2. Thin Cell Walls
  3. Presence Of Mucliage
  4. Presence of vacuoles

Answer: 4. Presence of vacuoles

Question 6. Unthickened areas present in the walls of sclerenchyma are

  1. Pits
  2. Plasmodesmata
  3. Junctions
  4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 1. Pits

Question 7. The conducting cells of xylem are

  1. Tracheary Elements
  2. Sieve Elements
  3. Companion Cells
  4. All above

Answer: 1. Tracheary Elements

Question 8. Parenchyma has

  1. Intercellular Spaces And Uniform Thickening
  2. Deposition On Corners
  3. Deposition On Angles
  4. Deposition In Form Of Bands

Answer: 1. Intercellular Spaces And Uniform Thickening

Question 9. Which of the following helps in translocation of food is plants

  1. Xylem
  2. Phloem
  3. Sclerenchyma
  4. Collenchyma

Answer: 2. Phloem

Question 10. The chief function of vessels in the plant body is

  1. To Translocate Food Material
  2. To Conduct Water And Mineral Salts
  3. To Support Living Cells
  4. All above

Answer: 2. To Conduct Water And Mineral Salts

Question 11. Tracheids and vessels are associated with

  1. Xylem Of Pteridophytes
  2. Xylem Of Angiosperms
  3. Xylem Of Gymnosperms
  4. All above

Answer: 2. Xylem Of Angiosperms

Question 12. Undifferentiated ground tissue is met with in

  1. Cucurbita Stem
  2. Maize Stem
  3. Pea Stem
  4. Sunflower stems

Answer: 2. Maize Stem

Question 13. Which of the following is an epidermal cell

  1. Guard cells
  2. Root hairs
  3. Trichome
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 14. Vascular tissue system in root is

  1. Collateral
  2. Radial
  3. Concentric
  4. Biocollateral

Answer: 2. Radial

Question 15. Inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchi and bronchioles are lined by

  1. Squamous epithelium
  2. Ciliated epithelium
  3. Columnar epithelium
  4. Cubical epithelium

Answer: 2. Ciliated epithelium

Question 16. The average life span of human R.B.C. is

  1. 100 days
  2. 90 days
  3. 120 days
  4. None

Answer: 3. 120 days

Question 17. Blood cells which show phagocytosis is

  1. Platelet
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Basophil
  4. Monocyte

Answer: 4. Monocyte

Question 18. The process of formation of blood corpuscles is called

  1. Haemopoiesis
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Heamozoin
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Haemopoiesis

Question 19. Which set does clearly identifies striated muscles?

  1. Cylindrical, syncytial, and unbranched
  2. Spindle, unbranched, and uninucleated
  3. Cylindrical, striped, and nucleated
  4. Cylindrical, striped, and branched

Answer: 1. Cylindrical, syncytial and unbranched

Question 20. Cavity or lumen is narrow in

  1. Sclerenchyma
  2. Parenchyma
  3. Collenchyma
  4. Tracheids

Answer: 1. Sclerenchyma

Question 21. Cell wall in cork is impervious to water and gases due to presence of

  1. Lignin
  2. Pectin
  3. Suberin
  4. Cellulose

Answer: 3. Suberin

Question 22. Cardiac muscle cells are cylindrical branched

  1. Uninucleate and voluntary
  2. Uninucleate and involuntary
  3. Multimtcleate and voluntary
  4. Multinucleate and involuntary

Answer: 2. Uninucleate and involuntary

Question 23. Striped muscle fires possess

  1. Longitudnal Striations
  2. Oblique Striations
  3. Transverse Striations
  4. No Striations

Answer: 3. Transverse Striations

Question 24. Simple epithelium is

  1. One Cell Thick
  2. Two Cells Thick
  3. Two Or Three Cells Thick
  4. All are correct

Answer: 1. One Cell Thick

Question 25. Which part of body’s weight is formed by connective tissue

  1. 40%
  2. 30%
  3. 20%
  4. 60%

Answer: 2. 30%

Question 26. The firous tissue which connects the two bone is

  1. Connective Tissue
  2. Tendon
  3. Ligament
  4. Adipose tissue

Answer: 3. Ligament

Question 27. The largest number of cell bodies of neuron in our body are found in

  1. Retina
  2. Spinal Cord
  3. Brain
  4. Tongue

Answer: 3. Brain

Question 28. Longest cell in human body may be

  1. Nerve Cell
  2. Leg Muscle Cell
  3. Bone Cell
  4. Heart muscle cell

Answer: 1. Nerve Cell

Question 29. Nervous are classifid on the basis of

  1. Number Of Nucleus Present
  2. Number Of Processes Arising From The Cell Body
  3. Number Of Dendrites Present
  4. Number Of Axons Present

Answer: 2. Number Of Processes Arising From The Cell Body

Question 30. Nucleated part of nerve cell is called

  1. Axon
  2. Dendrites
  3. Cyton
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Cyton

Question 31. Pigment tissue are present in

  1. Skin
  2. Liver
  3. Heart
  4. Ear

Answer: 1. Skin

Question 32. Which of the following tissues is found under the category of simple connective tissue?

  1. White fibrous tissue
  2. Areolar tissue
  3. Yellow fibrous tissue
  4. Cartilage tissue

Answer: 2. Areolar tissue

Question 33. Muscular tissues are formed by

  1. Ectoderm Cells
  2. Endoderm Cells
  3. Mesoderm cells
  4. All the above three

Answer: 3. Mesoderm cells

Question 34. Synapse in the junction of

  1. Dendrites
  2. Simply Nerves
  3. Nucleus
  4. Axon

Answer: 2. Simply Nerves

Question 35. Sieve tubes are associated with

  1. Xylem Tissue
  2. Cambium
  3. Phloem
  4. Cortex

Answer: 3. Phloem

Question 36. Cells which takes part in secondary growth are named as

  1. Phloem
  2. Xylem
  3. Cambium
  4. Medullary ray

Answer: 3. Cambium

Question 37. The trunks of trees increase in girth because of mitotic activing in the

  1. Vascular Tissue
  2. Epidermis
  3. Meristematic Tissue
  4. Pith

Answer: 3. Meristematic Tissue

Question 38. Commercial cork is a derivative of the

  1. Xylem
  2. Vascular Cambium
  3. Phellogen
  4. Phloem

Answer: 3. Phellogen

Question 39. Thin filaments in my fails consist of

  1. Actin And Accessory Proteins
  2. Sarcomeres
  3. Cross-Bridges
  4. Z lines

Answer: 1. Actin And Accessory Proteins

Question 40. The force of muscle contraction depends on the

  1. Number Of muscle Fibers Stimulated
  2. Number Of Motor Units Stimulated
  3. Frequency Of Action Potentials In Each Motor Unit
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 41. The mesophyll of a leaf consists of

  1. Spongy Parenchyma Cells
  2. Palisade Parenchyma Cells
  3. Both Spongy And Palisade Parenchyma Cells
  4. Pith cells

Answer: 3. Both Spongy And Palisade Parenchyma Cells

Question 42. A plant shoot’s growth in length is due to cell division in
the

  1. Vascular Cambium
  2. Apical Meristem
  3. Cortex
  4. Cork cambium

Answer: 2. Apical Meristem

Question 43. The vascular tissues of the plant function in

  1. Support
  2. Support And Transport Of Materials
  3. Secretion Of Plant Hormones
  4. All of the above

Answer: 2. Support And Transport Of Materials

Question 44. Nerve fire is

  1. A Thin Nerve
  2. Fire Formed By Many Axons
  3. Fire Formed By Ensheathing Ofaxon
  4. Fire formed by ensheathing of a dendrite

Answer: 3. Fire Formed By Ensheathing Ofaxon

Question 45. The layer of skin that wrinkles as a person gets older

  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis
  3. Connective Tissue
  4. Epidermis and dermis

Answer: 2. Dermis

Question 46. Which tissue does lack blood supply and heals slowly?

  1. Nervous
  2. Muscle
  3. Cartilage
  4. Bone

Answer: 3. Cartilage

Question 47. Which cell does not have a perforated cell wall?

  1. Tracheids
  2. Companion cells
  3. Sieve tubes
  4. Vessels

Answer: 2. Companion cells

Question 48. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of a hand were dislocated. Which among the following may be the possible?

  1. Tendon break
  2. Break of skeletal muscle
  3. Ligament break
  4. Areolar tissue break

Answer: 3. Ligament break

Question 49. Contractile proteins are found in

  1. Bones
  2. Blood
  3. Muscles
  4. Cartilage

Answer: 3. Muscles

Question 50. Nervous tissue is not found in

  1. Brain
  2. Spinal Cord
  3. Tendons
  4. Nerves

Answer: 3. Tendons

Question 51. Which of the following does help in repair of tissue and fils up the space inside the organ?

  1. Tendon
  2. Adipose tissue
  3. Areolar
  4. Cartilage

Answer: 3. Areolar

Question 52. The dead element present in the phloem is

  1. Companion Cells
  2. Phloem Fires
  3. Phloem Parenchyma
  4. Sieve tube

Answer: 2. Phloem Fires

Question 53. Which of the following does not lose their nucleus at maturity?

  1. Companion cells
  2. Red blood cells
  3. Vessel
  4. Sieve tube cells

Answer: 1. Companion cells

Question 54. A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the ground level. After 3 years the nail will

  1. Move Downwards
  2. Move Upwards
  3. Remain At The Same Position
  4. Move sideways

Answer: 3. Remain At The Same Position

Question 55. Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of

  1. Intercalary Meristem
  2. Conducting Tissue
  3. Apical Meristem
  4. Parenchymatous tissue

Answer: 2. Conducting Tissue

Question 56. The water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperm is

  1. Vessels
  2. Sieve Tube
  3. Tracheids
  4. Xylem fires

Answer: 3. Tracheids

Question 57. If you observe the muscular tissue of urinary bladder, you will observe

  1. Striated
  2. Unstriated Muscle
  3. Ligament
  4. Tendon

Answer: 2. Unstriated Muscle

Question 58. Which one ofthe following is modification of parenchyma?

  1. Fires Found In Phloem
  2. Tracheids
  3. Vessel
  4. Chlorenchyma

Answer: 4. Chlorenchyma

Question 59. Along fire like process coming out ofthe cyton ofa nerve cell is

  1. Axon
  2. Dendron
  3. Neurolemma
  4. Neurofibrils

Answer: 1. Axon

Question 60. Striated muscles

  1. Are Spindle Shaped
  2. Get Tired And Need Rest
  3. Never Get Tired
  4. Are also called involuntary muscles

Answer: 3. Never Get Tired

Question 61. Striations appear in striped muscles due to

  1. Presence of alternate light and dark banks
  2. Dispersion of pigments
  3. Presence of intercalated discs
  4. Occurrence of actin strands

Answer: 1. Presence of alternate light and dark banks

Question 62. Haversian canal occurs in

  1. Cartilage
  2. Bone
  3. Internal Ear
  4. Liver

Answer: 2. Bone

Question 63. Which type of tissue forms glands?

  1. Epithelial
  2. Connective
  3. Muscular
  4. Nervous

Answer: 1. Epithelial

Question 64. Which one of the followings is not the true blood cell?

  1. Monocytes
  2. Red Blood Corpuscles
  3. Neutrophils
  4. Platelets

Answer: 4. Platelets

Question 65. Companion cells are found in

  1. Xylem
  2. Phloem
  3. Intercalary Tissues
  4. Collenchyma

Answer: 2. Phloem

Question 66. Pores of sieve plates

  1. Connect Cytoplasmic Strands Of Adjacent Sieve Cells
  2. Connect Companion Cell With Adjacent Sieve Cell
  3. Connect Parenchyma Cells With Adjacent Sieve Tube Cells
  4. All the above

Answer: 1. Connect Cytoplasmic Strands Of Adjacent Sieve Cells

Question 67. The food in plant is stored in

  1. Sclerenchyma
  2. Parenchyma
  3. Collenchyma
  4. None of them

Answer: 2. Parenchyma

Question 68. Bone matrix is rich in

  1. Floride And Calcium
  2. Calcium And Phosphorus
  3. Calcium And Potassium
  4. Phosphorus and potassium

Answer: 2. Calcium And Phosphorus

Question 69. Which of the following cells is found in the cartilaginous tissue of the body?

  1. Mast cells
  2. Basophils
  3. Osteocytes
  4. Chondrocytes

Answer: 4. Chondrocytes

Question 70. If the tip of sugarcane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the presence of

  1. Cambium
  2. Apical Meristem
  3. Lateral Meristem
  4. Intercalary meristem

Answer: 4. Intercalary meristem

Question 71. Survival of plants in terrestrial environments has been made possible by the presence of

  1. Intercalary Meristem
  2. Conducting Tissue
  3. Apical Meristem
  4. Parenchymatous tissue

Answer: 2. Conducting Tissue

Question 72. The tissue present in the living of kidney tubules and ducts of salivary glands is

  1. Squamous Epithelial Tissue
  2. Glandular Epithelium
  3. Cuboidal Epithelium
  4. Columnar epithelium

Answer: 3. Cuboidal Epithelium

Question 73. The tissue that helps in the movement of our body are

  1. Muscular Tissue
  2. Skeletal Tissue
  3. Nervous Tissue
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 74. Blood and lymph are types of

  1. Muscular Tissue
  2. Epithelial Tissue
  3. Connective
  4. Permanent tissue

Answer: 3. Connective

Question 75. Squamous epithelium is found in

  1. Lung Alveoli
  2. Trachea
  3. Alimentary Canal
  4. Oviduct

Answer: 1. Lung Alveoli

Question 76. The connective tissue that connects muscle to bone is called

  1. Ligament
  2. Tendon
  3. Cartilage
  4. Areolar

Answer: 2. Tendon

Question 77. The spindle shaped cells, uninucleated and unbranched are present in muscular tissue of

  1. Strated Muscles
  2. Smooth Muscles
  3. Cardiac Muscle
  4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 2. Smooth Muscles

Question 78. Cartilage and bone are types of

  1. Muscular Tissue
  2. Connective Tissue
  3. Skeletal Tissue
  4. Epithelial tissue

Answer: 2. Connective Tissue

Question 79. The intercalated disc is present in

  1. Striated Muscle
  2. Smooth Muscle
  3. Cardiac Muscle
  4. Both 2 And 3

Answer: 3. Cardiac Muscle

Question 80. Fibrinogen is absent in

  1. Blood
  2. Serum
  3. Plasma
  4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. Serum

NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 1 The Fundamental Unit of Life Multiple Choice Question And Answers

by

The Fundamental Unit of Life Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Which of these is the smallest in size?

  1. Ribosome
  2. Lysosome
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Chloroplast

Answer: 2. Lysosome

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. The scientist who saw the living cell for the fist time was

  1. Leeuwenhoek
  2. M.J. Schleiden
  3. Kolliker
  4. Palade

Answer: 1. Leeuwenhoek

Question 3. Who proposed the cell theory 

  1. Schleiden and Schwann
  2. Watson and Crick
  3. Darwin and Wallace
  4. Mendel and Morgan

Answer: 1. Schleiden and Schwann

Question 4. According to widely accepted “Fluid mosaic model” cell membranes are semi-flid, where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model has been modifid in several represents. In this regard, which ofthe following statements is incorrect

  1. Proteins in cell membranes can travel with in the lipid bilayer
  2. Proteins can also undergo flp-flp movements in the lipid bilayer
  3. Proteins can remain confied within certain domains of the membrane
  4. Many proteins remain completely embedded within the bilayer.

Answer: 2. Proteins can also undergo flp-flp movements in the lipid bilayer

Question 5. Which of the following organelles does not have membrane?

  1. Ribosome
  2. Nucleus
  3. Chloroplast
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 1. Ribosome

Question 6. Which of the following organelles would not be found in a plant cell?

  1. Chloroplast
  2. DNA
  3. Food vacuole
  4. Cell membrane

Answer: 3. Food vacuole

Question 7. Plastid that are white in colour (pigment free)

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Lysosome
  3. Leucoplast
  4. Chromoplast

Answer: 3. Leucoplast

Question 8. Which of the following is called ‘suicidal bags’

  1. Centrosomes
  2. Lysosomes
  3. Microsomes
  4. Mesosomes

Answer: 2. Lysosomes

Question 9. Plant cell wall is mainly composed of

  1. Sugars
  2. Cellulose
  3. Proteins
  4. Lipids

Answer: 2. Cellulose

Question 10. The nucleus was discovered by

  1. Robert Brown
  2. Robert Hooke
  3. A.V. leeuwenhock
  4. Schwaan

Answer: 1. Robert Brown

Question 11. In the mitochondrion energy is stored in the form of

  1. Adenosine Triphosphate (Atp)
  2. Adenosine Monophosphate (Amp)
  3. Citric Acid
  4. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

Answer: 1. Adenosine Triphosphate (Atp)

Question 12. The site of protein synthesis in plants is the

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Lysosome
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 2. Ribosomes

Question 13. The plasma membrane is

  1. Permeable
  2. Semipermeable
  3. Differentially Permeable
  4. Impermeable

Answer: 3. Differentially Permeable

Question 14. The infoldings of the inner membrane of mitochondria is referred to as

  1. Grana
  2. Stroma
  3. Oxysome
  4. Cristae

Answer: 4. Cristae

Question 15. When a plant cell is treated by cellulose and pectinate enzymes, which of the following is formed?

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Leucoplast
  3. Protoplast
  4. One of these

Answer: 4. One of these

Question 16. The golgi bodies are related to

  1. Respiration
  2. Excretion
  3. Secretion
  4. Circulation

Answer: 3. Secretion

Question 17. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with

  1. Protein synthesis
  2. Fat synthesis
  3. Respiration
  4. Photosynthesis

Answer: 1. Protein synthesis

Question 18. Which animal cell structure is characterized by selective permeability?

  1. Chromosome
  2. Cell membrane
  3. Cell wall
  4. Ribosomes

Answer: 1. Chromosome

Question 19. The most abundant compound in cytoplasm is

  1. Fat
  2. Water
  3. Protein
  4. Carbohydrates

Answer: Protein

Question 20. Which organelle is usually found associated with the nucleus of the cell in animals?

  1. Centrosome
  2. Vacuole
  3. Chromosome
  4. Mitochondrion

Answer: 1. Centrosome

Question 21. The smallest organelle in the cell is

  1. Lysosome
  2. Ribosome
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Peroxisome

Answer: 1. Lysosome

Question 22. The dictum – “Omnis cellula a cellula” was proposed by:

  1. Schwann
  2. Virchow
  3. Schleiden
  4. Robert brown

Answer: 2. Virchow

Question 23. Cynobacteria have

  1. A well-defied nucleus and chloroplast
  2. A well-defied nucleus but no chloroplast
  3. Incipient nucleus and vesicles containing chlorophyll.
  4. Incipient nucleus but no chloroplast or pigment.

Answer: 3. Incipient nucleus and vesicles containing chlorophyll.

Question 24. Which of the following statements about the plasma membrane is true?

  1. It is a solid layer of protein that protects the contents of the cell.
  2. The plasma membrane of a bacterium has none of the same components as the plasma membrane of an animal cell.
  3. It is a rigid and unmoving layer of phospholipids and proteins.
  4. It allows selected molecules to pass into and out of the cell.

Answer: 4. It allows selected molecules to pass into and out of the cell.

Question 25. One key function of nuclear pores is to

  1. Allow Cells To Communicate With One Another.
  2. Aid In The Production Of New Nuclei.
  3. Allow Molecules Such As Proteins To Move Into And Out Of The Nucleus.
  4. Form connections between different organelles.

Answer: 3. Allow Molecules Such As Proteins To Move Into And Out Of The Nucleus.

Question 26. Vesicles are essential for the normal functioning of the Golgi apparatus because

  1. They Provide Energy For Chemical Reactions.
  2. They Move Proteins And Lipids Between Different Parts Of The Organelle.
  3. They Contribute To The Structural Integrity Of The Organelle.
  4. They produce the sugars that are added to proteins.

Answer: 1. They Provide Energy For Chemical Reactions.

Question 27. Which of the following statements is not true 

  1. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts provide energy to cells in the same way.
  2. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have more than one membrane.
  3. Only chloroplasts contain the pigment chlorophyll.
  4. Both animal and plant cells contain mitochondria.

Answer: 1. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts provide energy to cells in the same way.

Question 28. The thickness of plasma membrane (unit membrane) is –

  1. 75 Å
  2. 100 Å
  3. 125 Å
  4. 150 Å

Answer: 1. 75 Å

Question 29. Cellular respiration is related to ………. as ……… is to chloroplasts.

  1. Nucleus; Cytoplasm
  2. Mitochondria; Photosynthesis
  3. Atp; Light
  4. Grana; cristae

Answer: 4. Grana; cristae

Question 30. Which of the followings does best describe the structure of the plasma membrane?

  1. Proteins Sandwiched Between Two Layers Of Phospholipid
  2. Proteins Embedded In Two Layers Of Phospholipid
  3. A Layer Of Protein Coating A Layer Of Phospholipid
  4. Phospholipids Embedded In Two Layers Of Protein

Answer: 2. Proteins Embedded In Two Layers Of Phospholipid

Question 31. The total solute concentration in a red blood cell is about 2%. Sucrose cannot pass through the membrane, but water and urea can. Osmosis would cause such a cell to shrink the most when the cell is immersed in which of the following 

  1. A Hypertonic Sucrose Solution
  2. A Hypotonic Sucrose Solution
  3. A Hypertonic Urea Solution
  4. A Hypotonic Urea Solution

Answer: 1. A Hypertonic Sucrose Solution

Question 32. What process does link reception of cell signals to responses within the cell?

  1. A Signal Transduction Pathway
  2. Protein Synthesis By Ribosomes
  3. Budding Of Transport Vesicles From The Golgi
  4. Active transport of the signal into the cell

Answer: A Signal Transduction Pathway

Question 33. If an animal cell is placed into a Solution whose concentration of dissolved substances is higher than that inside the cell

  1. The Cell Will Swell
  2. The Cell Will Shrivel
  3. The Solution Is Described As Hypertonic
  4. Both 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct

Question 34. Which of the following processes does cause substances to move across membranes without the expenditure of cellular energy?

  1. Endocytosis
  2. Exocytosis
  3. Active transport
  4. Diffusion

Answer: 4. Diffusion

Question 35. The outermost boundary of an animal cell is the

  1. Plasma Membrane
  2. Nucleus
  3. Cytoplasm
  4. Cytoskeleton

Answer: 1. Plasma Membrane

Question 36. A series of membrane-enclosed channels studded with ribosomes are called

  1. Lysosomes
  2. Golgi Complex
  3. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 3. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

Question 37. A temporary mount of a tissue is made in

  1. Wax
  2. Alcohol
  3. Glycerine
  4. Xylene

Answer: 3. Glycerine

Question 38. The rough endoplasmic reticulum owes its rough surface to

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Proteins
  3. Ribosomes
  4. DNA particles

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

Question 39. The energy necessary for active transport across cytoplasmic membranes is believed to come from

  1. ATP
  2. Diffusion
  3. Osmosis
  4. Kinetic energy

Answer: 1. ATP

Question 40. Transport proteins are required for

  1. Diffusion
  2. Osmosis
  3. Facilitated Transport
  4. Facilitated transport and active transport

Answer: 1. Diffusion

Question 41. Cells were determined to be the basic structural units of plants and animals in which century

  1. 1600’s
  2. 1700’s
  3. 1800’s
  4. 1900’s

Answer: 3. 1800’s

Question 42. Which organelle is made up of flt, membrane-enclosed sacs and functions as a processing center?

  1. Chloroplast
  2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  3. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  4. Golgi body

Answer: 4. Golgi body

Question 43. The cell’s “garbage disposals” are the

  1. Lysosomes
  2. Peroxisomes
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Vacuoles

Answer: 1. Lysosomes

Question 44. The organelles that help the cell use oxygen, and also contain a variety of enzymes that help the cell degrade rare biochemicals, among other things, are the

  1. Lysosomes
  2. Peroxisomes
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Vacuoles

Answer: 2. Peroxisomes

Question 45. Choose the best defiition of’diffusion’.

  1. Passive movement from an area of greater concentration to one of lesser concentration.
  2. Active movement from an area of greater concentration to one of lesser concentration.
  3. Passive movement from an area of lesser concentration to one of greater concentration.
  4. Active movement from an are of lesser concentration to one of greater concentration.

Answer: 1. Passive movement from an area of greater concentration to one of lesser concentration.

Question 46. If a red blood cell (interior concentration of 0.9% salt) was placed into a test tube of 10% salt, what would happen to the red blood cell?

  1. It would fill with water and burst.
  2. Nothing – the Solution is isotonic to the interior of the red blood cell.
  3. The red blood cell would shrink as it loses water to the salt Answer: in the test tube.
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. The red blood cell would shrink as it loses water to the salt Solution in the test tube.

Question 47. Cell to cell contact in plant cells is maintained through

  1. Tight Junctions
  2. Desmosomes
  3. Interdigitations
  4. Plasmodesmata

Answer: 4. Plasmodesmata

Question 48. What part of the cell does serves as the intracellular highway?

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Cell membrane
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 1. Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 49. Which of the following is found in plant cells, but not animal cells?

  1. Cell wall
  2. Nucleus
  3. Endoplasmic reticulum
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 1. Cell wall

Question 50. The diffusion of water from external Answer: into dry raisins is called

  1. Exosmosis
  2. Endosmosis
  3. Imbibition
  4. Plasmolysis

Answer: 2. Endosmosis

Question 51. Where are ribosomes usually located in animal and plant cells?

  1. Inside The Nucleus
  2. Near The Cell Membrane
  3. On The Endoplasmic Reticulum
  4. Inside the vacuole

Answer: 3. On The Endoplasmic Reticulum

Question 52. What part of the cell does serve to process, package and export proteins ?

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Endoplasmic reticulum
  3. Nucleolus
  4. Golgi apparatus

Answer: 4. Golgi apparatus

Question 53. Which of the following could be found in BOTH the nucleus and the cytoplasm?

  1. Nucleolus
  2. Ribosomes
  3. RNA
  4. Both RNA & ribosomes

Answer: 4. Both RNA & ribosomes

Question 54. Which of the following structures has a 9 + 2 arrangement?

  1. Flagella
  2. Ribosome
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Golgi apparatus

Answer: 1. Flagella

Question 55. In the eukaryotic cell which one of the following is not a membranous compartment?

  1. Nucleus
  2. Ribosome
  3. Vacuole
  4. Lysosome

Answer: 2. Ribosome

Question 56. The cell nucleus was discovered by

  1. Robert Hooke
  2. Robert Brown
  3. De Duve
  4. Virchow

Answer: 2. Robert Brown

Question 57. Which of the following help in cell wall formation?

  1. Nucleus
  2. Golgi complex
  3. Nucleolus
  4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 2. Golgi complex

Question 58. Mitochondria are not found in

  1. Human Rbc
  2. Human Liver Cell
  3. Human Nerve Cell
  4. Frog liver cell

Answer: 1. Human Rbc

Question 59. Chromosomes contain hereditary units called

  1. Genes
  2. Ribosomes
  3. DNA
  4. RNA

Answer: 1. Genes

Question 60. Protoplasm is

  1. True Solution
  2. Suspension
  3. Colloidal Solution
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Colloidal Solution

Question 61. The physical basis of life is

  1. Ectoplasm
  2. Protoplasm
  3. Nucleoplasm
  4. Endoplasm

Answer: 2. Protoplasm

Question 62. Cell vacuole contains

  1. Water
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Dissolved Substances
  4. Water and metabolic wastes

Answer: 3. Dissolved Substances

Question 63. Which of the cell organelle takes part in the formation of acrosome?

  1. Nucleus
  2. Chromosome
  3. Golgi complex
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 3. Golgi complex

Question 64. Lipid molecules in the cell are synthesised by

  1. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
  2. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
  3. Golgi Apparatus
  4. Plastids

Answer: 1. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

Question 65. Which out of the following is not a function of vacuole?

  1. Storage
  2. Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell
  3. Waste excretion
  4. Locomotion

Answer: 4. Locomotion

Question 66. 1 µm is

  1. 10–6 m
  2. 10–9 m
  3. 10–10 m
  4. 10–3 m

Answer: 1. 10–6 m

Question 67. Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in a cell?

  1. Golgi apparatus
  2. Lysosomes
  3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  4. Vacuoles

Answer: 3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 68. Which of the following can be made into crystal?

  1. A bacteium
  2. An amoeba
  3. A virus
  4. A sperm

Answer: 1. A bacteium

Question 69. Silver nitrate Answer: is used to study

  1. Endoplasmic Reticulum
  2. Golgi Apparatus
  3. Nucleus
  4. Mitochondria

Answer: 2. Golgi Apparatus

Question 70. The cell organelle involved in forming complex sugar from simple sugars are

  1. Endoplasmic Reticulum
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Plastids
  4. Golgi apparatus

Answer: 4. Golgi apparatus

Question 71. Human cheek cells are commonly stained with

  1. Methylene Blue
  2. Safranin
  3. Acetocarmine
  4. Eosine

Answer: 1. Methylene Blue

Question 72. Name the stain which is commonly used to study plant cells

  1. Methylene blue
  2. Cotton blue
  3. Safranin
  4. Acetocarmine

Answer: 3. Safranin

Question 73. Cells are fist focussed in microscope under

  1. 40 X
  2. 10 X
  3. 100 X
  4. Any of these

Answer: 2. 10 X

Question 74. Coverslip is put on the mounted material on a slide very gently to

  1. Avoid The Crushing Of Mounted Material
  2. Avoid The Entry Of Air Bubbles
  3. Avoid Oozing Of Stain
  4. Avoid oozing of glycerine

Answer: 2. Avoid The Entry Of Air Bubbles

Question 75. Raisins are soaked in water for determining the percentage of water absorbed by raisins. The formula, used by a student, for calculating the percentage of water absorbed, is

  1. \(\frac{\text { Initial weight }- \text { Final weight }}{\text { Initial weight }} \times 100\)
  2. \(\frac{\text { Final weight }- \text { Initial weight }}{\text { Initial weight }} \times 100\)
  3. \(\frac{\text { Final weight }- \text { Initial weight }}{\text { Final weight }} \times 100\)
  4. \(\frac{\text { Initial weight }- \text { Final weight }}{\text { Final weight }} \times 100\)

Answer: 2.  \(\frac{\text { Final weight }- \text { Initial weight }}{\text { Initial weight }} \times 100\)

Question 76. Iodine gives blue-black colour with

  1. Protein
  2. Oil
  3. Starch
  4. Sucrose

Answer: 3. Starch

Question 77. Root hairs absorb water from soil through

  1. Diffusion
  2. Imbibition
  3. Osmosis
  4. All the above

Answer: 3. Osmosis

Question 78. Mitochondria are the seat of

  1. Kreb’s cycle
  2. Calvin cycle
  3. Anaerobic Respiration
  4. Trapping of sun light

Answer: 1. Kreb’s cycle

Question 79. Which of the following is incorrect pair?

  1. Nucleus-Brain of the cell
  2. Mitochondria-Power house of the cell
  3. Chloroplast-Kitchen of the cell
  4. Lysosome-Secretory granules

Answer: 4. Lysosome-Secretory granules

Question 80. Amoeba acquires its food through a process, termed

  1. Exocytosis
  2. Endocytosis
  3. Plasmolysis
  4. Exocytosis and endocytosis both

Answer: Endocytosis

Question 81. Which one of the followings cell-wall is not made up of cellulose?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Hydrilla
  3. Mango tree
  4. Cactus

Answer: 1. Bacteria

NEET Biology Class 9 Chapter 7 Origin Of Life Notes

by

Origin Of Life Introduction

Earth is the only planet we know that can support life. It is a planet with vitality and is home to billions of plants and animals that share a common evolutionary track.

  • The planet Earth came into existence about five billion years ago. At that time, the atmosphere of the planet Earth was extremely hot and the existence of life in any form at that high temperature was not possible.
  • But then the question arises, How and when did life originate on Earth?
  • Secondly, how did primitive organisms evolve into new forms resulting in the evolution of a variety of organisms on Earth?
  • Actually, the fact is, no one has been able to come close to knowing exactly what led to the origin of life, and we may never know.
  • However, scientists have made significant progress in understanding the chemical processes that may have led to the origin of life.

Origin of life means the appearance of simplest life form from non-living forms and Evolution of life means the gradual formation of complex organisms from simpler ones.

Read And Learn More: NEET Class 9 Biology Notes

The evolution of life on Earth has involved the following sequence of events:

  • First living things, the simplest creatures, i.e. one-celled organisms came into existence. From these came more complex, multi-cellular organisms.
  • Complexity meant more than just an increase in cell number.
  • As cell number increased, cellular specialization came into existence, where certain cells within the Multi-cellular organism carried out specific tasks.
  • These changes, for about millions, even billions of years evolved living things that we now call plants and animals.

There are many theories, but most have the same general perspective of how things came to be the way they are. Following is an account of life’s beginnings based on some of the leading research and theories related to the subject, and of course, fossil records, dating back as far as 3.5 billion years ago.

Spontaneous Generation

Spontaneous generation was the idea that living things could be produced by non-living things. One of the firm believers in spontaneous generation was Aristotle, the Greek philosopher (384-322 BC).

NEET Biology Origin of Life Aristotle

  • Aristotle believed that dead leaves falling from a tree into a pond would transform into fishes and those falling on soil would transform into worms and insects. He also held that some insects develop from morning dew and rotting manure.
  • Egyptians believed that the mud of the Nile River could spontaneously give rise to many forms of life. The idea of spontaneous generation was popular almost till the seventeenth century.
  • The theory of Spontaneous Generation was disproved in the course of time due to the experiment conducted by Francesco Redi, (1665), Spallanzani (1765), and later by Louis Pasteur (1864) in his famous Swan neck experiment.
  • This theory was disapproved, as scientists gave definite proof that life comes from pre-existing life.
  • In 1665, Francesco Redi, an Italian physician, challenged the concept of spontaneous generation. With his experiment, he was convinced that life could only come from life.
  • He was even more specific, fles could only come from flies just like humans come from other humans. He showed that maggots come from eggs laid by files, rather than forming spontaneously from the decaying matter in which they are found.

Experiment – 1

He placed the meat in an unsealed jar.

Observation: Flies laid eggs on the meat and maggots emerged.

Experiment – 2

He placed the meat in a sealed jar.

Observation: Flies could not enter the sealed jar and therefore, maggots did not form on the raw meat.

Experiment – 3

He then placed the meat in a jar covered with gauze.

Observation: The gauze prevented files from entering the jar, and therefore, maggots did not form on the raw meat.

Conclusion: Maggots arise from the eggs laid by flies, not by spontaneous generation. This supported the theory of biogenesis, which states that “all life arises from other life.”

NEET Biology Origin of Life Francesco Redi Experiment

  • A series of experiments conducted in the 1860s by the French microbiologist Louis Pasteur (1822–1895) also helped to disprove the idea that life originated by spontaneous generation.
  • Pasteur sterilized two containers, both of which contained a broth rich in nutrients. He exposed both containers to the air, but one had a trap in the form of a loop in a connecting tube, which prevented dust and other particles from reaching the broth.
  • Bacteria and mold quickly grew in the open container and made its broth cloudy and rank, but the container with the trap remained sterile. Pasteur interpreted this experiment as indicating that microorganisms did not arise spontaneously in the open container but were introduced by dust and other airborne contaminants.

NEET Biology Origin of Life Pasteurs Experiment

Although Redi, Pasteur, and other scientists thoroughly disproved the theory of spontaneous generation as an explanation for the origin of present-day life on whatever scale, they raised a new question.

If organisms can arise only from other organisms, then how did the first organism arise?

Chemosynthetic Theory Of Origin Of Life

  • The widely accepted theory is the Chemosynthetic theory of the origin of life proposed by A.I. Oparin. It states that life originated on Earth through a series of combinations of chemical substances in the distant past. All these processes took place in water.
  • The earth originated about 5 billion years ago. It was initially made up of hot gases and vapors of various chemicals. Heavy elements such as iron and nickel were found in the center while comparatively lighter ones like those of aluminium and silicon formed the middle layer.
  • The lightest elements like hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon were found in the outermost layer. Due to the extremely high temperature, the atoms of these elements could not combine to form molecules.
  • As the earth started cooling gradually, the atoms started combining with one another to form molecules, and a solid crust was formed.

Steps Involved in the Origin of Life on Earth:

The early atmosphere contained ammonia (NH3), water vapor (H2O), hydrogen (H2), and methane (CH4). At that time there was no free oxygen.

1. Formation of Inorganic Molecules and Compounds:

  • With a considerable decrease in the earth’s temperature over thousands of years, the atoms of different elements came together at random and formed inorganic molecules.
  • Since the lighter elements (hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, and nitrogen) were the most abundant in the outermost layer, their atoms reacted with each other to form the first inorganic molecules.
  • The earliest molecules formed were those of hydrogen ( H2), nitrogen ( N2), ammonia (NH3), methane (CH4), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor (H2O).
  • All the atoms of oxygen combined with those of hydrogen and carbon to form water vapor and carbon dioxide.
  • The energy required for the configuration of these molecules came from the ultraviolet rays in the sunlight or electric discharge, heat, or a combination of these.

2. Formation of Simple Organic Compounds:

  • As the earth cooled further, the primitive inorganic molecules interacted and combined with one another to form simple organic compounds.
  • Simple sugars, fatty acids, glycerol, amino acids, and nitrogen bases (purines and pyrimidines) were probably the simple organic compounds that resulted from the interactions of the inorganic molecules. Water vapor present in the primitive atmosphere formed clouds, which then resulted in rainfall continuously for several centuries.
  • This rainwater filled the hollows and basins of the earth’s crust to form the oceans. Water in these oceans contains ammonia and methane. These compounds reacted among themselves to form primitive organic compounds. Thus, ocean water provided the basis for the formation of organic compounds.

3. Formation of Complex Organic Compounds:

  • The smaller and simpler organic compounds that were formed initially on the earth gradually started combining among themselves to form complex organic compounds.
    • Simple sugars combine among themselves to form complex polysaccharides such as starch and cellulose.
    • Fatty acids and glycerol molecules combine to form lipids.
    • Amino acids combine among themselves to form polypeptides and proteins.
    • Purines and pyrimidines combined with simple sugars and phosphates to form nucleotides, which in turn combined to form
      nucleic acids.
    • The heat of the sun probably provided the energy required for the formation of complex organic compounds.
  • Haldane suggested that due to the accumulation of complex organic molecules, the sea ultimately became a sort of ‘hot, dilute soup’ where, the molecules collided, reacted, and aggregated to form more complex molecules.

4. Formation of Molecular Aggregates:

  • It is suggested that the large organic molecules (formed abiotically in the primitive earth) came together spontaneously and due to intermolecular attraction, formed large colloidal aggregates called coacervates.
  • An envelope of water molecules formed around each such aggregate due to the hydrophilic nature of some of these compounds.
  • A membrane of fatty acids protects and encloses these molecules, increasing the chances of chemical reactions.
  • Gradually, breakdown and building up reactions started for which the energy required was provided by the breakdown reactions.
  • The coacervates selectively absorbed proteins and other materials from the ocean resulting in their active growth.
  • The coacervates not only started growing rapidly but also started multiplying

5. Formation of First Cells (Protobionts):

  • The coacervates were in a state of dynamic equilibrium, constantly taking in new materials from the oceans and releasing degraded materials. Thus, they had all the basic properties of life such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction.
  • However, they lacked the complexity of molecular organization, catalytic proteins (enzymes), and precise control of nucleic acids. Later, the nucleic acids are said to have taken control of coacervate and the process of replication became precise in the due course of time.
  • With the nucleic acids being established as the genetic material, the coacervates got transformed into primitive living systems which have been called protobionts or eobionts.

6. First life forms:

  • The first forms of life developed among the organic molecules, in the oxygen-free atmosphere. They were heterotrophs, requiring ready-made organic compounds as food.
  • The early atmosphere of Earth had no free oxygen, the forms until then could at best be only “anaerobic”. Chlorophyll-bearing organisms later released free oxygen which gave greater possibilities for life to evolve.

Chemoheterotrophs : (Greek-Chemo: Chemical, hetero: another, trophy: nourishment):

Chemoheterotrophs are anaerobic prokaryotes like bacteria that depend nutritionally on an external supply of organic compounds. They are dependent on the organic molecules present in the broth for bodybuilding and obtaining energy.

Chemoautotrophs (Greek-Chemo: Chemical, auto: self, trophy: nourishment):

  • Chemoautotrophs are organisms that obtain energy through a chemical process, which is by the oxidation of electron-donating molecules from the environment, rather than by photosynthesis.
  • Evolutionary scientists believe that chemoautotrophs produced oxygen as a by-product and later evolved into both, aerobic animallike organisms and photosynthetic organisms.

Aerobic Photoautotrophs:

They evolved 3300 to 3500 million years ago. They were like present-day cyanobacteria and could release O2 into the atmosphere because they used water as the reagent. Thus, the whole reducing atmosphere changed to an oxidizing atmosphere.

The appearance of photosynthetic organisms resulted in the release of free molecular oxygen into the atmosphere gradually transforming it into an oxidizing type from the existing reducing type

NEET Biology Origin of Life Volcanos released gases to the atmosphere.

Evolution

  • There is a huge number of living organisms on earth. In addition to this huge diversity of living organisms, the remains of dead organisms are also known. The remains of the organisms that once existed on Earth are known as fossils.
  • Now the question arises, how and from where such a great diversity of living organisms came on this earth? The branch of biology that deals with the study of such changes in organisms is known as evolution.
  • Evolution is the formation of complex organisms through ‘change’ from simple ancestral types over the course of geological time.
  • It is the constant process of evolution (since the origin of life) that has resulted in an enormous variety of plants and animals that have come to exist on this earth at present. All the plants and animals that we see today around us have evolved from some or other ancestors that lived on this earth long, long ago.
  • The term organic evolution is used to describe the slow and gradual process by which living organisms have undergone changes from the simplest unicellular forms of life to the most complex multi-cellular forms that can be seen today.
  • The characteristics of organisms that had been changing in the past; are changing even today, and will continue to do so in the future as well. This is due to the fact that the environment in which organisms live also changes and organisms need to be adapted to survive in the changed environment.

This process of origin of the various forms(species) found on earth has been a gradual and extremely slow process, requiring hundreds or even thousands of years.

NEET Biology Origin of Life Primitive Earth

Evidence For Evolution

  • A number of common features of different kinds of organisms provide evidence in favor of evolution because they are considered to have evolved from common ancestors.
  • For example, in a family, a brother and sister are closely related and they have a recent common ancestor i.e., their parents. A brother and his cousin are also related but less than the sister and her brother.
  • This is because the brother and his cousin have a common ancestor i.e., their grandparents in the second generation. With subsequent generations, the variations make organisms more different than their ancestors.

Let us discuss some of the important sources that provide evidence for evolution.

1. Homologous organs: Homologous organs are similar in origin (or are embryologically similar) but perform different functions.

  • For example, the forelimbs of humans and the wings of birds look different externally but their skeletal structure is similar.
  • It means that their origin is similar (as wings in birds are modifications of the forearm) but their functions are different – the wings help in flight whereas the human forearm helps in various activities.

2. Analogous organs: Analogous organs have different origins but perform similar functions.

For example, the wings of a bird and a bat are similar in function but this similarity does not mean that these animals are more closely related. If we carefully look at these structures, then we will find that the wings of a bat are just the folds of skin that are stretched between its fingers whereas the wings of birds are present all along the arm. Therefore, these organs are analogous organs.

NEET Biology Origin of Life Analogous Organs

3. Fossils: Fossils are the remains of the organisms that once existed on earth. They represent the ancestors of the plants and animals that are alive today. They provide evidence of evolution by revealing the characteristics of past organisms and the changes that have occurred in these organisms to give rise to the present organisms. Thus, fossils discovered provide the ancestral history of an individual.

Let us understand this, with the help of an example.

  • Around 100 million years ago, some invertebrates died and were buried in the soil in that area. More sediment accumulated on top of it turning it into sedimentary rock.
  • At the same place, millions of years later, some dinosaurs died and their bodies were buried on top of the sedimentary rock. The mud containing dinosaurs also turned into a rock.
  • Then, millions of years later, some horse-like creatures died in that area and got fossilized in rocks above the dinosaur fossils. Sometime later, due to soil erosion or floods in that area, the rocks containing horse-like fossils are exposed. If that area is excavated deeper, then the dinosaur and invertebrate fossils can also be found.
  • Thus, by digging that area, scientists can easily predict that horse-like animals evolved later than the dinosaurs and the invertebrates. Thus, the above example suggests that the fossils found closer to the surface of the earth are more recent than the fossils present in deeper layers.