NEET Biology Immune System Multiple Choice Question And Answers

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Biology MCQs with answers for NEET Immune System

Question 1. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?

  1. Cytokine barriers
  2. Cellular barriers
  3. Physiological barriers
  4. Physical barriers

Answer: 3. Physiological barriers

The saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes belong to physiological barriers.

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Question 2. Macrophages are also known as

  1. Tumour cell
  2. Natural killer cells
  3. Phagocytes
  4. B-cells

Answer: 3. Phagocytes

“human health and disease pyq “

Macrophages are large phagocytic cells that arise by enlargement of monocytes. They besides destroying the microbes, also engulf the microbes and display the antigens of microbes to alert the lymphocytes

Question 3. Identify the True/False statements.

  1. Innate immunity is obtained by providing different types of barriers.
  2. Sweat, tears, acid in the stomach and saliva prevent microbial growth.
  3. Acquired immunity is present from birth and is inherited from parents.

Codes

  • True False True
  • True True False
  • False False True
  • False True True

Answer: 2. Sweat, tears, acid in the stomach and saliva prevent microbial growth.

All statements are true except statement 3. Incorrect statement can be corrected as Acquired immunity is not present from the birth and develops during an individual’s lifetime. It is pathogen-specific.

NEET Biology Immune System MCQs with answers

Question 4. Select the incorrect statement.

  1. Keratin on human skin acts as a mechanical barrier to pathogens
  2. Fever and inflammation provide an early line of defence against pathogen
  3. Human milk is rich in antibacterial substances which fight against staphylococci
  4. Interferons are a part of the physiological barrier

Answer: 4. Interferone are a part of the physiological barrier

All given statements are correct except option (4). It can be corrected as Interferons are a part of the cytokine barrier. They are the proteins secreted by the virus-infected cells, which protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

NEET Biology Immune System Multiple Choice Question And Answers

“questions on human health and disease “

Question 5. The epithelial lining of the respiratory tract acts as the

  1. Inflammatory barrier
  2. Phagocytic barrier
  3. Anatomical barrier
  4. Physiological barrier

Answer: 3. Anatomical barrier

The epithelial lining of the respiratory tract helps in trapping microbes entering the body, thus acting as an anatomical barrier.

Question 6. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears destroys

  1. Most virus-infected cells
  2. Certain fungi
  3. Certain types of bacteria
  4. All viruses

Answer: 3. Certain types of bacteria

Lysozyme breaks down the peptidoglycan present in the bacterial cell wall, thereby causing lysis of the bacterial cell. So, it is present in perspiration, saliva and tears and destroys certain types of bacteria.

NEET important MCQs on Immune System

Question 7. The full form of PMNL is

  1. Poly Morpho-Nuclear Leukocytes
  2. Para Morpho-Nuclear Lymphocytes
  3. Penta Morpho-Nuclear Leukocytes
  4. Poly Morpho-Nuclear Lymphocytes

Answer: 1. Poly Morpho-Nuclear Leukocytes

PMNL is Poly Morpho-Nuclear Leukocytes.

Question 8. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human?

  1. Epithelium of urogenital tract
  2. Tears
  3. Monocytes
  4. Skin

Answer: 2. Tears

Physiological barriers include acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes. They all prevent microbial growth

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 9. Swelling due to the infection or injury of tissues is an example of

  1. Anatomical barrier
  2. Physiological barrier
  3. Phagocytic barrier
  4. Inflammatory barrier

Answer: 4. Inflammatory barrier

“human health and disease “

Swelling or inflammation is an important defense mechanism of host to prevent infection. It is induced in response to tissue damage caused by microorganisms, toxins or by mechanical means. Thus, it is an inflammatory barrier.

Question 10.  ______ is an anatomical barrier.

  1. Saliva
  2. Lysozyme
  3. Interferon
  4. Mucus

Answer: 4. Mucus

Mucous membrane secretes mucus and the mucus coating on the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urinogenital tracts help in trapping microbes entering the body. Thus, mucus acts as an anatomical barrier to pathogens.

NEET Immune System chapter-wise MCQs

Question 11. Which of the following in the mammalian body is especially concerned with fighting against pathogens?

  1. Liver
  2. Kidney
  3. Endocrine glands
  4. Sebaceous gland

Answer: 4. Sebaceous gland

The secretions of the sebaceous gland of the skin contain bactericidal and fungicidal substances, which kill the bacteria and fungi on the skin.

Question 12. Action of lysozyme is

  1. Physiological
  2. Anatomical
  3. Morphological
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Physiological

  • Lysozyme is an antibacterial enzyme. It is widely distributed in body fluids and secretions, including tears, sweat and saliva.
  • Lysozyme is capable of breaking the chemical bonds in the outer cell wall of the bacteria. The action of lysozyme is physiological because it is an antimicrobial enzyme which kills bacteria.

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 13. Identify the physiological barrier which prevents entry of microorganisms in our body.

  1. Acid in the stomach
  2. Saliva in the mouth
  3. Tears from eyes
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 14. Consider the following statements.

  • Lactoferrin and Neuraminic acid are antibacterial substances in human milk.
  • Defensins are antimicrobial peptides secreted by human body against pathogens.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

“common cold differs from pneumonia in that “

  • Lactoferrin and neuraminic acid are effective antibacterial againt E.coli.
  • These are present in human milk.
  • Defensins are diverse members of a large family of antimicrobial peptides, contributing to the antimicrobial action of granulocytes, mucosal host defence in the small intestine and epithelial host defence in the skin and elsewhere.

Question 15. Identify the first line of defence in humans.

  1. Skin
  2. Mucus coating
  3. Lysozyme secretion from eyes
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

The body’s first line of defence against pathogens uses mostly physical and chemical barriers such as sweat in the skin, lysozyme in tears, mucus, acid in the stomach, etc.

Biology MCQs with answers for NEET

Question 16. Natural killer lymphocytes are an example for

  1. Physical barrier
  2. Cytokine barrier
  3. Cellular barrier
  4. Physiological barrier

Answer: 3. Cellular barrier

  • Leukocytes (WBCs) act cellular barriers and are the second line of the innate immune system.
  • The innate leucocytes include the phagocytes, innate lymphoid cells, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils and natural killer cells. Hence, natural killer lymphocytes are an example of cellular barrier.

Question 17. The cytokine barrier among these is

  1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil
  2. Monocyte
  3. Nk cell
  4. Interferon
  5. Macrophage

Answer: 4. Interferon

“virus infected cells secrete proteins called “

  • Polymorphonuclear neutrophils, monocyte, NK cell and macrophage represent cellular barrier of innate immunity and interferon is a cytokine barrier.
  • Cytokines are small protein hormones produced by lymphocytes (helper T-cells), fibroblasts, endothelial cells and antigen-presenting cells.
  • The immune response requires complex interactions between different cells.
  • The communication required for this is mediated by cytokines which act as chemical messengers of immune cells.

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 18. The dead bacteria and pus formation in a wounded region is known as

  1. Inflammatory response
  2. Immune response
  3. Immune reaction
  4. Phagocytic response

Answer: 1. Inflammatory response

Inflammation is the defence reaction of tissue to injury, infection, or irritation by chemicals or physical agents, for example, pus formation in wounded area.

Question 19. Fill in the blanks.

_______ A ______ and ____ B _____ makeup the primary lymphoid organs. They are here that lymphocytes differentiate and form sensitive lymphocytes. These lymphocytes on maturation migrate to ______ C ____ B-lymphocytes develop and mature in the _______D ____Whereas ____E____ matures in the thymus.

  1. A-Liver, B-bone marrow, C-main lymphoid organ, D-thymus, E-T-lymphocyte
  2. A-Bone marrow, B-thymus, C-tertiary lymphoid organs, D-thymus, E-B-lymphocyte
  3. 4-Bone marrow, 5-thymus, C-secondary lymphoid organs, D-bone marrow, 5-T-lymphocyte
  4. 4-Heart, 5-liver, C-main lymphoid organ, D-thymus, 5-B-lymphocyte

Answer: 3. 4-Bone marrow, 5-thymus, C-secondary lymphoid organs, D-bone marrow, 5-T-lymphocyte

NEET Immune System quiz with solutions

Question 20. The location where B-lymphocytes differentiate and mature is in the

  1. Bone marrow
  2. Bursa of Fabricius
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Thymus

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

  • Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are formed.
  • Maturation of β- lymphocytes occurs here. Thymus is the site of
  • T-lymphocyte maturation.
  • Bursa of Fabricius is a lymphoid organ present in birds where lymphocytes differentiate and mature.

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 21. Humoral immunity is also known as

  1. Antibody-mediated immunity
  2. Non-specific immune response
  3. Antigen mediated immunity
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Antibody-mediated immunity

  • Humoral immunity is also known as antibody-mediated immunity.
  • There are five different types, of antibodies produced in our body, for example, IgO, IgA, IgM, IgE and IgG. Because these antibodies are found in the blood, the response is also called as humoral immune response.

Question 22. Which one of the following is related to humoral immunity?

  1. T-lymphocyte
  2. B-lymphocyte
  3. I-lymphocyte
  4. P-lymphocyte

Answer: 2. B-lymphocyte

Humoral immunity consists of antibodies (specialised proteins) that circulate in the body fluids like blood plasma and lymph. B-lymphocytes (cells) produce antibodies that regulate humoral immunity.

Question 23. Humoral immunity is mediated by

  1. Cytotoxic t-cell
  2. Plasma cell
  3. Eosinophil
  4. Neutrophil

Answer: 2. Plasma cell

The humoral immune response is mediated by antibody molecules that are secreted by plasma cells.

Question 24. Which of the following helps in the primary and secondary immune responses?

  1. Immunoglobulins
  2. T-lymphocytes
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Lysozymes

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

  • The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types of lymphocytes present in our blood, i.e. B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
  • The B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to fight them. These proteins are called antibodies. Antibodies are protein molecules and are also called immunoglobins (Igs).

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 25. Immunodeficiency makes a person highly susceptible to infection. It is caused by

  1. Lack of b-cells
  2. Lack of t-cells
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. Lack of WBC

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

  • The B-cells and T-cells are produced in bone marrow. The T-cells (T-helper cells) stimulate B-cells to produce antibodies.
  • Antibodies are the main component of the immune system. Immunodeficiency is characterised by a very low number of circulating lymphocytes (B and T-cells) and the affected persons usually die at an early age.

Question 26. Surgical removal of thymus in a newborn shall result in the failure to produce

  1. Basophils
  2. Neutrophils
  3. B-lymphocyte
  4. T-lymphocyte

Answer: 4. T-lymphocyte

Surgical removal of the thymus in a newborn shall result in failure of production of T-lymphocyte. Thymus provides the microenvironment for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes

NEET expected questions on Immune System 2025

Question 27. Which of the following options represent the first line of defence?

  1. Cerumen
  2. Complement system
  3. Vaginal bacteria
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

All of the given options are represented as the first line of defence. The first line of defence is over the innate immune system. For example, skin, cerumen, vaginal bacteria, complement system, etc.

Question 28. Consider the following statements regarding lymphocytes.

  • T-lymphocytes form Cell-Mediated Immune System (CMIS).
  • The T-lymphocyte cells do not secrete antibodies but help the B-lymphocyte cells to produce them.

“bank of biology class 12 human health and disease “

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The T-lymphocytes mediate Cell-Mediated Immune System (CMIS). The B-lymphocytes produce antibodies. The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B-cells to produce them.

Biology MCQ For NEET With Answers

Question 29. T-lymphocytes differentiate and mature in

  1. Bone marrow
  2. Kidneys
  3. Thyroid
  4. Thymus gland

Answer: 4. Thymus gland

  • T-lymphocytes originate in bonen marrow from lymphatic stem cells and then young lymphocytes migrate into the thymus gland for maturation.
  • Afterwards, they pass on to all the lymphoid tissues of the body and get lodged there.

Question 30. The option containing lymphatic organs is

  1. Thymus, lymph nodes and spleen
  2. Liver, spleen and thymus
  3. Tonsils, payer’s patches and liver
  4. Thymus, liver and tonsils

Answer: 1. Thymus, lymph nodes and spleen

The primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and thymus. The secondary lymphoid organs are spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix. So, option (1) containing lymphatic organ is the thymus, lymph nodes and spleen. Liver is not a lymphoid organ.

Question 31. Which of the following is not a principal lymphoid organ?

  1. Spleen
  2. Kidney
  3. Lymph nodes
  4. Thymus

Answer: 2. Kidney

  • Lymphoid organs are those organs where the origin and/or maturation and proliferation of lymphocytes occurs.
  • Kidney is an excretory organ (present in pair) which is responsible for the excretion of wastes, principally urea from the blood. It is not a principal lymphoid organ.

Question 32. Identify the secondary lymphoid organs.

  1. Spleen
  2. Tonsils
  3. Both (1) and (2)
  4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Spleen and tonsils are called secondary lymphoid organs. After maturation, the lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid organs like the spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix.

Question 33. MALT constitutes about per cent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

  1. 50
  2. 20
  3. 70
  4. 10

Answer: 1. 50

MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and it constitutes about 50 per cent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

Question 34. All of the following are examples of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. Identify the odd one.

  1. Appendix
  2. Peyer’s patches
  3. Tonsils
  4. Liver

Answer: 4. Liver

  • Option (4) is odd because liver is not a lymphoid tissue. The liver is a vital organ present in vertebrates and some other animals.
  • It has a wide range of functions, including detoxification, protein synthesis and production of biochemical necessary for digestion.

NEET Biology Immune System MCQs with explanations

Question 35. A large group of lymphoid tissue present in the respiratory, digestive and urogenital tract are collectively called

  1. MALT
  2. Peyer’s patches
  3. Mucosa lymph nodes
  4. Thymus

Answer: 1. MALT

  • A lymphoid tissue also located within the lining of the major tracts (respiratory, digestive and urogenital tracts) called Mucosa Associated
  • Lymphoid Tissue (MALT). It constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in the human body.

Question 36. Match the following columns.

NEET Biology Immune System MCQs Question 36 Match The Columns

Answer: A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Question 37. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as 

  1. Villi
  2. Peyer’s patches
  3. Rugae
  4. Choroid plexus

Answer: 2. Peyer’s patches

  • Peyer’s patches are a secondary lymphoid organ present in the distal portion of the small intestine.
  • The secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigens, which then proliferate to become effector cells that produce an immune response.

Question 38. The largest lymph organ of the body is

  1. The cervical node
  2. The spleen
  3. The axillary node
  4. Inguinal node

Answer: 2. The spleen

The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. It contains white blood cells that fight infection and disease.

Question 39. Spleen is a storage site for

  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Basophils
  3. Platelets
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 1. Erythrocytes

Spleen is a large reservoir of erythrocytes. The spleen is a large bean-shaped organ. It mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.

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Question 40. Antibodies are

  1. Y-globulins
  2. Albumins
  3. Vitamins
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 1. Y-globulins

Antibodies are Y-globulins and the proteins (immunoglobulins) formed in response to an antigen and they can specifically react with that antigen.

Question 41. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains

  1. Natural killer cells
  2. Monocytes
  3. Macrophages
  4. Immunoglobulin-a

Answer: 4. Immunoglobulin-a

  • Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the mother during initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infant because it contains immunoglobulin-A.
  • The abundant (IgA) protects the infant from several diseases.

Question 42. Antibodies are produced by the

  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Leucocytes
  3. Erythrocytes
  4. None of these

Answer: 1. Lymphocytes

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell, which are an important part of the immune system. Two special types of lymphocytes are present in our blood, i.e. B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes

Question 43. Which of the following is not the class of immunoglobulin?

  1. IgM
  2. IgB
  3. IgA
  4. IgG

Answer: 2. IgB

  • Immunoglobulin (Ig) is one of a group of proteins (globulins) in the body that act as antibodies. They are produced by specialised white blood cells called B-cells and are present in blood serum and other body fluids.
  • There are five classes with distinct immunological and physical properties. These are IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD and IgE. IgB is no such immunoglobin.

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Question 44. Immunoglobulins are made up of

  1. Two polypeptide chains
  2. Four polypeptide chains
  3. Three amino acids
  4. Five nucleotides

Answer: 2. Four polypeptide chains

  • Immunoglobulins are present in serum and provide immunity to body against disease.
  • Each immunoglobulin is made up of four polypeptide chains, i.e. two heavy-weight chains and two lightweight chains.
  • These chains are joined to each other by disulphide bonds.

Question 45. Immunoglobulins are proteins that

  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quaternary

Answer: 4. Quaternary

  • Immunoglobulins or antibodies are large molecules composed of 4 polypeptide chains. It contains 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains, thus forming a tetrameric quaternary structure.
  • The two heavy chains are linked to each other and a light chain each by disulphide bonds. The resulting tetramer has two identical halves which together form the Y-like shape.

Question 46. Which one of the following combinations acts as a usual antigen binding site of an antibody?

  1. Variable regions of a light and another heavy chain
  2. Variable regions of two light chains
  3. Variable regions of two heavy chains
  4. Variable region of a heavy chain and constant region of a light chain

Answer: 1. Variable regions of a light and another heavy chain

  • The antibody molecule is a Y- Y-shaped structure, which consists of two heavy and two light chains.
  • The amino acid sequence at the tips of ‘Y’ varies greatly among different antibodies and comprises variable regions.
  • It includes ends of the light and heavy chains and gives the antibody its specificity for binding antigens.
  • Thus, the antigen binding sites are formed by variable regions of light and heavy chains.

Question 47. The figure given below shows an antibody molecule. Name the parts A, B and C.

  1. A-Light chain, B-Heavy chain, C-Antigen binding site
  2. A-Antibody binding site, B-Light chain, C-Heavy chain
  3. A-Long chain, B-Short chain, C-Antigen binding site
  4. The a-Antibody binding site, B-Long chain, C-Short chain

NEET Biology Immune System MCQs Anti Body Molecule

Answer: 1. A-Light chain, B-Heavy chain, C-Antigen binding site

Question 48. The long chain of antibodies are called

  1. Light chains
  2. Heavy chains
  3. Parallel chains
  4. Antiparallel chains

Answer: 2. Heavy chains

Each antibody molecule consists of two heavy chains and two light chains. The two heavy chains are long chains and these are linked to each other by disulphide bonds. The light chains are small chains.

NEET Biology Mcq Chapter Wise

Question 49. Consider the following statements.

  • IgG has six antigen-binding sites.
  • Both heavy and light chains of immunoglobulins contain variable and constant regions.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect
  2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct
  3. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: 2. Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct

Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct. The incorrect statement can be corrected as IgG has two antigen-binding sites.

Question 50. Antigen binding site in antibody is found between

  1. Two light chains
  2. Two heavy chains
  3. One heavy and one light chain
  4. Changes acoording to the nature of antigen

Answer: 3. One heavy and one light chain

Antigen binding site in antibodies is found between one heavy and one light chain.

Question 51. Four polypeptide chains of an antibody are held together by

  1. Disulphide bond
  2. Glycosidic bond
  3. Phosphodiester bond
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Disulphide bond

The four polypeptide chains of an antibody are held together by disulphide bonds (-S-S-) to form a Y-shaped structure.

Question 52. Antibodies perform their action by

  1. Agglutination
  2. Complex formation
  3. Neutralisation
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

  • Antibodies bind to specific antigens to produce large insoluble complexes which render them harmless and facilitate their destruction by other cells of the immune system this process is called agglutination.
  • T-cells largely recognise proteins that have been processed within antigen-presenting cells and presented on the cell surface in form that is bound to a molecule known as Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC).
  • So, antibodies perform their action by agglutination and complex formation.

Question 53. Consider the following statements.

  • IgE antibodies are produced in an allergic reaction.
  • B-lymphocytes mediate cell-mediated immunity.
  • The yellowish fluid colostrum has abundant IgE antibodies.
  • Spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ.

Choose the correct option.

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. 1 and 2 are correct
  3. 2 and 3 are correct
  4. 3 and 4 are correct
  5. 1 and 4 are correct

Answer: 5. 1 and 4 are correct

Statements 1 and 4 are correct, while 2 and 3 are incorrect. The incorrect statement can be corrected as Colostrum, the first milk secreted by mother is rich in IgA antibody. It provides protection against bacteria and virus. B-lymphocytes mediate

NEET Biology Mcq Chapter Wise

Question 54. Which of the following components are involved in allergic reaction?

  1. IgE and mast cells
  2. IgG and mast cells
  3. IgA and mast cells
  4. IgG and basophils

Answer: 1. IgE and mast cells

  • The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in environment is called allergy.
  • Allergic response mainly involves IgE antibodies and chemicals like histamine and serotonin from mast cells.

Question 55. The mast cell is a cell of the ____ A _____ of vertebrate animals. Mast cells mediate inflammatory responses such as ____ B ___ Mast cells store a number of different chemical mediators including___C __ and ____ D ______

Here A to D refer to

  1. A-bone marrow, B-allergic reactions, C-mucus, D-cerumen
  2. A-immune system, B-allergic reactions, C-histamine, D-serotonin
  3. A-thymus, B-allergic reactions, C-histamine, D-cerumen
  4. A-immune system, B-allergic reactions, C-cerumen, D-serotonin

Answer: 2. A-immune system, B-allergic reactions, C-histamine, D-serotonin

Question 56. Immediate hypersensitivity which results in the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances is mediated by

  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG

Answer: 3. IgE

  • Immediate hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE. The primary cellular component in this hypersensitivity is the mast cell or basophils.
  • The mechanism of reaction involves the production of IgE in response to certain allergens.
  • IgE binds with mast cells or basophils. Subsequent exposure to the same allergen cross-links the cell-bound IgE and triggers the release of various pharmacologically active substances.

NEET mock test on Immune System chapter

Question 57. Identify from the following the substance injected into the patient’s body for determining the cause of allergy.

  1. Pure allergen to which the patient is allergic
  2. IgG
  3. IgE
  4. Steroids

Answer: 1. Pure allergen to which the patient is allergic

For determining the cause of the allergy, the patient is exposed to or injected with very small doses of possible allergens and the reactions studied.

Question 58. Small foreign molecules that do not stimulate antibody formation are

  1. Epitopes
  2. Hapten
  3. Agglutinogens
  4. All of these

Answer: 2. Hapten

Haptens are small foreign molecules that do not stimulate antibody formation. Therefore, these are tagged with macromolecules.

Question 59. Which of the following disease is due to allergic reactions?

  1. Hay fever
  2. Skin cancer
  3. Enteric fever
  4. Malaria

Answer: 1. Hay fever

Hay fever is caused by an allergic response to outdoor or indoor allergens such as pollen, dust mites or tiny flecks of skin and saliva shed by cats, dogs and other animals with fur or feathers.

Question 60. Many children in metropolitan cities of India are suffering from allergies or asthma. The main causes for the same may be

  • Sensitivity to the environment.
  • Because of the environment provided early in life.
  • Modern-day lifestyle.
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 4. 1, 2 and 3

  • Modern-day lifestyle has resulted in a lowering of immunity and more sensitivity to allergens.
  • More and more children in metro cities of India suffer from allergies and asthma due to sensitivity to the environment.
  • This could be because of the protected environment provided early in life.

NEET Biology Mcq

Question 61. Chemical substances such as histamines, vasodilators, bring certain reactions in the body after the introduction of allergens which are called

  1. Anaphylatoxins
  2. Antigen-antibody complexes
  3. Antibodies
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Anaphylatoxins

  • Anaphylatoxins or complement peptides, are fragments (C3a, C4a and C5a) that are produced as part of the activation of the complement system.
  • These are low molecular weight peptides responsible for acute inflammatory responses like smooth muscle contraction, and vasodilation. histamine release, etc.

Question 62. During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals causes the dilation of blood vessels and physiological changes. Such chemicals are

  1. Interferons
  2. Hormones
  3. Histamines
  4. Acetylamine

Answer: 3. Histamines

  • Histamine is released from mast cells during allergic reactions. It can occur in various tissues but is concentrated in connective tissue.
  • It is formed from the amino acid histidine. It causes dilation and increases the permeability of small blood vessels, which results in localised swelling, itching, sneezing and runny eyes and nose.

Question 63. The use of antihistamines and steroids give quick relief from

  1. Nausea
  2. Cough
  3. Headache
  4. Allergy

Answer: 4. Allergy

  • Antihistamines are drugs which are used to treat allergic rhinitis and other allergies.
  • It gives relief when a person has nasal congestion sneezing or hives because of pollen, dust mites or animal allergy. A steroid is a biologically active organic compound.
  • Steroids such as corticosteroids are used in the treatment of allergic reaction by reducing inflammation associated with allergies.

Question 64. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is due to

  1. Aberrant function of immune system
  2. Food habits
  3. Increase in humidity
  4. Increase in temperature

Answer: 1. Aberrant function of immune system

The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment is called allergy. So, hypersensitivity to an allergen is due to aberrant function of immune system.

NEET Biology Immune System practice test online

Question 65. A localised inflammatory response appearing at the site of infection causes redness, swelling, pain and heat due to certain chemicals. They are

  1. Histamine and prostaglandins
  2. Cerumen and mucus
  3. Histamine and cerumen
  4. Prostaglandins and cerumen

Answer: 1. Histamine and prostaglandins

  • Inflammation is the defence reaction of tissue to injury, infection, or irritation by chemicals or physical agents.
  • Cells in the affected tissue release various substances, including histamine, serotonin, kinins and prostaglandins. These cause localised dilation of blood vessels so that fluid leaks out and blood flow is increased.
  • They also attract white blood cells (lymphocytes) to the site. Overall, these responses lead to swelling, redness, heat and often pain. White blood cells, particularly phagocytes, enter the tissue and an immune response is stimulated.

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Question 66. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related to

  1. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
  2. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
  3. Low temperature
  4. Hot and humid environment

Answer: 2. Inhalation of seasonal pollen

  • Inhalation of pollen grains of many species are responsible for some of the severe allergies and bronchial infection.
  • In some people, these often lead to chronic respiratory disorders, asthma, and bronchitis. So, increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to inhalation of seasonal pollen.

Question 67. Pollen-like agents which produce allergy is known as

  1. Antigens
  2. Allergens
  3. Oncogenes
  4. None of these

Answer: 2. Allergens

The substance, which produces an immune response in an individual are called allergens and pollen is one of its examples.

Question 68. Which statement is incorrect?

  • Mast cells and basophils secrete histamine and heparin
  • Mast cells are long-lived, basophils are short-lived
  • Mast cells are smaller than basophils with a bilobed nucleus
  • Mast cells are relatively sessile, basophils are mobile

Answer: 3. Mast cells are smaller than basophils with a bilobed nucleus

The statement in option (3) is incorrect and can be corrected as Mast cells are larger than basophils with a bilobed. Rest statements are correct.

Question 69. Match the types of immunity listed in Column 1 with examples listed in Column 2.

NEET Biology Immune System MCQs Question 69 Match The Column

Answer: A–4, B–5, C–3, D–1

Question 70. People administered with preformed antibodies get

  1. Active immunity kerala
  2. Innate immunity
  3. Autoimmunity
  4. Natural immunity
  5. Passive immunity

Answer: 5. Passive immunity

  • In artificial passive immunity, the resistance is passively transferred to the recipient by the administration of antibodies.
  • This is done by administration of hyperimmune serum of man or animals. The serum contains antibodies.
  • For example, Anti-Tetanus Serum (ATS) is prepared in horses by active immunisation of horses with tetanus toxoid, bleeding them and separating the serum.
  • ATS is used for passive immunisation against tetanus.

Question 71. Active immunity may be produced by

  1. Contracting a disease
  2. Readymade antibodies
  3. Receiving gamma globulin infection
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Active immunity is defined as immunity to a pathogen that occurs following exposure to said pathogen when the body is exposed to a novel disease agent, B cells, a type of WBC create antibodies that assist in destroying or neutralising the disease agent.

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Question 72. If a quick immune response is needed as in tetanus infection, preformed antibodies or antitoxin is injected into the patient’s body. This type of immunisation is called

  1. Active immunisation
  2. Passive immunisation
  3. Innate immunity
  4. Humoral immunity

Answer: 2. Passive immunisation

If a quick immune response is needed as in tetanus infection, preformed antibodies or antitoxin is injected into the patient. This type of immunisation is called passive immunisation.

Question 73. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

  1. When readymade antibodies are directly given, it is called ‘passive immunity
  2. Active immunity is quick and gives full response
  3. Foetus receives some antibodies from the mother, it is an example of passive immunity
  4. When exposed to antigen (living or dead ) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called active immunity

Answer: 2. Active immunity is quick and gives full response

  • The statement in option (2) is wrong and can be corrected as Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response in comparison to passive immunity where preformed antibodies are administered.
  • Rest statements are correct with reference to immunity.

Question 74. The treatment of snake-bite by poly venin is an example of

  1. Artificially acquired active immunity
  2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
  3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. Specific natural immunity

Answer: 2. Artificially acquired passive immunity

Artificially acquired passive immunity is a short-term immunisation by the injection of antibodies, such as infection of antivenin against snake venom.

Question 75. The yellowish fluid ‘colostrum’ secreted by the mammary glands of the mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. This type of immunity is called as

  1. Passive immunity
  2. Active immunity
  3. Acquired immunity
  4. Autoimmunity

Answer: 1. Passive immunity

Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across the placenta or through the mother’s milk to the infant is categorised as passive immunity. In passive immunity, there is transfer of preformed IgA antibodies from host to the recipient.

Question 76. Which among the following refers to immunity transfer of immune produced from an individual to a non-immune individual?

  1. Active
  2. Passive
  3. Cell-mediated
  4. Humoral

Answer: 2. Passive

Passive immunity is a type of acquired immunity in which there is transfer of immune products, like antibodies, etc., to a recipient in a readymade form.

Question 77. Column 1 lists the components of body defence and Column 2 lists the corresponding descriptions. Choose the correct option from those given.

NEET Biology Immune System MCQs Question 77 Match The Column

Answer: A–3, B–4, C–5, D–2

Question 78. Injection of antitoxin or toxoid serum is given to prevent

  1. Diphtheria
  2. Smallpox
  3. Chickenpox
  4. Chronic headache

Answer: 1. Diphtheria

Active immunisation using toxoid, formalin detoxified diphtheria toxin prevents diphtheria.

Question 79. Monoclonal antibodies are used for

  1. Purification of microorganisms for lab and industrial process
  2. Studying life cycle of virus
  3. To study the affect of certain microorganisms
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

  • Monoclonal antibodies are homogeneous immunological reagents of defined specificity, so that these can be utilised for diagnosis and screening with certainty.
  • These can be used in detecting allergies, diagnosing viral diseases and in detecting certain types of cancer.

Question 80. Interferon a type of protein is used in the cure of

  1. Homeostatic disorder
  2. Hepatitis caused by virus
  3. Common cold caused by virus
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3)

Interferon, a kind of protein, is a polypeptide produced by a T-cell infected with a virus that diffuses to surrounding cells and stimulates them to manufacture biochemicals that harm viral replication. It helps in curing hepatitis and the common cold caused by virus.

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Question 81. Passive immunity can be obtained by injecting

  1. Antibodies
  2. Antigens
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Vaccination

Answer: 1. Antibodies

  • Passive immunity is a type of acquired immunity in which there is the transfer of immune products, like antibodies, etc., to a recipient in a readymade form.
  • It is procured by infusing antibodies, sensitised lymphocytes or both from some other person or animal which has been actively immunised against the pathogen or antigen.

Question 82. Magic bullets are

  1. Recombinant drugs
  2. Monoclonal antibodies
  3. Chemotherapy drugs
  4. Anabolic steroids somaclonal antibodies

Answer: 2. Monoclonal antibodies

  • Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific antibodies derived from only one clone of a specific hybridoma cell.
  • They recognise only one specific site of an antigen. These can be used in detecting allergies, diagnosing viral diseases and in detecting certain types of cancer.
  • Monoclonal antibodies are nowadays marketed as magic bullets. The idea of the magic bullet was first proposed by Paul Ehrlich.

Question 83. Suspension of killed or attenuated pathogenic microorganisms on inoculation if stimulate the formation of antibodies, it is known as

  1. Vaccine
  2. Antibiotic
  3. Sera
  4. Antitoxins

Answer: 1. Vaccine

Vaccine contains a dead, attenuated form or antigen of a pathogen which can be injected to provide immunity towards that pathogen.

Question 84. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

  1. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake
  2. The antibodies against smallpox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
  3. Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
  4. Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes

Answer: 1. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake

  • The statement in option (1) is correct with respect to immunity. In snake-bite, the injection which is given to the patients contains preformed antibodies against the snake venom.
  • This type of immunisation is called passive immunisation. Other statements are incorrect and can be corrected as Antibody against smallpox is generated by B-lymphocytes.
  • Antibodies are immunoglobulins which are made up of four peptide chains, i.e. two light and two heavy chains. Rejection of kindney graft is a function of T-lymphocytes.

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Question 85. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in

  1. Defence mechanisms of body
  2. Osmotic balance of body fluids
  3. Oxygen transport in the blood
  4. Clotting of blood

Answer: 1. Defence mechanisms of body

Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in the defence mechanisms of the body. Some examples are rabies immune globulin, Rho (D) immune globulin, specific immune globulin, tetanus immune globulin, etc.

Question 86. Gamma globulins are synthesised in

  1. Liver
  2. Kidney
  3. Bone marrow
  4. Lymphatic tissue

Answer: 4. Lymphatic tissue

Gamma globulins are synthesised in germinal centres of lymphatic tissue.

Question 87. How many polypeptide chains are present in gamma immunoglobulin?

  1. 5
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 2

Answer: 2. 4

  • Gamma immunoglobulin (IgG) has four polypeptide chains. Of the four chains, there are two long chains, called heavy chains and two short chains, called light chains, which may be either lambda or kappa type.
  • The four polypeptide chains are held together by disulphide bonds to form a Y-shaped molecule.

Question 88. Active immunity may be acquired by

  1. Toxoids
  2. Natural infection
  3. Vaccines
  4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Acquired active immunity occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen develops the disease and becomes immune as a result of the primary immune response. Active immunity may be acquired by toxoids, natural infections and vaccines.

Question 89. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by

  1. Thrombocytes
  2. Erythrocytes
  3. T-lymphocytes
  4. B-lymphocytes

Answer: 3. T-lymphocytes

Cell-mediated immunity is mediated by T-lymphocyte. These cells get activated in response to pathogen attack and undergo proliferation and differentiation into various effector cells, for example, T-helper, T-cytotoxic, T-memory cells, etc.

Question 90. Proteins present in our body for self-defence are

  1. Antibodies
  2. Antigens
  3. Hormones
  4. Trypsin or trypsinogen

Answer: 1. Antibodies

  • Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, are Y-shaped proteins that are produced by the immune system to stop intruders from harming the body.
  • When an intruder enters the body, the immune system springs into action. These invaders, which are called Antibodies

Question 91. During blood typing, agglutination indicates that the

  1. RBCs carry certain antigens
  2. Plasma contains certain antigens
  3. RBCs carry certain antibodies
  4. Plasma contains certain antibodies

Answer: 1. RBCs carry certain antigens

Antibodies bind to specific antigens to produce large insoluble complexes which render them harmless and facilitate their destruction by other cells of the immune system. This process is called agglutination, which means that RBCs carry certain antigens.

Question 92. Memory cells are

  1. Cells responsible for immunologic memory
  2. Antigens
  3. Cells of cerebrum
  4. Cells responsible for memory in brain

Answer: 1. Cells responsible for immunologic memory

The memory cells recognise the antigen quickly and control the invaders by producing a large number of lymphocytes and antibodies. These are formed by differentiated T-cells. Thus, memory cells are responsible for immunologic memory.

Question 93. Cyclosporin-A which is used as an immunosuppressive agent, is produced by

  1. Aspergillus
  2. Clostridium
  3. Saccharomyces
  4. Monascus
  5. Trichoderma

Answer: 5. Trichoderma

Cyclosporin-A is a bioactive molecule and is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant patients. It is produced by the fungus, Trichoderma polysporum.

Question 94. Consider the following four statements (1 – 4) regarding kidney transplants and select the two correct ones out of these.

  • Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immunosuppressants for a long time.
  • The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
  • The B-lymphocytes are responsible for the rejection of the graft.
  • The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.

The two correct statements are

  1. 2 and 3
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 1 and 2

Answer: 4. 1 and 2

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while 3 and 4 are incorrect.
  • Incorrect statements can be corrected as The T-lymphocytes are responsible for graft rejection and it depends on cell-mediated immune response.

Question 95. Rejection of transplants is brought about mainly by

  1. Cytotoxic T-cells
  2. Suppressor T-cells
  3. B-cells
  4. Macrophages

Answer: 1. Cytotoxic T-cells

Cytotoxic T-cells cause the rejection of tissue and organ transplants.

Question 96. Assertion (A) Organ transplantation patients are given immunosuppressive drugs. Reason (R) Transplanted tissue has antigens which stimulate the specific immune response of the recipient.

  1. Both A and R are is true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true, but R is false
  4. Both A and R are false

Answer: 1. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Organ transplantation patients are given immunosuppressive drugs because transplanted tissue less antigens which stimulate the specific immune response of the recipient both.

Question 97. Xenograft means

  1. A graft between two genetically identical individuals
  2. A graft in which a tissue is grafted from one individual to another individual of the same species
  3. A graft between individuals of different species
  4. Tissue grafted from one area to another of the same individual

Answer: 3. A graft between individuals of different species

Xenograft (heterograft) is a living tissue graft that is made from an animal of one species to another of a different species. For example, attempts have been made to graft animal organs into humans.

Question 98. Vaccines are not given through route.

  1. Intramuscular
  2. Intravenous
  3. Oral
  4. Subcutaneous

Answer: 2. Intravenous

Vaccines are not given intravenously. It helps to preserve the immunogenicity of the vaccine and minimise its adverse effects.

Question 99. Vaccines are prepared from

  1. Attenuated pathogen
  2. Activated pathogens
  3. Disease-causing active pathogens
  4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Attenuated pathogen

A vaccine contains a dead, attenuated form or antigen of a pathogen which can be injected to provide immunity towards that pathogen. Vaccines are made from microbes that are dead or inactive so that they are unable to cause the disease.

Question 100. Vaccination protects a person from disease because it

  1. Helps in better digestion
  2. Increases RBC count
  3. Stimulates the production of antibodies
  4. Improves healing system

Answer: 3. Stimulates production of antibodies

Vaccination protects a person from disease because it stimulates the production of antibodies.

Question 101. Vaccination provides

  1. Natural immunity
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Active immunity
  4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 3. Active immunity

Vaccines provide artificial active acquired immunity to disease.

Question 102. Vaccine prepared through genetic engineering is different from other vaccines in which following respect?

  1. Attenuated pathogens
  2. Purified antigens of pathogens
  3. Purified antibodies from other animals
  4. Purified antibodies by hybridoma techniques

Answer: 4. Purified antibodies by hybridoma techniques

Hybridoma technology is a method for producing large numbers of identical antibodies (also called monoclonal antibodies). This process starts by injecting a mouse (or other mammal) with an antigen that provokes an immune response.

Question 103. What is not true about the purpose of vaccination?

  1. It prevents the entry of pathogenic germs into the body
  2. It increases the level of resistance of the body by increased the quantum of specific antibodies
  3. With secondary infection, there is a prompt spurt of production of specific antibodies
  4. Even with a second attack, the virulence of the disease is lowered down very much

Answer: 1. It prevents the entry of pathogenic germs into the body

  • All given options are true about the purpose of vaccination except option (1) because Vaccination does not prevent the entry of concerned pathogenic germs into the body.
  • But, it increases the body capacity to resist the adverse effects of the pathogen by stimulating the body to produce a spurt of required antibodies.
  • Thus, even with second attack, the virulence of the disease is lowered down very much.

Question 104. Generally, the number of vaccinations given is to obtain complete immunity.

  1. 2 to 3
  2. Only 2
  3. Only 3
  4. Only 4

Answer: 1. 2 to 3

  • Vaccines work to prime the immune system against future ‘attacks’ by a particular disease.
  • There are vaccines against both viral and bacterial pathogens or disease-causing agents. To obtain complete immunity, generally, the number of vaccination given is 2 to 3.

Question 105. After vaccination, the body builds up

  1. Toxins
  2. Lymph
  3. Antibodies
  4. Plasma

Answer: 3. Antibodies

  • Our body continues making antibodies and memory B-cells for a couple of weeks after vaccination.
  • Over time, the antibodies will gradually disappear, but the memory B-cells remain dormant in the body for many years.

Question 106. The vaccine for hepatitis B is obtained from

  1. Yeast
  2. Bacteriophage
  3. Bacteria
  4. All of these

Answer: 1. Yeast

The human hepatitis-B virus vaccine is prepared by using antigen produced by recombinant technology in yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae).

Question 107. Vaccine for tuberculosis is known as

  1. PAS vaccine
  2. BCG vaccine
  3. OPV
  4. DPT

Answer: 2. BCG vaccine

  • Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that may affect almost any tissue of the body, especially lungs.
  • Many countries use Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine as part of their TB control programmes, especially for infants. The BCG vaccine is one of the most widely used of all current vaccines reaching 80% of neonates and infants in countries with a national vaccination schedule.

Question 108. Match the vaccines and their mode of immunisation given in Column 1 and Column 2.

NEET Biology Immune System MCQs Question 108 Match The Column

Answer: A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3

Question 109. Edward Jenner is the discoverer of

  1. BCG
  2. Immunisation against polio
  3. Vaccination against smallpox
  4. Immunisation against smallpox

Answer: 3. Vaccination against smallpox

Edward Jenner observed the immunity to smallpox in milkmaids who were liable to occupational cowpox infection. He introduced the technique of vaccination using cowpox material (1796).

Question 110. MMR, a vaccine, stands for

  1. Measles, Mumps, Rubella
  2. Measles, Mumps, Ranikhet
  3. Mumps, Measles, Rabies
  4. Mumps, Malaria, Rabies

Answer: 1. Measles, Mumps, Rubella

MMR stands for Measles, Mumps and Rubella. These are three different diseases which are caused by three different viruses.

Question 111. Which disease is not cured by triple antigens?

  1. Tetanus
  2. Diphtheria
  3. Whooping cough
  4. Typhoid

Answer: 4. Typhoid

DPT is effective against diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough) and tetanus. Typhoid is not cured by it.

Question 112. Vaccination of malaria is not possible because

  1. They produce antibodies and antitoxins
  2. They do not produce antibodies and antitoxins
  3. Antibodies resistant to vaccines are produced
  4. None of the above

Answer: 2. They do not produce antibodies and antitoxins

Vaccine for malaria is not feasible because Plasmodium do not stimulate the development of antibodies and antitoxins.

Question 113. Which one of the following cannot be used for preparation of vaccines against the plague?

  • Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria
  • A-virulent living bacteria
  • Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material
  • Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria

Answer: 3. Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material

  • Synthetic polysaccharide vaccines are commercially available for the treatment in which the key carbohydrate antigens of the pathogens are produced synthetically.
  • This type of synthetic vaccine is used for the treatment of pneumonia (not plague) Streptococcus pneumonia, influenza (Hemophilus influenza).
  • Vaccine preparation for plague involves killed pathogenic organisms by heat/ultraviolet rays, alcohol/formalin/phenol or inactivated virulent (a-virulent) pathogens (Yersinia pestis, a bacterium).

Question 114. The function of vaccine is the production and storage of

  1. Antigens
  2. Immune bodies
  3. Immune reactions
  4. Antibodies

Answer: 4. Antibodies

The function of a vaccine is the production and storage of antibodies. The vaccine contains a dead, attenuated form or antigen of a pathogen which can be injected to provide immunity towards that pathogen.

Question 115. How does vaccination work?

  1. The immune system produces antibodies which stay in the blood
  2. Memory lymphocytes are produced to fight off any future infection
  3. Dead pathogen stays in the body and constantly stimulates the immune system
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

  • A vaccine works by training the immune system to recognise and combat pathogens either viruses or bacteria.
  • To do this certain molecules from the pathogen must be introduced into the body to trrigger an immune response.
  • These molecules are called antigens and they are present on all viruses and bacteria.

Question 116. After vaccination, the dose given for the immunisation is known as

  1. Essential dose
  2. Deficient dose
  3. Booster dose
  4. Resistant dose

Answer: 3. Booster dose

A booster dose is given at some time after an initial dose to enhance the effect, said usually of antigens for the production of antibodies.

Question 117. BCG is a type of vaccine.

  1. Live attenuated
  2. Recombinant antigen
  3. Toxoid
  4. Live vector

Answer: 1. Live attenuated

BCG is a type of live attenuated vaccine in which weakened pathogens are injected in the body to elicit immune response.

Question 118. Bence-Jones protein is

  1. A vaccination
  2. An antigen
  3. An immunoglobulin light chain often found in patients with myeloma
  4. Both (2) and (3)

Answer: 3. An immunoglobulin light chain often found in patients with myeloma

  • Bence-Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein or immunoglobulin light chain found in the urine, with a molecular weight of 22-24 kDa.
  • Detection of Bence-Jones protein may be suggestive of multiple myeloma or Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia.
  • Bence-Jones proteins are present in 2/3 of multiple myeloma cases.

Question 119. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish between self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to

  1. Allergic response
  2. Graft rejection
  3. Autoimmune disease
  4. Active immunity

Answer: 3. Autoimmune disease

If self and non-self-recognition power is lost then immune cells can attack our own body cells and cause an autoimmune disease.

Question 120. Which one of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

  1. Graves’ disease
  2. Pernicious anaemia
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. Insomnia

Answer: 4. Insomnia

Insomnia is not an autoimmune disease. It is the inability to fall asleep which may be associated with physical disease, particularly if there are painful symptoms and depression, etc.

Question 121. An immune disease in which the body destroys the ill-functioning thyroid gland is called

  1. Cretinism
  2. Myxedema
  3. Simmond’s disease
  4. Hashimoto’s disease

Answer: 4. Hashimoto’s disease

Hashimoto’s disease or Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, is an autoimmune disease that damages the thyroid gland. It affects more women than men. It is the most common cause of hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid).

Question 122. Myasthenia gravis is an example of

  1. Viral diseases
  2. Immunodeficient diseases
  3. Autoimmune diseases
  4. Allergic reactions

Answer: 3. Autoimmune diseases

Myasthenia gravis is an example of an autoimmune disease which affects the neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.

Question 123. In myasthenia gravis, acetylcholine

  1. Receptors on motor end plate are reduced
  2. Secretion from nerve terminals is reduced
  3. Esterase activity is inhibited
  4. Secretion from nerve terminals is enhanced

Answer: 1. Receptors on motor end plate are reduced

  • Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which autoantibodies bind to cholinergic receptors on muscle cells which impairs the ability of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine to induce muscular contraction.
  • In myasthenia gravis, acetylcholine receptors on motor end plate are reduced.

Question 124. The immunological destruction of tissues of their products in the host, to the immunological reaction of autoantigens and autoantibodies are called as

  1. Prophylaxis
  2. Anaphylaxis
  3. Autoimmune diseases
  4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Autoimmune diseases

  • Autoimmune diseases are certain unrelated disorders caused by inflammation and destruction of tissues by the body’s own immune response.
  • These disorders include acquired haemolytic anaemia, pernicious anaemia, rheumatic fever, rheumatoid arthritis, glomerulonephritis, etc.

Question 125. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? 

  1. Psoriasis
  2. Vitiligo
  3. Alzheimer’s disease
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: 3. Alzheimer’s disease

  • Psoriasis, vitiligo and rheumatoid arthritis are all autoimmune disorders in which antibodies are produced against our own immune system.
  • Alzheimer’s is caused by brain cell death. It is a neurodegenerative disease. There is progressive brain cell death that happens over time.

 

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