WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Acids, Bases And Salts

Acids, Bases And Salts Very Short Answer Type:

Question 1. The aqueous solution of HCI gives the acid character. Which ion is responsible for it?
Answer: Hydronium ion (H3O+).

Question 2. Give the name and formula of the anion present in aqueous solution of bases.
Answer: Hydroxyl ion (OH).

Question 3. What is the nature of aqueous solution of carbon dioxide?
Answer: Acidic

Question 4. What type of salt is this — NaHCO3?
Answer: Acidic.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 5.

What is the use of methyl orange?
Answer: It is used as an indicator.

Question 6. Give an example of 2 neutral oxides.
Answer: Carbon monoxide (CO)

Question 7. What is the nature of ZnO?
Answer: Amphoteric oxide.

Question 8. Give an example of an acid which has oxidising properties.
Answer: Nitric acid (HNO3).

Question 9. What will be the colour of the solution if a few drops of phenolphthalein are added in the aqueous solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate?
Answer: Colourless.

Question 10. Which one is used in vanishing colour NH4OH or NaOH?
Answer: NH4OH.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 11. What is the basicity of CH3COOH?
Answer: The basicity of CH3COOH is 1.

Question 12. Give an example of an oxide of metal which is not basic.
Answer: Mn3O4

Question 13. Give an example of an organic base.
Answer: Methyl amine (CH3NH2).

Question 14. Give an example of an inorganic gaseous compound which has basic properties.
Answer: Ammonia (NH3).

Question 15. Name a normal salt and an acid salt of the same acid.
Answer: Normal salt-sodium sulphate (Na2SO4) and acid salt-sodium bisulphate (NaHSO4) of acid H2SO4.

Question 16. Name a normal salt whose aqueous solution is basic.
Answer: Aqueous solution of sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is basic.

Question 17. What is an oxide?
Answer: An oxide is a compound of oxygen formed with another element.

Question 18. Name 2 different classes of oxides. 
Answer: Basic oxide and acidic oxide are two different classes of oxides.

Question 19. Name a binary compound of oxygen which is not an oxide.
Answer: Oxygen fluoride (OF2).

Question 20. What is an indicator?
Answer: An indicator is some weak organic acid or base which indicates distinctive colours in acid, alkali and neutral solutions.

Question 21. Which element is present in all acids?
Answer: Hydrogen is present in all acids.

Question 22. Which ion does an acid generate in an aqueous solution?
Answer: An acid generates hydrogen ion (H+) in aqueous solution.

Question 23. Why are CaH2 and CH4, not acids?
Answer: CaH2 and CH4 do not produce H+ ions in an aqueous solution, so they are not acids, for every acid produces H+ ions in an aqueous solution.

Question 24. Which ions disappear in neutralization?
Answer: H+ ions generated by acid and OH ions generated by alkali disappear in a neutralization process.

Question 25. Name an acid salt and write its formula.
Answer: Sodium bisulphate is an acid salt. Its formula is NaHSO4.

Question 26. What is meant by dissociation?
Answer: The process of breaking a substance (electrolyte) into its constituent ions in solution is called dissociation. or ionisation.

Question 27. Which element must an acid contain?
Answer: Hydrogen.

Question 28. Give an example of normal salt.
Answer: Sodium chloride (NaCl).

Question 29. Which indicator is used in the titration of strong acid and weak base?
Answer: Methyl Orange.

Question 30. Name an acid salt.
Answer: Sodium bisulphate (NaHSO4).

Question 31. Which ions disappear in neutralization?
Answer: H+ ions generated by acid OH ions generated by alkali disappear in a neutralization process.

Question 32. What is an oxide?
Answer: An oxide is a compound of oxygen formed with another element.

Question 33. Name a tribasic acid.
Answer: Phosphoric acid (H2PO4).

Question 34. Give an example of an organic acid.
Answer: Formic acid (HCOOH).

Question 35. What is the neutralisation reaction?
Answer: The reaction in which an equivalent amount of an acid reacts with a base is called a neutralisation reaction.

Question 36. Give an example of a neutral oxide.
Answer: Carbon monoxide (CO)

Question 37. What is a vanishing colour?
Answer: The aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide mixed with phenolphthalein is called vanishing colour.

Question 38. What will be the colour of the solution if a few drops of phenolphthalein are added to in aqueous solution of sodium carbonate?
Answer: Pink colour.

Question 39. Which indicator is used in the titration of a weak acid and a strong base?
Answer: Phenolphthalein.

Question 40. What is the nature of ZnO?
Answer: Amphoteric oxide.

Question 41. How many replaceable hydrogen atoms are present in sulphuric acid?
Answer: Two replaceable hydrogen atoms are present in sulphuric acid.

Question 42. Give an example of a double salt.
Answer: K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3 , 24H2O.

Question 43. Give an example of an oxide of metal which is not basic.
Answer: Mn3O4.

Question 44. What is the acidity of NaOH?
Answer: The acidity of NaOH is 1.

Question 45. What is the basicity of  CH3COOH?
Answer: The basicity of CH3COOH is 1.

Acids, Bases And Salts 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. What are mineral acids?
Answer:

Acids HCl, H2 SO4, HNO3 etc. are called mineral acids because all are derived from minerals. Mineral acids are strong acids also called inorganic acids.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science

Question 2. What is a universal indicator?
Answer:

A universal indicator is a mixture of indicators, often sold ready-made as a solution, which can indicate pH values, usually in a range of 3 – 11. When this universal indicator is added in a solution, its colour changes and is then matched with the given indicator colour.

Question 3. Can a vanishing colour be prepared with a dilute NaOH solution?
Answer:

Vanishing colour cannot be prepared with dilute NaOH solution because sodium hydroxide (NaOH) does not evaporate.

Question 4. Why is an acid called a proton donor?
Answer:

Acid is called a proton donor: Acids produce cation (H+) in aqueous solution. H+ is nothing but a proton. So acid is called a proton donor.

Question 5. Why is alkali called a proton acceptor?
Answer:

Alkali is called a proton acceptor: Alkali produces hydroxyl ion (OH) in an aqueous solution, and hydroxyl accepts a proton (H+) coming from an aqueous solution of acid to produce neutral water. So, alkali is called a proton acceptor.

Question 6. Aqueous solution of HCl turns blue litmus red but HCl vapour does not, why?
Answer:

Reason: HCl vapour is a covalent compound, so it does not ionise in the vapour state. In an aqueous solution, HCI produces H3O+ (hydronium ion) and acts as an electrovalent compound which turns blue litmus red.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 7. Sodium carbonate is a neutral salt, but its aqueous solution is alkaline in nature, why?
Answer:

Reason: Sodium carbonate reacts with water and produces caustic soda, a strong alkali, and a weak acid, carbonic acid. Due to strong alkali, after neutralisation of H*, there is excess OH (hydroxyl ion) in the solution. So the solution will be alkaline.

Equation : Na2CO3 + H2O \(\rightleftharpoons\)(Na+ + OH) +H2CO3

Question 8. What do you mean by the acidity of a base?
Answer:

The acidity of a base is expressed by the number of hydroxyl groups present in each molecule of the base.

For example :

Base Acidity
NaOH, KOH 1. (Monoacidic base)
Ca(OH)l2, Zn(OH)l2, Mg(OH)l2 2. (Diacidic base)
AI(OH)3 3. (Triacidic base)

The acidity of a base (metallic oxide) which does not contain a (OH) group is measured by the number of molecules of a monobasic acid required to react completely with one molecule of it to produce salt and water.

CaO + 2HCI = CaCl2 + H2O (Acidity of CaO is 2)

MgO + 2HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + H2O (Acidity of Mg is 2)

Question 9. Point out the differences between bases and alkalis.
Answer:

Differences between bases and alkalis: A base may or may not be soluble in water but all alkalis are soluble in water. So all alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis. NaOH is an alkali because it is soluble in water. Al(OH)3 is water insoluble. So it is a base but not an alkali.

Question 10. Which ions disappear in a neutralization reaction? Explain with an example.
Answer:

H+ ions generated by acid and OH ions generated by alkali disappear in a neutralization reaction.

Example : 2HCI + Ca(OH)2 = CaCl2 + 2H2O. In this reaction, ions form as Ca(OH)2 \(\rightleftharpoons\)Ca2+ + 2OH

2HCI\(\rightleftharpoons\) 2H+ +  2Cl.

Here, H+ ions generated from HCI combine with OH ions generated from Ca(OH) producing water molecules.

Question 11. What colours are produced when a drop of methyl orange is added separately to the aqueous solution of sodium carbonate and ammonium sulphate?
Answer:

Yellow in the first case and pink-red in the latter, for, the aqueous solution of the former is alkaline and that of the latter is acidic. (Na2CO3 + 2H2O = 2NaOH + H2CO3) NaOH is a strong alkali while H2CO3 is a weak acid.

Again, (NH4)2SO4+ 2H2O = 2NH,OH + H2SO here H2SO is a strong acid but NH4OH is a weak alkali.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science

Question 12. Why does the reddish violet colour of a phenolphthalein-mixed KOH solution gradually decolourise when air is blown into it with the help of a pipe?
Answer:

When air is blown, CO2 gas mixes with the water of the alkaline KOH-solution producing carbonic acid (H2CO3), which in turn, neutralizes the given solution for which phenolphthalein turns colourless.

Question 13. What are oxides? What are the types of oxides?
Answer:

Oxides: Binary compounds of oxygen with any element (metallic and non-metallic) are called oxides.

Types of oxides :
(1) Acidic oxiae
(2) Basic oxide
(3) Neutral oxide
(4) Amphoteric oxide
(5) Peroxide
(6) Mixed oxide
(7) Polyoxide
(8) Sub-oxide
(9) Superoxide.

Question 14. Define acidic oxide.
Answer:

Acidic oxide: An acidic oxide is an oxide of a non-metal usually. It reacts with an alkali or a base to form salt and water.
Examples : CO2, SO2, P2O5 , etc.

Question 15. Define basic oxide.
Answer:


Basic oxide:
A basic oxide is an oxide of a metal usually. It reacts with an acid to produce salt and water.
Examples: CaO, MgO, CuO, etc.

Question 16. Define neutral oxide.
Answer:

Neutral oxide: The oxides of certain non-metals which neither react with acid nor with base are called neutral oxides.
Examples: CO, H2O, NO, etc.

Question 17. Define amphoteric oxide.
Answer:

Amphoteric oxide: The oxides of certain weak electropositive metals which react with both acids and bases to form salt and water are called’ amphoteric oxides.
Examples: Al2O3, ZnO, PbO, etc.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science

Question 18. Define normal salts.
Answer:

Normal salts: The salts produced by complete displacement of all the replaceable hydrogen atom or atoms present in the molecule of an acid by a metal or.a group equivalent to a metal, are called normal salts.

Question 19. What are alkalis?
Answer:

Alkalis: Water-soluble hydroxides of metals are called alkalis.
Examples: NaOH, KOH, etc.

Question 20. What are salts? What are the types of salts?
Answer:

Salts: The replaceable hydrogen atoms in acid, when replaced by meta! or basic radical partially or fully then the compound so produced is called salt.
Types of salts :
(1) Normal salt
(2) Acid salt
(3) Basic salt
(4) Double salt
(5) Complex salt.

Question 21. What are bases?
Answer:

Bases: A base in general is an oxide or hydroxide of a metal and when reacts with an acid produces salt and water.
Examples: Al2O3, Al(OH)3, CaO, etc.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 22. What are acids?
Answer:

Acids: Ordinarily, an acid is a compound, the molecule of which contains one or more hydrogen atoms replaceable partially or completely, directly or indirectly by a metal or a group of elements behaving like a metal to form salt.

Examples: HCl, H2SO4, HNO3, etc.

Question 23. Define acid salts ‘or bi-salts.
Answer:

Acid-salts or bi-salts: The salts produced by the partial displacement of the replaceable hydrogen atoms present in the molecule of an acid by a metal or a radical acting like a metal, are known as acid-salts or bi-salts.

Examples : NaHSO4, NaHCO3, Na2HPO4 etc.

Question 24. How does vanishing colour act 
Answer:

Action of vanishing colour: When the pink colour solution of vanishing colour is spread on a white linen, the linen turns pink. On allowing the pink-coloured wet linen to dryin air, the ammonia of the solution evaporates and the linen assumes its original white colour.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 25. Define basic salt.
Answer:

Basic salt: Salts formed by the partial displacement of oxide or hydroxide of alkalis by acid are known as basic salt.

Examples : Pb(OH)CI, Pb(OH)NO3, etc.

Question 26. What is a vanishing colour? How is it prepared?
Answer:

Vanishing colour: It is a coloured solution which becomes colourless on exposure to air for a length of time.Preparation of vanishing colour: It is a dilute solution of ammonia in water with a few drops of phenolpthalein. Its colour is deep pink.

Question 27. Define double salt.
Answer:

Double salt: It is formed by the association of two or more normal salts.

Examples: K2SO4.Al,(SO4)3, 24H2O; (NH4)2 SO4.FeSO4, 6H2O, etc.

Question 28. Which ions disappear in neutralisation?
Answer:

lons disappear in neutralisation: H+ ions generated by acid and OH- ions generated by alkali disappear in a neutralisation process.

Question 29. Define complex salt.
Answer:

Complex salt: Complex salts contain complex ions which seem to be a complete salt.

Example : K4[Fe(CN)6], [Cu(NH3)4]SI4, [Ag(NH3)2Cl], etc.

Question 30. What is an indicator?
Answer:

Indicator: It is some weak organic acid or base which indicates distinctive colours in acid, alkali and neutral solutions,

Question 31. What is neutralisation ?
Answer:

Neutralisation: It is the process in which acids and alkalis in equivalent quantities in their aqueous solutions react to produce salt and the neutral substance water.

Question 32. What do you mean by titration?
Answer:

Titration: The process by which bases are neutralised with the help of acids or vice-versa.

Question 33. Why are CaH2 and CH4, not acids?
Answer:

CaH2 and CH4 are not acids: Calcium hydride (CaH2) and methane (CH4) do not produce H+ ions in aqueous solution, so these are not acids, for every acid produces H+ ions in aqueous solution.

Acids, Bases And Salts 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. Classify acids with definitions of the types of acids and their respective examples.
Answer:

Acids are classified in many ways :

(1) based on composition :

Based on composition, acids can be classified into major two types :
(1) Hydracids and
(2) Oxy acids.

(1) Hydracids: The acids which contain hydrogen and a non-metallic element (other than oxygen) or a radical are known as hydracids.
For example:
HCI (Hydrochloric acid)
HI (Hydroiodic acid),
HCN (Hydrocyanic acid), etc.

(2) Oxyacids: The acids which contain oxygen besides hydrogen and a non-metallic element or a radical are called oxy-acids.

Examples of oxy-acids are :
HNO3 (Nitric acid),
H2SO4 (Sulphuric acid),
H3PO4 (Phosphoric acid), etc.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

(2) According to sources :

According to sources, acids can be classified into:
(1) Inorganic acids and
(2) Organic acids.

(1) Inorganic acids: Those acids which are derived from inorganic sources (e.g. – minerals) are known as inorganic acids. For example – Hydrochloric acid (obtained from common salt NaCl), nitric acid (obtained from sodium or potassium nitrate), sulphuric acid (from sulphur), phosphoric acid (obtained from calcium phosphate), etc.

(2) Organic acids: The acids which contain carbon as an essential element and can be obtained from either plants or animals are designated as organic acids. Formic acid(HCOOH), acetic acid (CH3COOH), etc. are some of the organic acids.

(3) According to oxidising power, acids are also classified as:
(1) oxidising acid and
(2) non-oxidising acid.

(1) Oxidising acid: Acids which easily dissociate in normal conditions and produce nascent oxygen are known as oxidising acids:

Examples:

(1) Dissociation of concentrated sulphuric acid: H2SO4 H2O + SO2 + [O].
(2) Dissociation of concentrated nitric acid: 2HNO3 H2O + 2NO2 + [O].

The nascent oxygen atoms produced from these acids oxidise other substances, for this reason, they are called oxidising acids.

(2) Non-oxidising acids: Non-oxidising acids are those which do not give off nascent oxygen on dissociation.
Examples: Dilute sulphuric acid (H2SO4), hydrochloric acid (HCI), hydrocyanic. acid (HCN), organic acids, like formic acid (HCOOH), acetic acid (CH2COOR), etc.

(4) based on concentration: According to concentration, acids are of two types:
(1) Concentrated acid and
(2) Dilute acid.

(1) Concentrated acid: The acids which have less quantity of water in them are called concentrated acids.
Examples: conc. H2SO4, conc. HCl, etc.

(2) Dilute acids: Those acids which have more quantity of water mixed with them are called ditute acids.
Examples: dil. H2SO4, dil. HCl, etc.

(5) based on Basicity :

Definition of Basicity of acid: Basicity of an acid is its power of neutralising a base and it is measured by the number of replaceable hydrogen atoms present in one molecule of it.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

According to basicity, acids are classified into three types:
(1) Monobasic acids
(2) Dibasic acids and
(3) Tribasic acids.

(1) Monobasic acids: Those acids which have only one replaceable hydrogen atom in their one molecule are called monobasic acids.

Examples: Hydrochloric acid (HCI), nitric acid (HNO), hydrocyanic acid (HCN), perchloric acid (HCIO4), formic acid (HCOOH), acetic acid (CH3COOH), etc.

(2) Dibasic acids: Those acids which have only two replaceable hydrogen atoms in their one molecule are called dibasic acids.

Examples: Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Carbonic acid (H2CO3), hypophosphorous acid (H3PO2), etc.

(3) Tribasic acids: Those acids which have only three replaceable hydrogen atoms in their one molecule are known as tribasic acids. Phosphoric acid (H3PO4), citric acid (C6H8O7), etc.

Question 2. What is meant by ionisation? Explain with an example.
Answer:

ionisation: The process of breaking up any compound into positively charged and negatively charged atoms or groups of atoms. by the mere process of dissolution is called ionisation. The positively charged particles are called cations and negatively charged particles are called anions.

Example: When common salt, i.e., sodium chloride (NaCl) is dissolved in water, it breaks up into positively charged sodium ions (Na+, cation) and negatively charged chloride ions (Cl, anions) by the solvating action of water. This process of ionisation may be expressed by the equation.

NaCl \(\rightleftharpoons\) Na++ Cl.

The process of ionisation is a reversible one (indicated by = sign), and consequently, an equilibrium is established between the ions and undissociated molecules.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9

Question 3. Calcium, sodium, sulphur, phosphorus, and carbon are burnt completely in separate oxygen jars. Each product is treated with water and then every solution is tested with blue and red litmus papers. Now complete the table.

Answer:

Elements Change of colour
(1)    Equation of reaction with oxygen.
(2)    Equation of reaction of product with water.
Blue litmus Red litmus
1. Calcium (1)    2Ca+O2= 2CaO
(2)    CaO + H2O= Ca(OH)2
   blue
2. Sodium (1)    2Na+O2= Na2O2
(2)    2Na2O2+2H2O=4NaOH +O2
   blue
3. Sulphur (1)    S+O2 = SO2
(2)    SO2 + H2 O = H2SO3
  red
4. Phosphorus (1)    4P + 5O2 = 2P2 O5
(2)    P2O5+3H2O= 2H3PO4
  red
5. Carbon (1)    C +O2 = CO2
(2)    CO2 +H2 O = H2 CO3
  red


Question 4. What is Arrhenius’s concept of acid?

Answer:

Arrhenius’s concept of acid: According to Arrhenius, a Swedish scientist, an acid is a chemical compound that dissociates in water, producing H+ ions (cations) as the only Positive ions. H* ion is called proton. So, an acid is known as a proton donor. But H+ (proton) does not remain in a free state in solution; it attains stability being attached to a molecule of the solvent. In water solution proton combines with a water molecule to produce hydronium ion H3O+.

Examples : HCl + H2O \(\rightleftharpoons\)H3O+ + CI

HNO3 + H2O \(\rightleftharpoons\) H3O+ + NO3

Question 5. All acids are hydrogen compounds but all hydrogen compounds are not acids. Explain.
Answer:

Explanation: It is to be noted that any acid contains hydrogen but any compound containing hydrogen is not an acid. A compound containing one or more than one hydrogen atom in its molecule will be termed as acid only when its hydrogen atom or atoms are replaceable by metal and the product thus obtained must be a salt.

Example: None of the four hydrogen atoms of methane (CH4) can be replaced by a metal. Metals like sodium, and potassium displace hydrogen from water (H2O) but the product obtained in each case is not a salt. So, methane and water, though they contain hydrogen atoms in their molecules, are not acids.

Question 6. What are the important properties of acids?
Answer:

Important properties of acids :

(1) Taste: Generally, the aqueous solutions of acids have a sour taste.

(2) Colour changes of certain substances called indicators: Acids turn blue litmus solutions red. :

(3) In aqueous solution, the acids conduct electricity.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9

(4) Reactions with metals: The solutions of acids in water react with many metals like zinc, magnesium, iron, etc. which are more electropositive than hydrogen with the liberation of hydrogen gas and formation of corresponding salts.

(5) Reactions with oxides and hydroxides of metals: Acids react with metallic oxides or hydroxides producing salts and water.

(6) Reactions with carbonates and bicarbonates: Acids are also characterised by their tendency to react with metal carbonates and bicarbonates evolving carbon dioxide.

(7) According to Arrhenius’s theory of electrolytic dissociation, the acids in aqueous solutions produce hydrogen ions as the positive ions or cations.

Question 7. What is Arrhenius’s concept of base?
Answer:

Arrhenius’s concept of base: According to Arrhenius, a base is a chemical compound which produces OH- ions (hydroxyl ions) as the only anions when these are dissolved in water.

Examples : CaO + H2O \(\rightleftharpoons\) Ca(OH); Ca(OH)2 \(\rightleftharpoons\) Ca2+ + 2OH

NaOH = Na+ + OH

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 8.

Discuss the role of indicators in the case of titration.
Answer:

Uses of indicators in neutralisation reaction: Indicators which can determine the end-point of the neutralisation reaction are given below

Indicator Colour changes in
Neutral Solution Acidic Solution Alkaline Solution
1. Litmus Violet Red Blue
 2. Methyl-orange Orange Red Yellow
3. Phenolphthalein Colourless Colourless Pink


The selection of a suitable indicator to determine the correct end-point of a reaction :

(1) Strong acid and weak base: Methyl orange

(2) Weak acid and strong base: Phenolphthalein

(3) Strong acid and strong base: Any indicator

(4) Weak acid and weak base: No suitable indicator.

Question 9. State the properties of acids and bases about indicators.
Answer:

Properties of acids about indicators: The aqueous solution of acids turn :
(1) Blue litmus to red
(2) Orange-coloured methyl orange to pinkish red
(3) Phenolphthalein remains colourless in aqueous solutions of an acid.

Properties of bases about indicators: The aqueous solution of bases turn:
(1) Red litmus to blue
(2) Orange-coloured methyl! orange to yellow
(3) Colourless. phenolphthalein solution to pink.

Question 10. What is the basicity of an acid and what is the acidity of a base?
Answer:

Basicity of an acid: Basicity of an acid is expressed by the number of replaceable hydrogen atoms present in each molecule of the acid.

Example :

Monobasic acid : (i.e., basicity is 1): HCl, HNO3

Dibasic acid (i.e., basicity is 2): H2 SO4, H2 CO3.

Tribasic acid : (i.e., basicity is 3): In H3PO4

Acidity of a base: Acidity of a base is expressed by the number of hydroxyl groups present in each molecule of the base.

Example :

Monoacidic base : NaOH, KOH.

Diacidic base : Ca(OH)2 , Mg(OH)2

Triacidic base : Al(OH)3.

Question 11. All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis —Explain.
Answer:

Explanation: Bases are the oxides or hydroxides of metals and react with acids to Produce salts and water. The bases which are soluble in water are known as alkalis. Ferric hydroxide Fe(OH)3, Zinc hydroxide Zn(OH)2, Aluminium hydroxide Al(OH)3, Sodium hydroxide NaOH, and Potassium hydroxide KOH all are bases but not alkalis. Among them only water-soluble metallic hydroxides NaOH, and KOH are alkalis. From the above examples of bases and alkalis, it is clear that all alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis.

Question 12. What are the properties of acids?
Answer:

Properties of acids :

(1) An acid produces H+ ion in aqueous solution.

(2) Generally acids are water-soluble and the solution has an acidic or sour taste.

(3) The aqueous solution of acids turns blue litmus to red, orange-coloured methyl orange to pinkish red and phenolphthalein remains colourless in the aqueous solution of an acid.

(4) Electropositive metals like Zn, Mg, and Fe (which belong above hydrogen in the electrochemical series) react with dilute acid to produce hydrogen.

Example : Zn + H2SO4 = ZnSO4 + H2

2Al + 6HCl = 2AICl3 + 3H2

(5) Acids form salt and water reacting with metallic oxides and hydroxides.

Example : 2NaOH + H2SO4 = H2SO4 + 2H2O

CaO + 2HCI = CaCl + H2O

(6) Acids form carbon dioxide by reacting with metallic carbonate and bicarbonate.

Example : Na2CO3 + 2HCI = 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O

NaHCO + HCI = NaCl + CO2 + H2O

Question 13. Classify and define the different types of oxides.
Answer:

Types of Oxides :

(1) Acidic oxide: An acidic oxide is an oxide which reacts with a base to form salt and water.

Non-metallic oxide : CO2 , SO2 , P2O5 , SiO2, etc.

Metallic oxide : CrO3 (Chromium trioxide), Mn2O7 (Manganese heptoxide), etc.

(2) Basic oxide: A basic oxide is an oxide which reacts with an acid to form salt and water. These are generally the oxides of metals.

Examples: CaO (Calcium oxide), MgO (magnesium oxide), FeO, CuO, etc.

(3) Neutral oxide: The oxides which neither react with acid nor with base are called neutral oxide.

Examples: CO (Carbon monoxide), H2O (Water), N2O (Nitrous oxide), NO (Nitric oxide), etc.

(4) Amphoteric oxide: The oxides which react with both acids and bases to produce salt and water are called amphoteric oxide.

Examples: Al2O3(Aluminium oxide), ZnO (Zinc oxide), SnO (Tanous oxide), PbO (Lead monoxide), etc.

(5) Peroxide: The oxides which react with a cold and dilute mineral acid to produce hydrogen peroxide and have peroxy linkage (— O — O -) are called peroxide.

Examples: Na2O2 (Sodium peroxide), BaO, (Barium peroxide), etc.

(6) Mixed oxide: An oxide which is formed by oxides of more than one oxide of a metal having variable valency is called mixed oxide.

Examples : Fe3 O4 [FeO + Fe2O3 ]; Mn3 O4 [2MnO + MnO2] ; Pb3 O4 [PbO2 + 2PbO], etc.

(7) Poly-oxide: The oxides which have oxygen atoms more than ordinary oxide and also do not react with an acid to produce hydrogen peroxide are called poly-oxides.

Examples: Mn2O7 (Manganese heptoxide), PbO2 (Lead dioxide), etc.

(8) Sub-oxide: An oxide which has fewer oxygen atoms rather than its oxygen atoms permitted for oxidation state: of the element is called sub-oxide.

Example: Carbon sub-oxide (C3O2).

(9) Super-oxide: Metals like Na, Li, and Ca form super-oxide and have negative ions (O — O)  in them.

Examples : LiO2, KO2, etc.

Question 14. What are the properties of bases?
Answer:

Properties of bases :

(1) The aqueous solution of bases changes the colour of litmus from red to blue, and the orange methyl orange to yellow.

(2) Reacting with acid, bases produce salt and water.

(3) Concentrated solutions of some strong bases are slippery to the touch.

(4) The aqueous solution of bases conducts electricity.

(5) Strong bases when heated with electropositive elements (like Al, Zn, etc.) produce hydrogen.

Example : 2NaOH + Al + 2H2O = 2NaAlO2 + 3H2

Strong bases absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to form carbonate salt and water.

Example : 2NaOH + CO2 = Na2 CO3 + H2O.

Question 15. Classify and define the different types of bases.
Answer:

Types of bases according to the acidity of bases :

(1) Monoacidic bases: These bases which produce one OH- ion in aqueous solution from one molecule are Called monoacidic bases.

Example : NaOH \(\rightleftharpoons\) Na+ + OH  ; KOH \(\rightleftharpoons\) K+ + OH

(2) Diacidic bases: The bases which produce two OH- ions in aqueous solution from one molecule are called diacidic bases.

Example : Ca(OH)2\(\rightleftharpoons\)   Ca2++ 2OH

Types of bases according to their ionisation :

(1) Strong bases: The bases which ionise mostly in an aqueous solution and a small number of molecules exist in a molecular state are called strong bases.

Examples: NaOH, KOH, Ca(OH)2, etc.

Types of bases according to their source :

(1) Mineral bases: The bases which are produced from minerals are called mineral bases.

Examples: NaOH, KOH, etc.

(2) Organic bases: The bases containing nitrogen atoms and whose sources are animals and plants are called bases.

Example:

  WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Acids , Bases And Salts Organic Bases

Question 16. Classify salt and define its different types.
Answer:

Types of salts :

(1) Normal salts: Normal salts are formed by the complete replacement of the hydrogen atoms in acid by metals or basic radicals.

Examples :

(1) NaCl [NaOH + HCI = NaCl + H2O].

(2) Na2SO4 [2NaOH + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + H2O].

(2) Acid salt: An acid salt is formed only by partial replacement of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of an acid (di-basic, tri-basic) by metal or basic radical.

Examples :

(1) NaHSO4 (Sodium bisulphate).

(2) NaHCO3 (Sodium bicarbonate).

(3) Na2HPO4 (Di-sodium hydrogen phosphate).

(3) Basic salt: When the hydroxyl  (OH) or, oxide (O) radicals are partially neutralised by acid then basic salts are produced.

Examples :

(1) Pb(OH)CI (Basic lead chloride).

(2) Pb(OH)NO3 (Basic lead nitrate).

(4) Double salt: When two normal salts are mixed with their molecular weight ratio to form a solution and cooled the solution to make a combined crystal which is stable in solid state but ionises into different constituent ions in solution, the salts are called double salts.

Examples : K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3 .24H2O

(NH4)2 SO.FeSO4.6H2O

(5) Complex salts: When the solution of two mixed salts is concentrated and cooled then crystals of a new salt are produced. The constituent salts lose their identity in new salt. In an aqueous solution,, they produce new complex ions. These types of salts are called complex salts.

Examples : K4(Fe(CN6) , (Cu(NH3)4) SO4 .

Question 17. Write a short note on vanishing colours.
Answer:

Vanishing colours: Vanishing colour is a coloured solution which becomes colourless on exposure to air for a length of time.

Example: The aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH) mixed with phenolphthalein turns pink in colour. Now if this solution is allowed to spray on cloth, all at once a pink colour is developed upon cloth. But since ammonia in NH4OH is highly volatile, after the lapse of time, NH3 volatilises and the solution becomes neutral. As a result, the pink colour of Phenolphthalein vanishes. Vanishing colour cannot be prepared with dilute NaOH solution, because NaOH does not evaporate.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 18. Write about the importance of pH.
Answer:

Importance of pH:

Field Utility
(1) Biotechnology Biochemical and organic reactions at controlled pH value give best results.
(2) Agriculture Alkaline soils are preferred for some crops such as citrus fruits grow better in alkaline soils. Sugarcane grows better in neutral soil, whereas rice. The pH of soil is tested before growing a particular crop.
(3) Medicine Determination of pH value of blood and urine helps to diagnose certain diseases.
(4) Cosmetics Special soaps, shampoos, face creams are prepared for consumers having different pH value of skin secretions.
(5) Milk plants pH of milk is rigorously controlled at pH 6.8, otherwise, it turns sour.
(6) Breweries Controlling pH value of wine to obtain a desired flavour.


Question 19. Write a short note on the chemical properties of sulphuric acid.
Answer:

Chemical Properties of sulphuric acid :

(1) Acid Property: Sulphuric acid is a strong dibasic acid. In its aqueous solution, it is completely ionised. Its ionisation takes place in two steps

H2SO4 \(\rightleftharpoons\) H+ + SHO; H2SO4 \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2H + SO2-4

Its aqueous solution turns blue litmus red and reacts with bases and alkalis to produce salts and water.

(1) At ordinary temperature Sulphuric acid reacts with carbonates and bicarbonates with the formation of sulphates or bisulphates liberating carbon dioxide.

NaHCO3 + H2SO4→NaHSO4 + CO2 + H2O ; Na2CO3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + CO2 + H2O

(2) Since sulphuric acid has two replaceable hydrogen atoms, it forms two series of salts — normal salt (sulphates) and acid salts (bisulphates).

MgO + H2SO4→MgSO4 + H2O          CaO + 2H2SO4→Ca(HSO4)2 + 2H2O

NaOH + H2SO4→NaHSO4+ H2O       2NaOH + H2SO4→ Na2SO4 + 2H2O

(3) Reaction with metals :

With zine :

(1) At ordinary temperature, dilute H2SO4 reacts with zinc to produce zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas. Zn + H2SO4→ ZnSO4 + H2

(2) Hot, concentrated H2SO4 reacts with zinc to produce zinc sulphate, water and sulphur dioxide gas. Zn + 2H2SO4→ZnSO4 + SO4 + 2H2O

With magnesium :

(1) At ordinary temperature, dilute H2SO4 reacts with magnesium to produce magnesium sulphate and hydrogen gas. Mg + H2SO→ MgSO4+ H2

(2) Hot, concentrated H2SO4 reacts with magnesium to produce magnesium sulphate, water and sulphur dioxide gas. Mg + 2H2SO4 →MgSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

With copper :

(1) Cold, dilute H2SO4 does not react with copper.

(2) Hot, concentrated H2SO4 reacts with copper to produce copper sulphate, water and sulphur dioxide gas. Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2+ 2H2O

(2) Test of sulphuring acid: When barium chloride solution is added to dilute or concentrated H2SO4, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed which is insoluble in

HCl3. H2SO4 + BaCl2→ BaSO4 ↓+ 2HCI.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 20. Write a short note on the chemical properties of hydrochloric acid.
Answer:

Chemical Properties of hydrochloric acid :

(1) Acid Property: Hydrogen chloride in the gaseous state is not acidic, but the aqueous solution of the gas is highly acidic and one of the strongest acids. Hydrochloric acid is < monobasic acid and turns blue litmus red. It ionises almost completely in its aqueous solution.

HCl\(\rightleftharpoons\) H++Cl

(1) Action on bases: Hydrochloric acid reacts with metallic oxides and hydroxide forming the corresponding chlorides and water.
CaO + 2HCI → CaCl2+H2O             NaOH + HCI→ NaCl + H2O

MgO + 2HCIl → MgCl2 + H2O        Fe(OH)3 + 3HCl →FeCl3 + 3H2O.

(2) Action on metallic carbonates and bicarbonates: Hydrochloric acid reacts with metallic carbonates and bicarbonates with the evolution of CO2.

Na2CO3+ 2HCI 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O ;     NaHCO3 + HCl→ NaCl + CO2+ H2O

(3) Action on metals: The metals which are above hydrogen in the electrochemical series (Mg, Zn, Al, Fe, Sn, etc.) react with hydrochloric acid at ordinary temperature wit! the evolution of hydrogen and the formation of corresponding chloride.

Zn + 2HCI ZnCl2 + H2    ;  Fe + 2HCl→ FeCl2 + H2 ;  2Al + 6HCl →2AICI3 + 3H2

Copper dissolves slowly on boiling with concentrated HCI in the presence of air or oxygen producing cupric chloride and water. 2Cu + 4HCl + O2 → 2CuCl2 + 2H2O

Question 21. Write a short note on the chemical properties of nitric acid.
Answer: Nitric acid is a strong monobasic acid. lt ionises almost completely from hydrogen ions and nitrate ions. HNO3 \(\rightleftharpoons\) H++ NO

As nitric acid is a monobasic acid, it forms normal salts only. It turns blue litmus red.

(1) Action on alkalis: It reacts with oxides and hydroxides producing nitrate salts and water.

CaO + 2HNO3 →Ca(NO3)2+ H2O ;  MgO + 2HNO3→Mg(NO3)2+ H2O

NaOH + HNO3 → NaNO3 + CO2 + H2O

(2) Action on metallic carbonates and bicarbonates: Nitric acid reacts with metallic carbonates and bicarbonates producing nitrates and liberating CO2.

Na2CO3 + 2HCl→ 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O  ; NaHCO3+ HC] → NaCl + CO2 + H2O

(3) Action on metals: The metals which are above hydrogen in the electrochemical series (Mg, Zn, Al, Fe, Sn, etc.) react with hydrochloric acid at ordinary temperature with the evolution of hydrogen and the formation of corresponding chloride.

Zn + 2HCl —> ZnCl2 + H2   ; Fe + 2HCI →  FeCl2 + H2 ; 2Al + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 2H2O

(4) Test of hydrochloric acid: An aqueous solution of HCl gives a curdy white precipitate of silver chloride with silver nitrate solution. The precipitate is insoluble in nitric acid but is

readily soluble more than the ammonium hydroxide solution. AgNO3 + HCl → AgCl + HNO3 .

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 22. Write a short note on the chemical properties of sodium hydroxide.
Answer:

Sodium hydroxide is popularly known as Caustic Soda.

Physical properties :
(1) NaOH has a sharp, bitter taste.
(2) It changes the colour of indicators turns red litmus to blue and turns colourless phenolphthalein to pink.
(3) It is a soapy substance, i.e., it is slippery to touch.
(4) NaQH is a strong electrolyte.

To note that: NaOH has a mild corrosive action which causes slight alkali burn on skin.

Chemical properties 

(1) NaOH absorbs carbon dioxide from the air to form carbonates.

CO2+ 2NaOH→  Na2CO3 + H2O

(2) It produces ammonia gas when warmed with ammonium salt.

NH4Cl + NaOH →  NaCl+ H2O + NH3 (g)

(3) NaOH, being an alkali or base, neutralizes acids to form salt and water.

NaOH + HCI → NaCl + H2O  ;  NaOH = HNO3→NaNO3 + H2O

2NaOH + H2SO4→ Na2SO4 + 2H2O

(4) Action on metals :

(1) With Aluminium: When powdered aluminium is heated with concentrated solution 4of NaOH, sodium aluminate and hydrogen gas are produced.

2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O → 2NaAlO2+ 2H2

(2) With Zinc: When powdered zinc is heated with a solution of NaOH, sodium zincates 2nd hydrogen gas are produced.

Zn =2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 +H2

Question 23. How does acidity affect human life?
Answer:

(1) Decay of teeth-enamel: It has been inferred by researchers that in areas where drinking water has fluoride levels of 1 ppm (part per million) or above, children have 60% fewer cavities than do children living in areas with lesser fluoride concentrations. Dentists often suggest fluoride treatments and prescribe toothpaste containing fluoride. The enamel on teeth (and the bones of the body) are made of a compound called “hydroxyapatite [Ca10(PO4 )6(OH)2]. This is basic and it reacts with acids and thus decays.

Fluorides present in the body produce fluorapatite [Ca10(PO4 )6F2], which is more resistant to decay. Tooth cavities are caused when acids dissolve tooth enamel.

Ca10(PO4 )6(OH)2 + 8H+ (aq) → 10Ca2+ (aq) + 6HPO4 2-, (aq) + 2H2O (l)

(2) antacids: Drugs for stomach upset: Digestion is accompanied by the production of hydrochloric acid (HCI) in the stomach. Sometimes the stomach produces too much HCl. This may be due to emotional stress or overeating. Stomach upset and heartburn are the result. Antacids are the solution or care for such a problem.

Functioning of an antacid: The various antacid medications work by neutralizing the excess acid. The reaction is simply an acid-base reaction :

OH +H+    H2O [for antacids that contain OH ions]

CO32- + 2H+ → H2O+ CO2 [for antacides containing carbonate ions]

Mangesium hydroxide or magnesium carbonate are such compounds used in antacid.

Mg(OH)2 + 2HCI MgCl2+ 2H2O  ;  MgCO3 + 2HCI MgCl2 + H2O + CO2

These two compounds, in small doses, act as antacids and in large doses, they act as laxatives.

(3)In fishery agriculture:

(1) Acidification of inland waters induced by acid rain or other acidic pollutants causes various harmful physiological and behavioural effects on fish.

(2) At pH ≤ 5 it induces failure of immune and reproductive functions.

(3) pH around 4 efflux of Na+ and Cl ions leading to mortality.

(4) Many populations of fish have vanished particularly due to the damage to aquatic ecosystems by acid rain.

Question 24. Write a short note on pH and soil quantity.
Answer:

pH and soil quality :

(1) pH of soil is the masier variable as it controls many chemical processes that take place. It specifically affects plant nutrients. The optimum pH range for most plants is 5.5→ 7.0.

(2) Acidity in soils comes from H+ and Al 3+  ions, which at pH = 4 →6, reacts with water to form Al(OH)3 and releases 3H+  ions.

(3) Many other processes may contibute to the formation of acid soils including rainfall, fertilizer use, plant root activity, acid rains and mine spoilings.

(4) Alkaline soils are characterized by the presence of carbonates.

The effects :

(1) Below pH = 4, H+  ions themselves damage root cell membranes.
(2) Al3+ and Mn2+ are more soluble at lower pH and dissolved Al3+is toxic to plants.
(3) If pH > 7.5 (alkaline), phosphorus (P) starts forming insoluble compounds with calcium (Ca).

Note that: The common and easy way to increase soil pH is to add lime (CaCO3 or MgCO3 ), wood ash or burnt lime CaO: CO2-3 + 2H+→ CO2 +H2O

Question 25. Write a short note on acid rain.
Answer:

Under normal conditions, rain is slightly acidic, with a pH = 5.6, due to dissolved CO2 ie., H2CO3. Recently, the acidity of rainwater, in many industrialized and populated areas, has increased to more than 100 times, to a PH 3 to 3.5. The major pollutants in acid rain are strong acids that arise from human activities, particularly automotive activities.

(2) The Chemistry behind acid rain   In ‘the automobile internal combustion engines and electrical power stations NO2 is formed and gets further oxidized in air to form which in turn, forms nitric acid (and nitric oxide)

N2(g) + O2 (g) →  2NO (g) [at high temperature]

2NO (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g)

3NO2 (g) + 3H2O (l) → 2H3 O+(aq) + 2NO3  (aq) + NO (g)

Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is produced as a by-product of the burning of fossil fuels. It reacts with water directly forming sulphurous acid (a weak acid) but produces sulphur trioxide (SO3) in the presence of particulate matter and aerosols. This SO3 combines with water forming sulphuric acid (H2SO4) (a strong acid)

SO2 (g) + 2H2O (l)→H2O (l) + H2SO4

2SO2(g) + O2 (g) → 2SO3  (g)

SO3 (g) + 2H2O (l) → H2O + H2SO4 (or H3O+ + HSO4).

The effect of acid rain: In many processes, Nature likes and requires a balance of pH. Any drastic shift in the pH of rain, thus, is bound to affect it in many ways.

(1) Lakes may become so acidic that all fish life may disappear.
(2) Massive trees die off as acid rain has lowered the pH of the soil and has leached nutrients from leaves.
(3) Valuable and heritage marble statues have been slowly dissolved away as the calcium carbonate of marble has been attacked by acid rain :

CaCO3(s) + 2H + (aq) Ca2+ (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)

The problem will grow more serious as sources of low-sulphur coal are nearly exhausted and power plants are forced to rely on more abundant sources of high-sulphur coal.

What to do :
(1) Much more work on methods to control acidic emissions is to be done.
(2) To reduce and optimize the consumption of fossil fuel, and the consumption of energy in general.
(3) To change our attitude from ‘mastering’ nature (and thus exploiting and destroying to the “sustainable coexistence” with mother nature.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 26. Write a short note on neutralisation.
Answer:

Wherever acids and bases combine in the ratio of their equivalent weights, Salts and water are formed quantitatively. The resulting solution is neutral and this type of reaction is called neutralisation. Both acids and bases lose their identities completely. According to logic theory, neutralisation amounts to the formation of undissociated weak electrolyte H2O by thé interaction of H* ions of the acid and OH ions of the alkalis.

HCI \(\rightleftharpoons\)  H+ + Cl

NaOH \(\rightleftharpoons\)  Na+ + OH

HCI + NaOH \(\rightleftharpoons\)  Na+ + Cl + H2 O

It is to be remembered that all indicators cannot be used for all types of acid-base titration. The choice of an indicator depends on the nature of acid and base.

Selection of Indicators :

Titration of Indicator to be used Examples of neutralisation
Acid Base
1. Strong Strong Any indicator HCl + NaOH
2. Strong Weak Methyl orange
Methyl red
HCI + NH4OH
HCl+Na2CO3
3. Weak Strong Phenolphthalein CH3COOH + NaOH
4. Weak Weak No suitable indicator CH3COOH + NH4OH


Question 27. Write a short note on antacid.

Answer:

Antacid: Our stomach normally produces acids to help to acid in disgesting food and to kill germs. The pH of our stomach juice is 2-3. Secretion of hydrochloric acid increases when we consume too much of spicy food. Then we suffer from acidity, gas, etc.

Antacids work by counteracting (neutralising) the acid in our stomach. They do this because the chemicals in antacids are bases (alkalis). This neutralization reduces the acidity of the stomach juice. Antacids are the alkaline substances which can reduce the excess acid of stomach. They can maintain the proper pH of the stomach juice.

Some common antacids which are available in the market are gelusil, Digene, polyol, milk of magnesia, etc. All these antacids contain aluminium hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide. When we consume antacids, these alkaline substances react with the hydrochloric acid secreted in the stomach. Thus the acidity is reduced.

Nowadays, zinetac, acidic, pan-40, etc. are sold in the market as antacids. These compounds are to be taken in empty stomach. Actually these compounds can control the acid secretion from stomach.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9

Question 28. How do acids and bases react? 

Answer:

According to Arrhenius’s theory, in an aqueous solution acids and bases produce H+ and OH ions respecitvely. When acid-base are mixed together in aqueous solution, they produce water molecules.

H+ (aq) + OH (aq) H2 O (l)

The other parts of the acid and base combine to give salt.

Ca(OH)2 + H2 SO4 → CaSO4 + 2H2O

(Base)    +   ( Acid )  →  (Salt )  + (water)

2H+  ions form H2SO4 and 2OHions from Ca(OH)2 form 2H2O molecules. The Ca2+ ion and SO42- ions from the salt CaSO4. So acids and bases react to give salt and wate (some bases react with acids, given only salt no water is formed). e.g. 2NH3 + H2SO4= (NH4)2 SO4.

Question 29. The idea of nascent hydrogen (or oxygen) is at present considered unnecessary. Justify the statement.
Answer:

The nascent state of an element is that state just at the time of its production from a compound. So, hydrogen just at the time of its production from its compound is called the nascent hydrogen. The idea of nascent hydrogen and nascent oxygen as reducing and oxidising agents respectively at present is unnecessary, because the actual reducing agents produce hydrogen in acidic condition. These hydrogen-producing substances are stronger

reducing agents than hydrogen. On the other hand, oxidising agents are not producing
nascent oxygen, they are only oxiding agents, e.g.

(reduced)

Zn + 2FeCl3 (yellow) FeCl2(colourless) + ZnCl2

(oxidised)

Zn is a reducing agent which itself is oxidised and FeCl3 is an oxidising agent which itself is reduced. No participation of nascent hydrogen is required in the reduction process.

(oxidised)

Zn + 4HNO3 → Zn(NO3)2+ 2NO2↑+ 2H2O

(reduced)

In this reaction the idea of nascent oxygen as the oxidising agent is baseless. Here HNO3 itself is an oxidising agent, which is itself reduced to nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and oxidises zinc. Here zinc is a reducing agent.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 30.

Write the limitations of Arrhenius’s concept.
Answer:

Arrhenius’s concept has the following limitations :

(1) It recognises the dissociation of acids and acid-base behaviour in aqueous medium only. It cannot explain the acid-base behaviour in the absence of water and in non-aqueous medium.

(2) Arrhenius concept restricts acids to merely hydrogen-containing compounds and bases to merely hydroxyl-containing compounds. The substances such as CO2, SO2, SO3, etc. are not regarded as acids and the substances such as NH3, Na2O, CaO, MgO, and Na2CO are not regarded as bases though they exhibit properties of acids and bases, respectively.

CaO (s) + SO3(g) →CaSO3(s)
(Base)   +    (Acid)

NH3(g) + HCI (aq)→ NH4C (s) .
(Base)  +   (Acid)

Question 31. Write a short noie on indicator.
Answer: Indicator: Indicators are complex.organic compounds which undergo a change of colour with a change of acidic, neutral or basic medium.

Litmus (a dye from plants), methyl orance (organic pigment)and phenolphthalein (an organic acid)are three commonly used indicators to determine the acidic or basic nature of a solution by a characteristic in colour. An indicator is a substance which change as to a characteristic colour in the presence of a particular concentration of ions such as H+ and OH ions.

Some useful indicators

Indicator Colour in acid solution Colour in alkaline solution Colour in neutral soloution
Litmus red blue purple
Phenolphthalein colourless pinkish red colourless
Methyl orange Pink yellow orange
Methyl red red yellow light

When litmus is dissolved in distilled water which is neither acidic nor basic; the colour of litmus solution is purple. In acidic medium the colour of litmus solution is red and in basic medium the colour of litmus solution is blue. Litmus solution is called an acid-base indicator. Examples of other acid-base indicators are phenolphthalein, methyl orange, and methyl red. The natural acid-base indicator is turmeric powder, which is used in cooking vegetables in almost all Indian homes. Its colour in acidic solution is yellow and in basic solution is brown.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 32.

Write the chemical reactions of H2SO4, HCI & HNO, with carbonate and bicarbonate compounds.
Answer:

Chemical reactions of H2SO4, HCl & HNO3, with carbonate and bicarbonate compounds :
All mineral acids like H2SO4, HCl and HNO3, in reaction with metallic carbonates and bicarbonates, give corresponding metallic sulphate. metallic chloride or metallic nitrate, along with carbon dioxide. The gas (CO2) is liberated with brisk effervescence.

(1) Metallic carbonate + Hydrochloric acid Metallic chloride + water + carbon dioxide
Metallic carbonate + Sulphuric acid → Metallic sulphate + water + carbon dioxide
Metallic carbonate + Nitric acid → Metallic nitrate + water + carbon dioxide

Examples :

CaCO3 + 2HCI = CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
Na2CO3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
K2CO3 + 2HNO3 = 2KNO3 + H2O + CO2

(2) Metallic bicarbonate + Hydrochloric acid —> Metallic chloride + water + carbon dioxide Metallic bicarbonate + sulphuric acid —> Metallic sulphate + water + carbon dioxide

Metallic bicarbonate + nitric acid —> Metallic nitrate + water + carbon dioxide

Example :

Ca(HCO3)2 + 2HCI = CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
2NaHCO + H2SO4= Na2SO4 +H2O + CO2
KHCO3 + HNO3 = KNO3+ H2O+CO2

Question 33. Write the chemical reaction of H2 SO4, HCl and HNO3 with alkali or base.
Answer:

The chemical reaction of H2SO4, HCI and HN3  with alkali or base ” Bases are the metallic.oxides and alkalis are water-soluble hydroxides of metals. When acids like sulphuric acid (H2SO4), hydrochloric acid (HCI) and nitric acid (HNO3) react with these, they form salt and water. This is the main basic reaction for the neutralisation of acid or base.

Base + Sulphuric acid   →   Sulphate salt + water

Alkali + Sulphuric acid  →   Sulphate salt + water

Base + Hydrochloric acid  →   Chloride salt + water

Alkali + Hydrochloric acid →  Chloride salt + water

Base + nitric acid → nitrate salt + water

Alkali + nitric acid → nitrate salt + water

Examples :

Na2O + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + H2O
2NaOH + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + H2O

[Sometime bisulphate salt can be formed by partial neutralisation of H2SO4,
NaOH + H2SO4 = NaHSO4+ H2O Sodium bisulphate]

CaO + 2HCI = CaCl2+ H2O

Ca(OH)2 + 2HCI = CaCl2+ 2H2O

MgO + 2HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + H2O

Mg(OH)2+ 2HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + 2H2O

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 34.

Write the chemical reaction of H2SO4, HCI & HNO3 on metals.
Answer:

The chemical reaction of H2SO4, HCI & HNO3 with metals (like Cu, Zn, Mg): All the mineral acids like H2SO4(sulphuric acid), HCI (hydrochloric acid) and HNO, (nitric acid) react differently with the metals like Cu, Zn, Mg. Generally with H2SO4, they form sulphate salts, with HCI they form chloride salts and with HNO3 they form nitrate salts, under different conditions.

(1) With sulphuric acid :

(1) When copper metal is strongly heated with concentrated sulphuric acid, it forms blue-coloured copper sulphate, along with a gas having the pungent odour of burnt sulphur and water.

Cu + 2H2SO4= CuSO4+ SO2+ 2H2O

However copper does not react with cold and dilute sulphuric acid properly.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Acids , Bases And Salts Sulphuric Acid.

 

(2) When zinc granules are added to dilute sulphuric acid, it form hydrogen gas at room temperature.

Zn + H2SO4 = ZnSO4 +H2
(dilute)

H2 + H2SO4 = SO4+ H2O
(string)

Magnesium reacts with both dilute sulphuric acid, forming magnesium sulphate and hydrogen gas.

Mg + H2SO4 = MgSO4 + H2

(2) With hydrochloric acid: Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with metals like zinc (Zn) and magnesium (Mg) forming corresponding metallic chlorides and liberating hydrogen gas, whereas concentrated hydrochloric acid reacts with copper in the presence of oxygen presence in the air, it forms cupric chloride and water. Here hydrogen gas is not produced.
Mg + 2HCI = MgCl2 + H2
Zn + 2HCI = ZnCl2 + H2
2Cu + 4HCI + O2 = 2CuCl2 + 2H2O
Copper does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Acids , Bases And Salts Hydrochloric Acid

(3) With nitric acid: Very dilute nitric acid (1%) reacts with magnesium at low temperatures.
Mg + 2HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + H2

Strong or concentrated nitric acid in reaction with magnesium produces magnesium nitrate and nitric oxide.
3Mg + 8HNO3 = 3Mg (NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O

Zinc in reaction with dilute nitric acid at ordinary temperature forms zinc nitrate, nitric oxide (NO) and water.

Zn + 8HNO3 = 3Zn(NO3)2+ 2NO + 4H2O

When zinc reacts with concentrated nitric acid at high temperatures, it forms zinc, nitrate, nitrogen dioxide and water.

Zn + 4HNO3 = Zn(NO3 )2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O

Copper in reaction with dilute nitric acid at ordinary Temperature forms copper nitrate, nitric oxide (NO) and water.
3Cu + 8HNO3 = 3Cu(NO3 )2 + 2NO2 + 4H2O

Copper in reaction with concentrated nitric acid at high Gitte yey Temperature forms copper nitrate, nitrogen dioxide and water. of AgCl
Cu + 4HNO3= Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O

When nitric acid vapour is passed over red hot copper, copper immediately oxidises into cupric oxide (CuO) along with nitrogen gas and water vapour. This reaction proves the presence of nitrogen in nitric acid.

5Cu + 2HNO3 = 5CuO + N2+ H2O.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Acids , Bases And Salts Nitric Acid

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9

Question 35.  Write about the identification test for HNO3, H2SO4 and HCl.
Answer:

Identification test for HNO3, H2SO4 and HCI (Wet Test) :

(1) Presence of nitric acid (HNO,) by ring test: A little amount of given dilute acid is taken in a test tube. Freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution is added to it in same volume. Now concentrated sulphuric acid is taken in another test tube. Concentrated sulphuric acid taken in a tube is carefully poured into the liquid mixture of the first tube by the side of the test tube, so as to form a heavy layer at the bottom of the test tube. A brown ring is formed at the junction of the two liquids, which proves the presence of nitric acid in the test tube.

6FeSO4 + 2HNO3+ 3H2SO4= 3Fe2(SO4)3 + 4H2O + NO

FeSO4 + NO + 5H2O = Fe[(H2O)NO] SO4
(brown penta aqua nitroso ferrous sulphate)

(2) Presence of sulphuric acid: In a test tube the given dilute solution of acid is taken. In that test tube, barium chloride solution is added. The test tube is well shaked. A white precipitate is formed at the bottom of the test tube which is insoluble in dilute HCI or dilute HNO3.

The precipitate is due to the formation of barium sulphate, which proves the presence of H2SO4.

BaCl2+ H2SO4 = BaSO4↓ + 2HCI
(white ppt )

(3) Presence of Hydrochloric acid: In a test tube the given solution of acid is taken. In that test tube, silver nitrate solution is added. The test tube is well-shaken. A dense curdy white precipitate is formed at the bottom of the test tube which is insoluble in nitric acid but dissolves in ammonium hydroxide due to the formation of a complex salt, diamine silver chloride, which proves the presence of hydrochloric acid.

AgNO3 + HCI = AgCl + HNO3
( curdy white ppt)

AgCl + NH4OH = Ag(NH3)2 Cl + 2H2O
(diamine silver chloride)

Question 36. Write about the safe use of acids and alkalis.
Answer:

(1) A solution of hydrogen chloride is highly corrosive and blisters are caused on the skin by its touch.

(2) Pure and concentrated sulphuric acid is highly corrosive and burns the skin, turning it black due to the absorption of moisture from the lower layer of the skin.

(3) Dilute nitric acid reacts with the proteins of the skin and forms a yellow compound called xanthoproteic acid. Hence, the skin becomes yellow. Concentrated nitric acid causes blisters on the skin.

(4) Due to strong alkalinity, sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution is soapy in touch and it is highly corrosive to the skin and makes blisters on the skin.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 37.

Write about the safety measures for acid & alkali burns.
Answer:

Safety measures for acid and alkali burns :

(1) In case of acid burns, wash the place with plenty of water, then wash with sodium bicarbonate and again wash with water.
(2) In case of alkali burns, wash the place with plenty of water; then with 1% per cent acetic acid and again with water. Finally, dry the skin and apply any medicated skin ointment.

(3) In case of eye accidents we proceed as follows :

(1) Acid in the eye: At once the eye must be washed with water a number of times and then with 1% sodium bicarbonate solution. Finally, add a dilute solution of any medicated eye drop.

(2) Alkali in the eye: At once the eye must be washed with water repeatedly and then it should be washed with 1% boric acid solution. Finally, add a dilute solution of any medicated eye drop or add a drop of liquid paraffin in the eye.

(3) If acid or alkali is swallowed: Immediately take plenty of drinking water to dilute it, followed by taking a dilute solution of milk of magnesia to destroy the effect of acid. Immediately take plenty of drinking water to dilute it, followed by lemon or orange juice to destroy the effect of alkali.

In all these cases a skilled medical attendant is necessary, which is very important in case of safety measures.

Question 38. Write about the importance of aqueous medium in the properties of acid and alkali.
Answer:

Importance of aqueous medium in the properties of acids and alkalis: According to the concept of Arrhenius, acids exhibit their acidic properties only in aqueous solution. In fact, in the absence of water or benzene and other non-aqueous solvents anhydrous HCl cannot turn blue litmus red. The anhydrous vapour of HNO3 cannot liberate CO from CaCO3. But such a reaction is a characteristic property of all acids. Aqueous solution of acids imparts hydronium (H3O+) ions.

Hydrogen chloride is a covalent compound. It does not ionise to form an H+ ion in a pure state. Since it does not give H+ ions, it is not acidic in a pure state. But in contact with water, HCI forms H3O+ and Cl ions. The acid character of HCl is developed due to the formation of H3O+ ions in aqueous medium.

H2O+HCl → H3O+Cl

Similarly, when a base like Na2O is dissolved in water it forms an alkali and in an aqueous medium, it generates OH and shows alkalinity.

Na2O + H2O \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NaOH \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2Na+ + 2OH

So we observe that the aqueous medium plays an important role in case of acidity or alkalinity. Now, we carry out the test of dry baking soda (NaHCO3) and tartaric acid crystals. In a test tube dry NaHCO3 (or baking soda) and tartaric acid crystals are mixed and the mixture is kept in a test tube we observe that no; bubble of gas is evolved.

But when we add water in this mixture of test tube, i-e., in baking soda and tartaric acid, immediately bubbles of carbon dioxide gas come out. Here water is a liquid that behaves as a solvent, which separates the ions and molecules in the reaction.

At first, on dissolution in water, tartaric acid gives H+ ion which immediately reacts with NaHCO3, forming carbon dioxide gas and thus bubbles of CO2 comes out. But no bubble is evolved if a mixture of dry NaHCO3 and tartaric acid crystals is shaken with benzene or kerosene, which is no aqueous medium, solvents like kerosene, benzene can not dissolve ionic compounds. So, we observe, some reactions always occur in aqueous medium and water has an important role in case of acidity and alkalinity of those reactions.

Question 39. Write a short note on pH.
Answer:

The acidity of a solution is expressed in terms of a parameter called pH, where pH stands for potenz of hydrogen (hydrogen power).

The quantity pH is defined as the logarithm of the reciprocal of hydrogen ion concentration (H+) and is equal to the logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration with negative sign. Mathematically,

pH = − log10 [H+]

The scale indicating the hydrogen ion concentration of solutions in terms of pH values is called pH scale. The pH scale is expressed by a series of positive numbers between 0 and

14. The pH scale can be explained as a series of numbers which indicates the acidic or basic nature of a solution. Thus a neutral solution has the pH = 7, an acidic solution has a pH < 7 and an alkaline solution has a pH >7. The greater the hydrogen ion concentration, the smaller is the pH.

A mixture of several indicators which can show different colours at different concentrations on ‘hydrogen ions in a solution is called universal indicator. A paper impregnated with universal indicator which is used to measure the pH of a solution, is called pH paper.

The higher the concentration of H+ ions, the lower is the pH of a solution. For example, among two solutions A and B having pH 2 and_5 respectively, the solution A has higher hydrogen ion concentration.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 40.

Write about the acidity of water due to CO2, SO2 and NO2.
Answer:

Acidity of water due to CO2, SO2, NO2: When we final pH less than 5.1 in the rain water, that type of rain is called acid rain. The acidic gaseous oxides, such as SO2, NO2, and CO2 in the atmosphere cause acid rain. Such rainwater is acidic.

These oxides dissolve in rain water to form acids. Sometimes SO2 and NO2 undergo aerial oxidation catalysed by carbon particle or ozone gas to form SO3 & NO5 which form H2SO4 & HNO3. Carbon dioxide forms carbonic acid. These acids remain dissolved in rain water and so it becomes acidic. Due to the presence of CO2 in air, and other oxides like SO2 and NO2, these gases form acids with water by photochemical reaction in the atmosphere.

CO2 +H2O \(\rightleftharpoons\) H2CO3 \(\rightleftharpoons\)H+ +HCO3

\(\mathrm{SO}_2+\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_2 \frac{\text { carbon particles }}{\text { light }} \mathrm{SO}_3 \stackrel{\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4\)

2NO2 + O3 → O2+ N2O5

N2O, + H2O→ 2HNO3

Acid rain affects plantation and agriculture by washing out the soil nutrients. It may even destory aquatic lives like fish. Exact pH value of acid rain is 5.1.

When acid rain reacts with limestone or slate, the following reaction shows the effect :

CaCO3 + H2SO4 = CaSO4 + CO2 + H2O

CaCO3 + 2HNO3 = Ca(NO3)2 + CO2 + H2O

Due to the presence of CaSO4 Ca(NO3)2, the marble stone of all historical monuments slowly becomes dull and the brightness of marble stone of historical monuments is slowly lost. The top layer of stone is corroded, small holes are created and bright layer of marble stone is totally lost. Such type of destruction of stone, due to air pollution, is called stone cancer.

Question 41. Write three points of the practical application of neutralisation.
Answer:

Practical Application of neutralisation :

(1) Farmers add slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) to reduce the acidity of soil.

(2) Persons suffering from acidity are given antacid tablets, containing magnesium hydroxide mainly, which neutralises excess HCI produced in stomach.

(3) Sting of ants and bees contains formic acid. This can be neutralised by rubbing soaps, which contains dissolved base.

Question 42. Explain the concept of antacid and classify it.
Answer:

Concept of antacid: The different foodstuffs which we eat are digested in the stomach where one of the important chemicals is hydrochloric acid having pH range 2 to 3. Sometimes due to the nature of food stuff and due to the different diseases, the production of this acid is uncontrolled and this excess secretion of acid produces disturbance in the
digestion and acidity is formed, which can produce blisters in the stomach in the long run.

So we can take antacid, which regulates. the acidity and pH level in the digestion. Generally antacids are taken after eating, as antacid does not decrease the production of acid in the stomach but controls the pH of the digestive system.

Antacids are of two types:

(1) systemic and
(2) non-systemic.

(1) Systemic antacids: They function in a regular manner. They are soluble in water and can be easily absorbed. But due to the absorption of this antacid the acid-base equilibirium of our body is disturbed.

Examples of: Such type is-sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3), sodium citrate (Na3C6H5O7).

(2) Non-systemic antacids: They do not function in a regular manner. They are not soluble in water easily and they cannot be absorbed. Hence they do not disturb the acid base equilibrium of our body.

Examples of such type of antacids:

Magnesium compound—magnesium hydroxide

[Mg(OH)2], magnesium carbonate (MgCO3), aluminium compound—aluminium hydroxide

[Al(OH)3] and calcium compound-calcium carbonate (CaCO3).

The common composition of some antacids available in the market are:
(1) Magnesium trisilicate and aluminium hydroxide mixture.
(2) Aluminium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, and magnesium carbonate mixture.
(3) It is the gel of pure aluminium hydroxide, sodium carboxymethyl cellulose and magnesium hydroxide mixture.

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion

Chapter 2 Forces And Motion Very Short Answer Type:

Question 1. Give an example of motion when there is no change of speed but there is only change in direction.
Answer:

A runner running with uniform speed across a circular track will have to change his direction of motion at every instant of his journey.

Question 2. A body goes round the sun with constant speed in a circular orbit. Is the motion uniform or accelerated?
Answer:

Though the body moves with uniform speed, the direction of its velocity changes continuously. Hence, the motion is accelerated.

Speed And Velocity Difference Class 9

Question Question 3. Give an example where acceleration is produced due to change in the direction of velocity although the magnitude of the velocity remains unchanged.
Answer:

The revolution of earth around the sun is an accelerated motion though its velocity is uniform.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 4. What is meant by “motion in one direction”?
Answer:

When a body moves in a straight line, its motion is said to be in one direction (one dimension) only.

Question 5. What do you mean by the distance between two locations?
Answer:

Distance is the total path traveled from one location to another. It is a scalar quantity.

Question 6. What is a reference frame?
Answer:

To locate the position of a body with respect to the reference body or observer, a system of coordinates fixed on the observer or reference body is constructed and it is known as reference frame.

Question 7. What is a body?
Answer:

Body: A natural object possessing mass, weight and volume is called a body.

Question 8. What is a particle?
Answer:

Particle: It is a hypothetical minute object having mass and existence. So it is called point mass, it has only translatory motion, i.e., motion along a line. It has no volume, so it has no rotational motion about its own axis or center.

Speed And Velocity Difference Class 9

Question 9. What is a rigid body?
Answer:

Rigid body: Theoretically, a rigid body is one, such that under no circumstances an external applied force, however large may it be, can increase or decrease the distance between two of its constituents parts.

Question 10. What is the role of frame of reference?
Answer:

To determine relative motion or position of a body we compare the state of motion or position of it with respect to a fixed frame of reference. Without a frame of reference we cannot understand or measure the quantity of motion or distance of position of body from another body.

Question 11. What is rest?
Answer:

Rest: A body is said to be at rest if it always remains at a fixed or unchanged position from a frame of reference. : Or more simply, a body is said to be at rest if it does not change its position with time from a fixed neighboring object.

Question 12. What is motion?
Answer:

Motion: A body is in motion if its position from a fixed neighboring obj ect or reference point changes with respect to time.

Question 13. What is vibratory motion?
Answer:

Vibratory motion: Repetition of the to-and-fro motion of a body about a mean position in a horizontal plane or a vertical plane is called vibratory motion. Oscillation of a tuning fork is a vibratory motion.

Question 14. What is periodic motion?
Answer:

Periodic motion: A motion which repeats at regular intervals of time is called periodic motion.

Example: When the earth moves around the sun once in 365 days, itis a periodic motion.

Speed And Velocity Difference Class 9

Question 15. What is average speed?
Answer:

If an object traverses different distances in equal time intervals, its speed is said to be non-uniform. For a body moving with non-uniform speed, its average speed is calculated by dividing the total distance covered with the total time required to cover the distance.

What Is Uniform Velocity Class 9

Question 16. What is uniform velocity?
Answer:

Uniform velocity of an object occurs if it traverses equal distances in equal inter- vals of time in a given direction.

Question 17. What is non-uniform velocity?
Answer:

Non-uniform velocity: A body is said to move with non-uniform velocity if it covers unequal distances in a certain direction in equal time intervals or if it changes its direction of motion at different points on its path, even covering equal distances in equal time intervals.

Question 18. What is acceleration?
Answer:

Acceleration: Increase or decrease of velocity per unit time is the acceleration of a body. It is also defined as the rate of change of velocity with time.

∴\(\frac{\text { unit of displacement }}{\text { unit of time }} \times \frac{1}{\text { unit of time }} \)

Question 19. What is the principle of physical independence of force?
Answer:

The principle of physical independence of a force states that if a body is under simultaneous action of a number of forces, each force independently changes velocity or thus, the momentum of the body in its own direction, any other member of tne applied forces cannot influence it.

Question 20. Define inertia
Answer:

Inertia of a material body is its intrinsic property due to which the body tends to preserve its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line.

What Is Uniform Velocity Class 9

Question 21. A motor car moving with uniform velocity goes 60 km in 3 hours. Find the velocity of the car.
Answer:

Velocity of the car\(=\frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time }}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{60 \mathrm{~km}}{3 \mathrm{hrs}}\)

= 20 km/hr from north to south.

Question 22. A man is running at a velocity of 5 m/s. How far will the man goin15s?
Answer:

Distance moved = velocity x time = 5 m/s x 15s = 75 m.

Question 23. A body starts from rest with uniform Osacecly of 2 m/\(s^2\) What will be its velocity after 10 s ?
Answer:

Given, u = 0; t= 10s; f =2 m/s

Then, v=u+ft=0+2×10=20 mis.

Question 24. Same force acting on two bodies of masses 5g and 2g produces an acceleration of 2 cm/\(s^2\) in the former. What is the acceleration of the second body?
Answer:

Mass of the first body = 5 g

Acceleration produced in it = 2 cm/\(s^2\)

there fore Applied force = mass x acceleration = 5 x 2 = 10 dyne.

∴ Same force, i.e., a force of 10 dyne acts also on the second body of mass 2 g.

So, acceleration produced in it \(=\frac{\text { force }}{\text { mass }}\) =\( \frac{10}{2}\) = 5 cm/\(s^2\)

Question 25. A body initially at rest starts moving with an acceleration of 20 cm/s\(s^2\) After what time would its velocity be 2 m/s ?
Answer:

Given, a = 20 cm/\(s^2\) u = 0; v = 2 m/s = 200 cm/s.

Now, v=u+at or, 200=0+2x t

∴ Required time=\( \frac{200}{20}\)  = 10s.

Question 26. Calculate the amount of force required to produce an acceleration of 4 m/\(s^2\) in a body of mass 0.8 kg.
Answer:

Given mass (m) = 0.8 kg, acceleration (a) = 4 m/\(s^2\)

Hence, force, F = ma = 0.8 kg x 4 m/\(s^2\) = 3.2 N.

Question 27. Find the acceleration produced by a force of 20 N acting ona body of mass 5 kg.
Answer:

Given mass (m) = 5 kg, force (F) = 20 N,

acceleration (a) =?

∴F=ma

∴ a \(=\frac{\text { force }}{\text { mass }}\)

=\( \frac{20N}{5Kg}\)

=4m/\(s^2\)

Chapter 2 Forces And Motion 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. When is a body said to be at rest?
Answer:

If the position of a body is not changing with time with respect to a given frame of rest, motionless, immobile, stationary or to have constant position.

Question 2. What do you mean by the statement that there is nothing at absolute rest?
Answer:

In reality, there is nothing at absolute rest. For example, earth’s gravitation constantly pulls objects towards its surface, while earth is one of the objects the sun constantly pulls towards itself, causing it to orbit the sun: the sun, in turn, orbits the center of the Milky Way; and so on.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science What is scalar

Question 3. When is a body said to be in motion?
Answer:

Motion is a change in the position of an object with respect to time. Motion is typically described in terms of displacement, distance (scalar), velocity, acceleration, time and speed. Attaching a frame of reference to an observer and measuring the change in position of the body relative to that frame, we observe motion of a body.

Question 4. What is absolute motion?
Answer:

When there is no absolute frame of reference, absolute motion cannot be determined. Thus, everything in the universe can be considered to be moving. More generally, notion is a concept that applies to objects, bodies and matter particles, to radiation, radiaion fields and radiation particles, and to space, its curvature and space-time.

Question 5. Define Displacement.
Answer:

Displacement is the distance between two locations measured along the shortest path connecting them, in specified location. It is a vector quantity. The SI unit of distance and displacement is meter (m).

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 6. Define Speed.
Answer:

Speed is the distance travelled per unit time or the rate of change of distance. Speed = total distance traveled / time taken.

Question 7. Define Velocity.
Answer:

Velocity is the speed in a given direction or the rate of change of displacement. Average velocity = displacement/ time taken.

Question 8. Define Acceleration and Deceleration.
Answer:

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.

Acceleration = change of velocity/time taken, where change of velocity = final velocity (v) – initial velocity (u)

Hence, Acceleration = (final velocity – initial velocity) / time taken =(v-u)/t

Negative Acceleration is called Deceleration.

Question 9. State Newton’s first law of motion.
Answer:

Newton’s first law of motion: An object either remains at rest or continues to move at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force. Newton’s first law is often referred to as the law of inertia.

Question 10. State Newton’s second law of motion.
Answer:

Newton’s second law of motion: The vector sum of the external forces F on an object is equal to the mass m of that object multiplied by the acceleration vector a of the object. F=mxa

Question 11. State Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:

Newton’s third law of motion: When one body exerts a force on a second body, the second body simultaneously exerts a force equal in magnitude and opposite in direction on the first body.

Question 12. State some applications of Newton’s first law of motion.
Answer:

A person in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by the unbalanced force of a seat belt. Seat belts are used to provide safety for passengers whose motion is governed by Newton’s laws. The seat belt provides the unbalanced force that brings you from a state of motion to a state of rest.

Question 13. State some applications of Newton’s second law of motion.
Answer:

A car speeding down the road at a constant speed hits the brakes (unbalanced force), so the car slows down (negative acceleration).

Question 14. State some applications of Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:

When a model rocket is ignited, there is a force from the engine that thrusts downward (all that cool fire & smoke). In response, the model rocket accelerates up.

Question 15. What is Friction?
Answer:

Friction is a force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are in contact with each other. The amount of friction depends on two things: the type of surface and how hard they press against each other. When we consider “how hard” two surfaces are pressing against each other, we are really talking about the force of contact between the surfaces.

There are three types of friction; they are sliding friction, rolling friction etc. fluid friction.

Question 16. Define Momentum.
Answer:

Momentum is defined as the mass multiplied by the velocity: p= m x v.

Since the momentum depends on the velocity, it is also a vector quantity. The units for momentum are [kg.m/s].

Question 17. Define Impulse.
Answer:

The force multiplied by the time has a special name, the impulse. The impulse i is the change in the momentum. Impulse is a vector quantity and is equivalent to a Newton [N], the units of impulse are [N.s].

Impulse is the force multiplied by time the force acts on an object.

I=F×t

Question 18. What is Conservation of Momentum?
Answer:

Conservation is an important principle in physics that allows us to determine That happens in collisions or explosions. Ifa body A of mass \(\mathrm{m}_1\)and velocity\(\mathrm{v}_1\) collides another body B of mass \(\mathrm{m}_2\) and velocity \(\mathrm{v}_2\) moving in the same direction.

If A exerts a force F to the right on B for a time t, then by Newton’s third law, body B will exert an equal and opposite force to the left on A also for atime t but to the left. Thus, the bodies receive equal but opposite impulses “Ft”. The changes of momentum must be equal and opposite.

Therefore, the total momentum change Is zero. In other words, the total momentum of A and B together remains constant.

Question 19. What do you mean by physical independence of a force?
Answer:

Physical independence of a force states that if a body is under simultaneous action of a number of forces, each force independently changes or thus the momentum of the body in its original direction, any other member of the applied force the single existence of it.

Question 20. Argue against the single existence of a force.
Answer:

When one body exerts a force on the other, the force is called action, the second body also offers at the same time an equal force on the first body on the opposite direction and this force is called reaction. Now, since every force of action is associated with an opposite force of reaction, no force can exist singly in nature, that is, in nature forces always appear in pairs.

Question 21. What is thrust?
Answer:

When the weight of a body acts on another body, the force the first body offers is called thrust. This is the action, the second body simultaneously exerts an equal and opposite force on the first, this is the reaction.

When a book rests on the table, its weight on the table is a thrust which is the action, the tabletop also exerts an upward force on the book as the reaction. Push is also a kind of thrust. If the leaf of a door or a window is pushed (action) by hand, the leaf also exerts equal and opposite force on the Hepa as reaction.

Question 22. What are ‘pull’ and ‘tension’?
Answer:

If some weight is attached to the lower end of a wire Supported from a beam, the weight tries to elongate the wire downward, which is the pull; it is the action. The wire also at the same time pulls the weight upward, which |is called the tension and this force of tension is the reaction.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 forces and motion Push And PullQuestion 23. What are ‘attraction’ and ‘repulsion’?
Answer:

Two bodies may attract or repel each other when they are in contact or without contact. The mutual forces of ‘attraction’ and ‘reaction’ in opposite directions between the earth and a body on or near it, the force acting between two unlike magnetic poles or two unlike electric charges of opposite kind form action-reaction pairs when they are in contact or away from each other within a limit. The forces of repulsion between a pair of similar magnetic poles or electric charges also form action-reaction pairs.

Question 24. Why is retardation called negative acceleration?
Answer:

Retardation is called negative acceleration as its magnitude is same as that of acceleration but its direction is opposite to that of acceleration.

Question 25. Can a body have velocity in one direction and acceleration in the opposite direction? Give an example.
Answer:

When a stone is thrown vertically upwards, the velocity is in upward direction while it is subjected to an acceleration due to gravity in vertically downward direction.

Question 26. Is it possible for a body to have average speed with average velocity of zero? Explain with an example.
Answer:

Yes, a body can have average speed with an average velocity of zero. When a body moves in a circle, the displacement after one complete rotation is zero. So its average velocity is zero. But it covers a certain distance in a certain interval of time. So its speed is not zero.

Question 27. Two particles are moving at the same constant speed of 50 meters per minute. Which one of them has a constant velocity if Gils moves in a straight line while the other in a circle? Explain your answer.
Answer:

The particle moving in a straight line has constant velocity because both the direction and magnitude of its speed remain unchanged. The direction of motion of the particle moving in a circle constantly changes. So its velocity also changes.

Question 28. What is a rigid body?
Answer:

Rigid body: A rigid body is one such that under no circumstances an externally applied force, however large it may be, can increase or decrease the separation between two of its constituent parts. ;

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 29. What is a frame of reference and what is its necessity?
Answer:

The frame of reference is any nearby or distant fixed object from which the distance and position of a body are observed as time elapses. Frame of reference is necessary since the state of rest or motion of a body can be observed or measured with respect to it.

Question 30. Explain that the state of rest and state of motion are relative terms.
Answer:

The state of rest and state of motion of a body are relative rather than absolute terms. An object may be in motion with regard to another object but may be in rest with respect to a third object.

For example, suppose you are travelling in a train and you pass a person standing alongside the tracks. The person standing along the tracks will see you and everyone else on the train as being in motion. But the person sitting next to you on the train will be at rest with respect to you.

Question 31. Can a body be called at absolute rest? Explain the statement.
Answer:

Nobody is present in the universe which is said to be in absolute rest. All the bodies in the universe are in the state of motion. When we speak of bodies to be at rest o. in motion, we speak of their apprent state of rest or apparent state of motion.

When we compare the position of a tree with a running train, we say that the tree is in rest. But the tree is situated on earth and the Earth is always in a state of motion.

Question 32. What is relative velocity? Give a practical example.
Answer:

Relative velocity: As in this universe all the points with respect to which motion is studied are also in motion, the motion is termed as relative motion and the corresponding velocity is known as relative velocity. Relative velocity of a body ‘B’ with respect to a body ‘A’ when both are in motion, is the velocity with which ‘B’ appears to move towards or away from ‘A’.

Example: Let us consider a flat train moving on earth on a straight track with velocity\(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{TE}}\) (velocity of train with respect to earth). Let us consider again a car moving on a roac parallel to the train in the same direction with a velocity \(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}\) (velocity of car w.r.t earth).

Now the relative velocity of the train w.r.t to the car will be \((\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{TE}}+ \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}\)). If the car moves in the opposite direction, the relative velocity will be \((\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{TE}}+ \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{CE}}\)).

Question 33. State the conditions under which a train will appear to be at rest to a person sitting in a nearby train.
Answer:

To a person sitting in a train, another train will appear to be at rest when the following three criteria are fulfilled :

(1) The two trains are moving parallel to each other
(2) The two trains are moving in the same direction
(3) The two trains are moving with the same velocity.

In other words, if the relative velocity of the trains relative to the person is always the same, the train will appear to be at rest.

Question 34. Why do both mass and velocity of a body pertain to its momentum?
Answer:

The momentum of a moving body is its quantity of motion. When two bodies of unequal masses move with same velocity, momentum or quantity of motion of the body of large mass is greater than that of the body of smaller mass. Thus momentum depends on mass of a moving body.

Again, of two bodies of equal mass moving with unequal velocities. momentum of the body moving with larger velocity is more than that of the body moving with smaller velocity. So, momentum also depends on velocity. Hence, momentum of a body depends on both its mass and velocity. Infact, momentum = mass x velocity.

Question 35. What is meant by.a unit force? Why is an absolute unit of force ‘absolute’?
Answer:

A unit force means the quantity of force that when acts on a body of unit mass produce unit acceleration. Absolute units are so called because they are universally valid without admitting any exception, they are complete and independent of restrictions like altitude, position, etc.

Question 36. What can you say regarding the acceleration of a body having a constant kinetic energy?
Answer:

The kinetic energy of a body \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\),where ‘m’ is the mass and ‘v’ is its velocity. Now

If Kinetic energy, i.e., \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)  is constant, then the velocity ‘v’ is constant. Again, if velocity Is constant, there is no acceleration.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 37. Deduce Newton’s first law of motion from the second law.
Answer:

From the relation, force = mass x acceleration (or retardation), if the applied force is zero, i.e., in absence of any external force, acceleration or retardation is zero, since mass cannot be zero.

Now, that acceleration or retardation is zero means, either the body is at rest or it is in uniform motion; thus, in absence of an external force, a body is either at rest or in uniform motion, this is Newton’s first law of motion.

Question 38. How can a body have uniform speed but variable velocity? Is the converse possible?
Answer:

While a body moves along a circular path or a curved path, its direction of motion at an instant, at any point on its route is along the tangent at that point; obviously, the direction of motion of the body changes from point to point.

So, even if the body covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, i.e., it possesses uniform speed, its velocity is non-uniform due to change of direction of motion.

Thus a body may move with uniform speed but its velocity may be non-uniform. But the converse is not true. A body moving with uniform velocity covers equal distances in equal time, so its speed is uniform.

Question 39. Is it possible for a body to have acceleration without velocity? Explain with an example.
Answer:

Yes, it is possible for a body to have acceleration without velocity. We consider the instance of a continuously swinging body like the swinging bob of a pendulum. At the extreme end of the path described, on either side of the mean position, the bob stops momentarily and at that moment it has no velocity but has acceleration directed towards the mean position.

Question 40. The velocity of a body changes from 14 cm/s to 12 cm/s. How can we conclude that a force is acting on it? Is it helping or opposing the motion?
Answer:

Since the velocity of the body gradually decreases, an external force must be acting on it, because Newton’s first law of motion says that an external force only can change the motion of a body. Since, the motion of the body gradually decreases, the force opposes the motion of the body.

Question 51. Why is it that a freely falling body is in weightless condition? 
Answer:

We can feel our body weight because of a reaction force. Due to gravity, the weight of one’s body acts downward on the ground where he stands, this is the action. The ground exerts an equal upward force on his body, that is the reaction.

Due to this reaction force we can feel the weight of our body. A freely falling body has no other body on which it can exert its weight, so no reaction force acts on it. Hence, the body is in a weightless condition.

Question 52. To catch a flying cricket ball why does a fielder draw back his hands along with the ball?
Answer:

While the fielder goes for the catch, he puts his palms against the motion of the cricket ball, so the ball strikes his palms as an action. Due to reaction from the palms, the ball moves away in the opposite direction and tends to spill before the fielder clutches it.

The fielder draws back his hands at the moment of holding the ball, allowing it to move a bit more in its direction of motion so that its velocity decreases. If the ball strikes the palms of the fielder with less velocity, the reaction force due to which the ball rebounds also lessens. The fielder gets enough time to grasp the ball that rebounds now a bit slowly.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 53. Why is it more painful to drop on a concrete surface than on a sandy bed?
Answer:

A person when drops on a concrete surface, which is a continuous body, the thrust exerted by him is the action. The concrete surface exerts equal and opposite reaction force on the person’s feet that causes appreciable pain. But, if the person drops on a sandy bed.

Which is a discontinuous body, major part of the exerted force transmits down inside the sand layers. This force gradually weakens, for, it is utilised to compress the sand layers which have some entrapped air pockets. The reaction of the remaining force on the surface of sand does not produce any painful force on the person’s feet.

Question 54. Is the motion of a body from rest to rest uniform motion? Give reason.
Answer:

The motion of a body from rest to rest is an instance of non-uniform motion. While a body initially at rest begins to move, and after moving through some distance again comes to rest, its motion cannot be uniform. As it starts moving from rest, its velocity (or speed) gradually increases and then its velocity gradually decreases before coming to rest.

Question 55. Two identical lorries move with same velocity—one of them is loaded and the other is not, which of the two may be stopped with less effort ? Why?
Answer:

The quantity of motion of a body depends on both the mass and the velocity of the body. Here, the loaded lorry has larger quantity of motion due to greater mass than the unloaded lorry. So, the unloaded lorry of less quantity of motion can be stopped with less effort.

Question 56. Why is it easier to accelerate a moving vehicle by push than one at rest?
Answer:

When the car or a roller is at rest, to set it into motion, a large force is necessary to overcome the inertia of rest of its large mass and also to overcome its frictional force with the ground. On the other hand, when it is already in motion, since it itself tries to maintain its forward motion due to inertia of motion and also has overcome opposing frictional force, a smaller effort can accelerate it.

57. Why does an electric fan continue its motion for some time even after the switch is off?
Answer:

By switching off, the supply of electricity to the motor of the fan is stopped, so the motor no longer works, but due to inertia of motion the blades of the fan continue to move for some time. Finally, the blades stop due to opposing frictional forces of air, ball bearings, etc.

Question 58. Will a boat move when air from an electric fan situated in it strikes the sails?
Answer: T

he electric fan on the boat and the sails constitute a single system. So, the force to blow of air from the fan is not an external force, that is why the boat will not move.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 59. Distinguish between rotation and circular motion.
Answer:

Difference between rotation and circular motion :

(1 ) When a body moves along a circular path about a point as center, then the motion of that body. is called circular motion. But the rotation is the characteristic motion of a rigid body in which each constituent particle on it undergoes such circular motion in which the centers of all the circles lie on a single straight line perpendicular to the plane of each circular path.

(2) Circular motion is the motion of a point along a circular path but rotation is the change of orientation of an extended object without suffering change in position. For example, orbital motion of the Earth and other planets around the sun is circular motion but daily rotation of the Earth about its own axis is a rotational motion.

Question 60. Define displacement. Is it vector or scalar?
Answer:

Displacement: The change of position of a moving body in a particular direction is called the displacement of the body and is measured by the linear distance between its initial and final positions. Thus displacement has both magnitude and direction. So displacement is a vector quantity.

Question 61. Define speed. It is vector or scalar?
Answer:

Speed: The rate of change of position of a body with respect to time is known as its speed. In other words, the distance traversed by a body in unit time is its speed. In the case of speed we have not mentioned about any direction. Thus, speed has only magnitude but no direction. So speed is a scalar quantity.

Wbbse Class 9 Difference Between Speed And Velocity

Question 62. State two differences between speed and velocity.
Answer:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion speed between velocity

Question 63. Define balanced forces.
Answer:

Definition of balanced forces: When two forces are of equal magnitude but acting in opposite directions on an object simultaneously, the object continues to be in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line. Such forces acting on the body are said to form a system of balanced forces.

Question 64. Define unbalanced forces.
Answer:

Definition of unbalanced forces: When two forces of unequal magnitudes act in opposite directions on an object simultaneously, then the object moves in the direction of the larger force. Such forces acting on the body are said to form a system of unbalanced forces.

Question 65. State Newton’s first law of motion and define force from it.
Answer:

Statement of Newton’s first law of motion: Everybody continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line unless it is acted on by some unbalanced force to change that state.

Definition of Force: From Newton’s first law of motion we get the definition of force. Force is that, which acting on a body, changes or tends to change the state of rest or uniform motion of the body in a straight line.

Wbbse Physical Science Class 9

Question 66. When a running bus stops suddenly, the passengers inside it lean forward. Why?
Answer:

When a running bus stops suddenly, a passenger sitting inside it leans forward. Here also as soon as the bus stops, the lower portion of the body of the passenger being in contact with the bust stops immediately. But the the upper: portion wants to maintain its motion due to inertia of motion and hence leans forward.

Again, when a bus suddenly starts, a passenger sitting in it leans backward. As soon as the bus starts, the lower portion of the body begins to move along with it. But upper portion of the body due to inertia of rest tends to continue in that state and thus leans backward.

Question 67. State Newton’s second law of motion and hence define the unit of force in CGS system.
Answer:

Newton’s second law of motion gives the relationship: between the force applied or the body and the acceleration produced in the body. When an unbalanced force acts on a body then the applied force is proportional to the acceleration produced in it.

Wbbse Physical Science Class 9

Question 68. Why do we have to make a great effort to hold a hose pipe to throw a stream of water through it?
Answer:

Water flowing through a hose pipe: We have to make a great effort to hold a hose pipe to throw a stream of water through it. The stream of water coming out through the hose pipe in the forward direction with great speed exerts a large force on the hose pipe in the backward direction. Thus we have to make great effort to hold the hose pipe strongly to keep it at rest.

Question 69. The moving blades of an electric fan do not stop as soon as the switch is off. Why?
Answer:

The moving blades of an electric fan do not stop as soon as the switch is off.

Explanation: By switching off the supply of electricity to the motor of the fan is stopped, so the motor no longer works, but due to inertia of motion the blades of the fan continue to move for some time.

Question 70. Why should a person slightly lean back before alighting from a moving vehicle?
Answer:

Before alighting from a moving vehicle, bus or tram, one should slightly lean back.

Reason: As long as the person remains inside the moving vehicle, his whole body moves with the speed of the vehicle. As soon as he descends on ground his feet suddenly come to stop but the upper part of his body still possesses forward speed due to inertia of motion. If he has no support to grab he stumbles on ground.

But if he leans back a bit beforehand, it makes up the short span he moves through forward when he descends and ultimately he remains erect. This practice saves one from stumbling down when he unwisely alights from a moving vehicle.

Question 71. Deduce Newton’s second law of motion from his first law.
Answer:

Newton’s first law of motion from the second law: From the relation, force = mass x acceleration (or retardation), if the applied force be zero, i.e., in absence of any external force, acceleration or retardation is zero, since mass cannot be zero.

Now, acceleration or retardation is zero means either the body is at rest or it is in uniform motion; thus, in absence of an external force, a body is either at rest or in uniform motion, that is Newton’s first law of motion.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 2 Question Answer

Question 72. The velocity of a train in a particular direction increases from 30 km/hr to 60 km/ hr in 1 minute. If the train be moving with uniform acceleration, what is its acceleration?
Answer:

Initial velocity of the train = 30 km/hr.

Final velocity of the train = 60 km/hr.

Time required = 1 minute\(=\frac{1}{60}\)  hr.

Change in velocity = 60 — 30 = 30 km/hr.

∴acceleration \(=\frac{\text { change in velocity }}{\text { time }}\)=\(\frac{30 \mathrm{~km} / \mathrm{hr}}{1 / 60 \mathrm{hr}}\)

= 1800 km/hr)\(^2\).

Question 73. A train starting from rest attains a velocity of 72 km\(\mathrm{h}^{-1}\)in 5 minutes. Assuming that the acceleration is uniform, find
(1) the acceleration and
(2) the distance travelled by the train for attaining this velocity.
Answer:

Given,u=0,v=72km\(\mathrm{h}^{-1}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{72 \times 1000}{60 \times 60} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

⇒ \(=20 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}\)

t=5 min= 300s.

(1)Fromv=u+at 0r, a\(=\frac{v-u}{t}\)=\(\frac{20-0}{300}\)=\(\frac{1}{15} \mathrm{~ms}^{-2}\)

(2) Again,\(v^2\)=\(u^2+2 a s\) or, s \(=\frac{v^2-u^2}{2 a}\)=\(\frac{20^2-0^2}{2 \times \frac{1}{15}}\)=3000m=3km.

Question 74. A force of 1000 kg-wt is applied on a body. Express this force in dyne and Newton.
Answer:

1000 kg-wt = 1000 x 9.81 newton = 9810 N

Again, 1N \(=10^5\) dyne

therefore 9810 N = 9810 x \(10^5\) dyne = 9.81 \(10^5\) dyne.

Question 75. When a force acts on a body of mass 10 g initially at rest, it acquires a velocity of 15 cm/s in 5 seconds. Find the acceleration and final momentum of the body and the magnitude of the force.
Answer:

Final velocity c = 15 cm/s; mass of the body = 10 g. therefore Final momentum of the body = mass x speed = 10 x 15 = 150 g-cm/s

Again,acceleration a\(=\frac{v-u}{t}\)=\(\frac{15-0}{5}\)=3cm/\(s^2\) and force = mass x acceleration = 10 x 3 = 30 dyne.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 2 Question Answer

Question 76. The initial velocity of a body of mass 20 g is 10 cm/s and after 5 s its velocity becomes 40 cm/s. Find the magnitude of the force acting on the body.
Answer:

Given, mass of the body m = 20 g; initial velocity u = 10 cm/s

final velocity v = 40 cm/s; time t = 5 s.

Now, v=u+at

or,acceleration a\(=\frac{v-u}{t}\)=\(\frac{40-10}{5}\)=\(\frac{30}{5}\)=6 cm/\(s^2\)

∴ Required force = m.a = 20 x 6 = 120 dyne.

Question 77. A body of mass 147 g at rest is subjected to a force of 15 g-wt. What is the acceleration of the body ? What will be the velocity of the body after 2s?
Answer:

Given, m = 147g; u=0

p= 15 g-wt = 15 x 980 dyne

∴acceleration a\( =\frac{p}{m}\)=\(\frac{15 \times 980}{147}\) =100cm/\(s^2\)

Again, v=u+at=0+ 100 x 2=200cm/s=2 m/s.

Question 78. A bullet of mass 100 g is fired from a gun of mass 20 kg with a velocity of 100. m\(s^{-2}\). Calculate the velocity of recoil of the gun.
Answer:

Given mass of the bullet, \(\left(m_1\right)\)= 100 g = 0.1 kg

velocity of the bullet, v = 100\(s^{-1}\); mass of the gun, \(\left(m_2\right)\) = 20 kg.

Let the recoil velocity of the gun = V.

Initial momentum of the gun-bullet system\(=\left(m_1+m_2\right)\)x 0 =0.

Final momentum of the system\(=m_1 v+m_2 v\) 0.1 x 100 + 20x V=10+ 20V.

Applying the law of conservation of momentum,

10+20 V=0 V=-0.5\(s^{-1}\)

The -ve sign indicates that the gun moves backward.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 2 Question Answer

Question 79. Velocity-time graph for a body moving with retardation is shown. Calculate the
(1) retardation and (2) displacement of the body.
Answer:

(1) Here, retatdation \(=\frac{\text { Decrease in velocity }}{\text { time taken }}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{(10-0) \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}}{(10-0) \mathrm{s}}\)=\(\frac{10}{10} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)=2m/\(s^2\)

(2) Displacement = Area of velocity-time graph 3 5

= Area of ΔAOB B

=½×OB×OA=(½×10×10)m=50\(m^2\).
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity and time
Question 80. Calculate the force required to impart to a car a velocity of 40 m/s in 10 seconds starting from rest. The mass of the car is 1500 kg.
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 1500 kg,

Initial velocity (u) = 0, Final velocity (v) = 40 m/s, Time taken (t)= 10s.

∴Force required, F=ma

⇒ \(=m\left(\frac{v-u}{t}\right)\)=\(1500\left(\frac{40-0}{10}\right) N\)\(=\left(1500 \times \frac{40}{10}\right) \mathrm{N}\)=6000N.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 2 Question Answer

Question 81. A cricket ball of mass 200 g moving with a speed of 30 m/sis brought to rest by a player in 0.03 seconds. Find
(1) The change in the momentum of the ball and
(2) The average force applied by the player.
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 200g = 0.2 kg, Initial velocity (u) = 30 m/s,

Final velocity (v) = 0, Time taken (t) = 0.03 s.

(1) Change in momentum = (mv — mu) = 0.2 (0 — 30) =— 6 kg m/s.
(2) Average force applied, F = Rate of change of momentum

⇒ \(=\frac{\text { change of momentum }}{\text { time }}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{6}{0.03} \frac{\mathrm{kg} \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}}{\mathrm{s}}\)=200N.

Question 82. A force of 4 kg-wt acts on a body of mass 9.8 kg. Calculate the acceleration. [Take g = 9.8 m/\(s^2\) ]
Answer:

4 kg-wt = 4 kg. x 9.8 m/\(s^2\) = 39.2 N.

Now, force = mass x acceleration, ∴ 39.2 N = 9.8 kg x acceleration

acceleration \(=\frac{39.2 \mathrm{~N}}{9.8 \mathrm{~kg}}=\)=4m/\(s^2\)

Question 83. Two bodies A and B are of equal mass and are at rest. A is acted upon with 1. kg-wt force and B with 1N. Will the acceleration generated in them be equal? force
Answer:

Using the relation, acceleration \(=\frac{\text { force }}{\text { mass }}\),Acceleration of A

⇒ \(=\frac{1 \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{wt}}{\mathrm{m}}\)=\(\frac{9.8 \mathrm{~N}}{\mathrm{~m}}\),where ‘m’ is the mass of A or B.

acceleration of B \(\frac{1\mathrm{~N}}{\mathrm{~m}}\). ∴acceleration of A is 9.8 times more than that of

Question 84. A constant force of 30 dyne acts on a body, initially at rest, for 4 seconds and then ceases to act. The body moves 48 cm in the next 8 seconds. What is the mass of the body?
Answer:

On withdrawal of the force, the body moves with a constant velocity with which it covers 48 cm in 8 s.

∴Velocity acquired by the body after 4 seconds \(=\frac{48 \mathrm{~cm}}{8 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 6 cm/s.

Now, acceleration\(=\frac{\text { Change of velocity }}{\text { time }}\)\(=\frac{(6-0) \mathrm{cm} / \mathrm{s}}{4}\)

(∴ initial velocity = 0) = 1.5 cm/\(\mathbf{s}^2\)

From the relation, force = mass x acceleration,

30 dyne = mass x 1.4 cm/\(s^2\)

∴  mass \(=\frac{30 \mathrm{dyn}}{1.5 \mathrm{~cm} / \mathrm{s}^2}\)=20 g.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 2 Question Answer

Question 85. A cricket ball of mass 100 g moves with a velocity 20 m/s. A batsman stops the ball in 0.05 seconds. Find the force applied.
Answer:

Retardation \(=\frac{(0-20) \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}}{0.05 \mathrm{~s}}\)=\(400 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)

Mass   of the ball \(=\frac{100}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}\)=o.1 kg.

Hence, force applied on the ball = 0.1 kg x 400 m/\(s^2\) = 40 N.

Question 86. A force acting on a body of mass 10 kg changes the velocity of the body from 5m/s to 10 m/s in 5 seconds. Find the value of the force in dyne and Newton.
Answer:

10 kg = 10,000g, 5 m/s = 500 cm/s, 10 m/s = 1000 cm/s.

Now, acceleration=\(\frac{(1000-500) \mathrm{cm} / \mathrm{s}}{5 \mathrm{~s}}\)=100 cm/\(s^2\)

So, the applied force = 10,000 g x 100 cm/\(s^2\)  \(=10^6\) dyne = 10 N.

Question 87. What is straight linear motion?
Answer:

Straight linear motion: If any particle moves along any straight line and any particle of the body travels the same distance at same speed, then the motion is called straight linear motion. :

Question 88. What is curvilinear motion?
Answer:

Curvilinear motion: If any particle does not move in a definite direction but moves in a curvilinear way and changes its direction in that way, then the motion is called curvilinear motion.

Question 89. What is circular motion?
Answer:

Circular motion: If any particle moves around a particular point or axis, then this motion is called circular motion.

Question 90. What is mixed motion?
Answer:

Mixed motion: If any motion is a combined form of linear motion and circular motion, then that motion is called mixed motion.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 91. What is inertial frame of reference?
Answer:

Inertial frame of reference: A frame of reference which is either at rest or moving with uniform velocity is called an inertial frame of reference. In this frame of reference Newton’s first law of motion is valid.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 92. What is non-inertial frame of reference?
Answer:

Non-inertial frame of reference: A frame of reference which is accelerated is called non-inertial frame of reference. In this frame of reference Newton’s first law of motion is not valid.

Question 93. What is one-dimensional motion?
Answer:

One dimensional motion: If the motion of a particle be along a straight line, the motion is one-dimensional.

Example :
(1) A train moving along a straight track.
(2) A body falling freely under gravity.

Question 94. What is two dimensional motion? 
Answer:

Two dimenstional motion: If the motion of a particle be in a plane, i.e., when two of the three coordinates are required to specify the position of the particle in motion, the motion is called two-dimensional.

Example :

(1) The earth revolving around the sun.
(2) An insect crawling on the floor.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 95. What is three dimensional motion?
Answer:

Three dimensional motion: If the motion of a particle be in space, i.e., when all the three coordinates are required to specify the position of the particle in motion, then the motion is called three-dimensional.

Example :

(1) A flying bird.
(2) A flying aeroplane.
(3) A flying kite.

Question 96. State the units of displacement in CGS and SI systems.
Answer:

Units of displacement :

(1) CGS: cm
(2) SI: m.

Question 97. State two characteristics of displacement.
Answer:

The characteristics of displacement are:

(1) Displacement has the unit of length.
(2) The displacement may be positive, negative, or zero.

Question 98. State two differences between displacement and distance.
Answer:

Difference between displacement and distance :
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion displacement between distance

Question 99. State two characteristics of speed.
Answer:

Characteristics of speed :

(1) Speed does not give any idea about the direction of motion.
(2) Speed can be positive, but never negative or zero.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 100. State the units of speed in CGS and SI systems.
Answer:

Units of speed :
(1) CGS : cm/\(s^{-1}\)
(2) SI: m\(s^{-1}\).

Question 101. What is average speed?
Answer:
Average speed: When a body is moving with variable speed, the constant speed with which the body covers the same distance in a given time as it does while moving with variable speed during the given time, is called average speed.

Average speed \(=v_{a v} \)= \(\frac{\text { total dis tance covered }}{\text { total time taken }} \)

If a body moves distances \(\mathrm{S}_1, \mathrm{~S}_2, \mathrm{~S}_3\)……..etc. in times \(\mathrm{t}_1, \mathrm{~t}_2, \mathrm{~t}_3\) ………etc. respectively, then

Average speed \(=v_{a v} \)\(=\frac{S_1+S_2+S_3+\ldots \ldots}{t_1+t_2+t_3+\ldots \ldots}\)

Question 102. State two characteristics of velocity.
Answer:

Characteristics of velocity :

(1) The velocity can be positive, negative or zero.
(2) Velocity has both magnitude and direction, and hence, it is a vector quantity.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 103. State the units of velocity in CGS and SI systems.
Answer:

Units of velocity (same as speed) :

(1) CGS : cm/\(s^{-1}\)
(2) SI: m/\(s^{-1}\).

Question 104. What is average velocity ?
Answer:

Average Velocity: When a body is moving with variable velocity, the average velocity is the value of that constant velocity at which the same body could have under- gone the same displacement in the same interval of time as the body has actually gone.

Average velocity \(=\frac{\text { Total displacement }}{\text { Total time }}\)

Question 105. State two characteristics of acceleration.
Answer:

Characteristics of acceleration :

(1) When the velocity is increasing, the acceleration is called positive and
(2) when it is decreasing, it is called negative or retardation or deceleration.

Question 106. State the units of acceleration in CGS and SI systems
Answer:

Units of acceleration :

(1) CGS : cm/\(s^{-2}\)
(2) SI: m\(s^{-2}\)

Question 107. What is average acceleration?
Answer:

Average acceleration: When a body is moving with variable acceleration, then the defined as the ratio of total change in velocity of the body to the total time taken.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 108. State two characteristics of retardation.
Answer:

Characteristics of retardation :

(1) Retardation is opposite to acceleration and thus it is considered as negative acceleration.
(2) Retardation has both magnitude and direction, and hence it is vector quantity.

Question 109. What is uniform retardation?
Answer:

Uniform retardation: The retardation of a moving body is a said to be uniform if its velocity changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time, however small the intervals may be.

Question 110. What is non-uniform retardation ?
Answer:

Non-uniform retardation: The retardation of a moving body is said to be variable if it does not have equal changes in velocity in equal intervals of time.

Chapter 2 Forces And Motion 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. State the different types of motion
Answer:

The different types of motion are :

(1)Simple harmonic motion.

(2)Anharmonic motion

(3)Periodic motion

(4)Rectilinear motion — motion that follows a straight linear path, and whose displacement is exactly the same as its trajectory

(5) Reciprocal motion (e.g. vibration)

(6) Random motion (e.g. vibration)

(7) Brownian motion (i.e., the random movement of particles)

(8)Circular motion (e.g. the orbits of planets)

(9)Rotary motion – a motion about a fixed point. (e.g. Ferris wheel).

(10)Curvilinear motion – It is defined as the motion along a curved path that may be planar or in three dimensions.

(11)Rotational motion – (as of the wheel of a bicycle)

(12)Oscillation

(13)Combination (or simultaneous) motions – Combination of two or more above-listed motions

(14)Projectile motion – uniform horizontal motion + vertical accelerated motion.

Question 2. What are Balanced and Unbalanced Forces?
Answer:

A force is defined as a push or a pull and more than one force can and usually does act on an object at the same time. Every force has a certain strength or magnitude. Forces also have direction.

The net force on an object is the sum (in both magnitude and direction) of all the forces acting on it. If the net force is zero, the forces are balanced. Balanced forces produce a change in motion of an object.

When the net force is greater than zero, the forces acting on the object are not balanced. Unbalanced forces cause an object at rest to move and an object in motion to change speed and/or direction.

Question 3. How is measurment of force obtained from the second law of motion?
Answer:

Measurement of force: From the second law of motion, measurement of force is possible. Say, a body of mass ‘m’ moves uniformly in a certain direction with the velocity ‘u’ and after ‘t’ seconds, due to the application of an external force F, in the same direction, its final velocity becomes ‘v’.

∴ the initial momentum of the body = mu

final momentum of the body = mv

So, change of momentum after ‘t’ seconds = mv – mu

∴ Change of momentum after 1 second \(=\frac{m v-m u}{t}\)\(=\frac{m(v-u)}{t}\)

i.e., rate of change of momentum \(=\frac{ v- u}{t}\)

=ma(∴\(=\frac{ v- u}{t}\)=acceleration,a)

Now, according to Newton’s second law of motion,

F α ma or F = k ma where k is a constant.

Now, the force that acting on a body of unit mass produces unit acceleration in the body is called unit force.

So, when m = 1 and a= 1 then F = 1; hence, the relation F = kmf changes to 1 = k.1.1. So, k = 1. Therefore F = ma, i.e., Force = mass x acceleration.

Question 4. Establish the relation between absolute and gravitational units of force.
Answer:

Relation between gravitational and absolute units of force :

The CGS absolute unit of force 1dyne = 1 g x 1 cm/s?, the CGS gravitational unit of force

1 gram weight = 1 gram x g (acceleration due to gravity)= 1 gram x 981 m/\(s^{2}\)

= (1 gram x 1 cm/\(s^{2}\)) x 981

= 1 dyne x 981

= 981 dynes

= g dynes.

Hence, 1 gram weight = g dynes. This is the relation between gravitational unit (1 gram weight) and absolute unit of force (1 dyne).

Also, the MKS absolute unit of force = 1 kg x 1 m/\(s^{2}\)? and the MKS gravitational unit of

force = 1 kg x g (g = acceleration due to gravity) = 1 kg x 9.81 m/\(s^{2}\)?

= (1kg x 1m/\(s^{2}\)?) x 9.81 = 1N x 9.81 = 9.81 N = g Newton.

Hence, in general, it can be written as

Gravitational unit of force = Absolute unit of force x g.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 5. How does a horse cart move forward, though the force with which the horse pulls the cart is equal and opposite to the force with which the cart pulls the horse?
Answer:

It may be noticed that just at the moment of start, the horse bends its head and body to exert a force on ground in an inclined way with its legs [The same thing does a rickshaw-puller; athletes also do so at the start of a race.]. The ground also exerts an equal and opposite reaction force on the horse in an inclined direction.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 forces and motion Forces Acting On A Horse Cart

This reaction may be resolved in the vertical and the horizontal directions. The vertical component reduces the weight of the horse and the horizontal component helps the horse and the cart to move forward. If the horizontal component can exceed the frictional force between the ground and wheels of the cart, then the whole system, horse and cart, moves forward.

Question 6. Taking force (F) length (L) and time (T) as fundamental quantities, express (1) density, (2) pressure, and (3) momentum.
Answer:

Acceleration  \(=\frac{L}{T^2}\)  mass \(=\frac{\text { force }}{\text { acceleration }}\)=\(\frac{F}{L}\)=\(\frac{F T^2}{L}\)

∴(1)\(\frac{\text { force }}{\text { acceleration } \times L^3}\)=\(\frac{F T^2}{L^4}\)

(2)\(\frac{F}{L^2}\)

(3)\(\frac{\mathrm{FT}^2}{\mathrm{~L}} \times \frac{\mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{T}}\)=\(\mathrm{FT} \text {. }\)

Question 7. Define translation. Classify it.
Answer:

If the different particles constituting a body travel in a definite direction so that the line joining any two points of it remains parallel to itself, then the motion of the body is called translation. Translational motion, again, is divided into two kinds:

(1) Rectilinear motion : When the translational motion of a body takes place along a straight line, it is called Rectilinear motion. (e.g. motion of a freely falling body under gravity).
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 forces and motion Rectilinear Motion(2) Curvilinear motion: When the translational motion of a body takes place along a curved path, it is called curvilinear motion. (e.g. motion of a seat of vertical merry-go-round).


WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 forces and motion Curvilinear Motion
Question 8. Wrtie a short note on circular motion.
Answer:

Circular motion: If a body moves along a circular path around a fixed point or about a fixed axis, then the motion of the body is called circular motion. Examples include the Supvllingsametion motion of the earth about the sun, the motion of a satellite around the earth, the motion of an electron around the nucleus of an atom, a stone tied at one end of a string and revolving along a circular path, etc.

In translation a body moves along a straight line while in circular motion a body moves along a circular path etc.. is around a fixed point. The direction of motion does not Cha Rotational change in case of translation but the direction of motion axis changes continuously in circular motion.

Moreover, in ’ translation, if a body moves with constant speed, it has i. no acceleration; but in circular motion, a body, even if travels with uniform speed possesses acceleration.

Again, motion may occur in one dimension, in two dimensions, and also in three dimensions. When a body moves along a straight line it is known as one-dimensional motion. Motion of a freely falling body under gravity, oscillatory motion of a body motion.

If a body moves along a curved path in a plane, then its motion is known as two-dimensional motion. Motion of an ant crawling on a globe, revolution of a planet around the sun, etc. are examples of two-dimensional motion.

Again, when a body moves in space, then its motion is known as three-dimensional motion. This kind of motion is the most general type of motion. Its examples are a bee flying in air or a kite flying on a windy day, etc.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion Rotational axisQuestion 9. Write a short note on rotational motion
Answer:

Rotational motion: To describe rotational motion, the concepts adopted in circular motion are not sufficient; because in rotational motion change of orientation rather than position of an extended object is to be considered. An extended body is made up of a continuous distribution of particles of fixed masses with an external force.

Let us consider three constituent particles P, Q, and R of an extended rigid body and for a pure rotation of this extended body; each and every particle undergoes circular motion and centers of such motion for those particles lie on the same straight line or axis, known as axis of rotation.

Axis of rotation for an extended rigid body may pass through the body or it may lie outside the body.

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Now, for an extended rigid body three kinds of rotation are possible, viz. orbital motion, spin motion and precessional motion. When a body is rotated around a distant axis of rotation then the motion of the body is called orbital motion.

Example: Motion of different planets around the sun.

When an extended rigid body rotates around its axis of symmetry then the motion of the body is called spin motion. Motion of a spinning top, daily rotation of the Earth about its axis passing through its two poles are examples of spin motion. Again, the spin axis of a rotating rigid body wobbles around another fixed axis to describe a cone.

Then that kind of motion is called precessional motion. At the last stage of a spinning top just before it comes to stop, the motion is such that the axis of the top rotates like a cone around a definite vertical axis. It is an example of precessional motion.

Question 10. Distinguish between translation and rotation
Answer:

We get the following differences between translation and rotation :

(1) In pure translation, the body travels along a straight line but in pure rotation, a body describes circular motion in a plane.

(2) In a pure translation, the direction of motion of the body remains fixed whereas in pure rotation axis of rotation remains fixed.

(3) In a pure translation, the displacement of all the particles constituting a rigid body occurs in the same direction and in pure rotation, the orientation of a rigid body changes but the relative distance between the constituent particles remains unaltered.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Distance And Displacement

Question 11. Distinguish between distance and displacement.
Answer:

Difference between distance and displacement :

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion Distance between displacement

12. State and explain the meaning of resolution of forces.
Answer:

Resolution of forces: Resolution of force means splitting up of a force into two components. When a force is resloved into mutually perpendicular components then those components are called rectangular components of the force.Resolution of a force is utilised in towing of a boat by a simple rope. If a boat is pulled

Along the direction \(\overrightarrow{O C}\)with the help of a rope then with OC as diagonal and a parallelogram

OACB is drawn, then according to parallelogram law of vectors, the vector \(\overrightarrow{O C}\) can be resolved into two mutually perpendicular components \(\overrightarrow{O A}\)and \(\overrightarrow{O B}\).

The component \(\overrightarrow{O B}\) being normal to the river tries the boat to move across the river but its effect is cancelled by the rudder and as a result, the boat moves in the direction of the component\(\overrightarrow{O A}\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion vertical component

Question 13. Write a short note on balanced and effective forces.
Answer:

Effective force and balanced force : If the resultant of a number of forces acting on a body is not zero, then the forces are called unbalanced forces. The net force acting on the body under the influence of a number of unbalanced forces is called the effective force. If the rider of a bicycle stops pedalling it then it will slow down. This is because. when the

Rider stops pedaling, the force of friction acting between the tires of the bicycle and the road opposes the motion of the bicycle.

An effective force has to be applied on the bicycle to keep it in motion. When the bicycle is moving with some non-uniform velocity, then the net force or unbalanced force acting on the bicycle becomes equal to the force applied by the rider while pedaling the bicycle minus force of friction between the tires and the road.

Unbalanced forces:

(1) may increase the speed,
(2) may decrease the speed or
(3) may

change the direction of motion of a body. This means that unbalanced forces or an effective force can produce acceleration in a body. Here, effective force is the cause and acceleration (change of motion) is the effect. On the other hand, if the resultant of all the forces acting on a body is zero, the forces are called balanced force.

Question 14. State and explain the concept of inertial mass.
Answer:

Concept of inertial mass: Newton’s second law of motion leads us to the concept of inertia and the concept of inertial mass.
According to Newton’s second law of motion, we know that for a given body, the acceleration is directly proportional to the net force applied.

Thus, force,\(\overrightarrow{F}\)α acceleration \(\overrightarrow{a}\)Or, \(\overrightarrow{F}\) = m.\(\overrightarrow{a}\), where m is a constant of proportionality,.called mass of the body.

Let an equal amount of force \(\overrightarrow{F}\)be applied separately on two bodies of different masses \(\mathrm{m}_1\) and\(\mathrm{m}_2\) (\(\mathrm{m}_1\), > \(\mathrm{m}_2\))

and if the accelerations produced in the two bodies are \(\overrightarrow{a_1}\) and a\(\overrightarrow{a_2}\) respectively, then according to the relation \(\overrightarrow{F}\)=m. \(\overrightarrow{a}\) we get,

⇒ \(\overrightarrow{F}\)=\(\mathrm{m}_1\) \(\overrightarrow{a_1}\)=\(\mathrm{m}_2\)\(\overrightarrow{a_2}\)

∴\(\frac{\overrightarrow{a_1}}{\overrightarrow{a_2}}=\frac{m_2}{m_1}\)

∴(\(\mathrm{m}_1\), > \(\mathrm{m}_2\))

∴\(\overrightarrow{a_1}\) › a\(\overrightarrow{a_2}\)

Hence, acceleration produced in the heavier body is less than that in the lighter body. Hence, mass of a body may be considered as the measure of the opposition for the produced in it. It leads to give us the concept of ‘intertial mass’.

Question 15. Is Newton’s second law of motion consistent with his first law?
Answer:

Consistency of Newton’s second law of motion with the first law of motion: According to Newton’s second law of motion, \(\overrightarrow{F}\) = (\(\overrightarrow{m}_a\) where F is the force applied on a body, m is the mass of the body and a is the acceleration produced in the body.

Now, in absence of any external force Bing on the body, i.e., when \(\overrightarrow{F}\) =0, \(\overrightarrow{m}_a\) =0.

∴ m can not be zero ,so \(\overrightarrow{a}\) =0.

Now, acceleration (1) of the body zero indicates that if the body is initially at rest, it will remain at rest and if it is in motion, then it will continue its motion with the same velocity which is nothing but Newton’s first law of motion. Therefore, Newton’s second law of motion is consistent with the first law.

Question 16. Write a short note on contact forces.
Answer:

Contact forces: The forces which exist because of actual contact between the sources and the body are called contact forces.

Different types of contact forces are

(1) Normal reaction: When a body appliés a force on another, the latter body also exerts a reactionary force which acts normal to its surface and this is known as normal reaction. For example when a book is placed on a table, the table exerts normal reaction on the book against its weight in the upward direction.

(2) Elastic force: It is the force exerted by.a deformed elastic body by virtue of its elasticity. Force exerted by a compressed string is an example of elastic force.

(3) Tension: The force that comes into play in a suspension string is called tension.

(4) Frictional force: Force that acts tangentially to the two surfaces due to the interlocking of undulations present on the surfaces is called frictional force. Force of friction exerted between the tyre of a car and the road surface is an example of such force.

(5) Air resistance: When the motion of a body takes place through air then the retarding force which comes into play is called air resistance. This force is exerted on an aeroplane when it flies through air at high speeds.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 17. Write a short note on non-contact forces
Answer:

Non-contact forces: The forces which exist without any physical contact between the bodies but are due to some intrinsic characteristics of the bodies, are called non-contact forces.

Some non-contact forces are:

(1) Gravitational force: The force of attraction acting between. any two bodies in the universe due to gravitational attraction between them.

Example: force of attraction acting on a body nearer to the Earth by virtue of which the body falls downwards towards the center of the earth.

(2) Electrical force: The force of attraction or repulsion acting between two unlike or like charges is called electrical force. Force of attraction acting between the nucleus of an atom and its orbiting electrons is an example of such kind of force.

(3) Magnetic force: The force that comes into play between two bodies due to their magnetic behavior is called magnetic force. Force of attraction acting between two unlike

Question 18. What are the four basic forces in nature?
Answer:

Basic forces in nature : There are four basic forces in nature. These are:

(1) Gravitational force:
It is always attractive, mass-dependent but change independent force which obeys inverse-square law; gravitational is a long-range, the weakest and conservative central force. :

(2) The weak force: It is a short range but 10% times stronger than the gravitational force. In the process of β-decay, this force plays an important role and it explains the interaction between leptons, mesons and baryons.

(3) The strong force : It is a very short Tange, attractive, charge-independent but spin-dependent force; gravitational force is about 100 times stronger than electromotive force and is operative in between different nucleons inside a nucleus.

(4) Electromagnetic forces: It is a long-range, mass-independent, attractive or repulsive force that obeys the inverse-square law; electromagnetic force is a central force and is about 10*5 times stronger than the weak force. It is also a conservative force.

Question 19. Write a short note on the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
Answer:

The principle of conservation of linear momentum states that — “If no net external unbalanced force acts on the system of isolated bodies then the total linear momentum of the system in a given direction remains constant.”

According to Newton’s second law of motion, the time rate of change of linear momentum is equal to the applied force.

Thus,\(\vec{F}\)=\(\frac{\Delta \vec{p}}{\Delta t}\)

If the system is isolated, then \(\vec{F}\) =0

∴\(\frac{\Delta \vec{p}}{\Delta t}\)=0

∴\(\vec{P}\)=Constant.

Collisions of two bodies moving in same straight line: Let us consider an isolated system consisting of two bodies of masses m, and m, respectively. Let the two bodies be moving along a straight line in the same direction with velocities \(\overrightarrow{u_1}\) and \(\overrightarrow{u_2}\) ( \(\overrightarrow{u_1}\)>\(\overrightarrow{u_2}\))respectively.

The two bodies will collide after some time and let their final velocities after collision be \(\overrightarrow{v_1}\) and \(\overrightarrow{v_2}\) respectively.

Prior to collision, total linear momentum of the system\(=m_1 \overrightarrow{u_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{u_2}\)

After collision takes place, total linear momentum of the system \(=m_1 \overrightarrow{v_1}+m_2 \overrightarrow{v_2}\)

Now, at the time of collision the first body of mass \(m_2\), exerts of force \(\vec{F}\)on the second body of mass \(m_2\) , and the second body also exerts an equal but opposite reactionary force ( \(\vec{-F}\) ) on the first body.

Now, according to Newton’s second law of motion, force acting on the body of mass \(m_2\) is

⇒ \(\vec{F}\)= Rate of change of momentum of the body of mass \(m_2\)

⇒  \(=m_2\left(\frac{\overrightarrow{v_2}-\overrightarrow{u_2}}{t}\right)\)……………..(1) (t=time during which collision occurs)

Again, force acting on the body of mass \(m_2\) is pars}

⇒  \(\vec{-F}\)= Rate of change of mementum of the body of mass\(\overrightarrow{m_1}\)

⇒  \(=m_1\left(\frac{\overrightarrow{v_1}-\overrightarrow{u_1}}{t}\right)\)………………(2)

From equation (1)and (2), we get

⇒  \(=m_2\left(\frac{\overrightarrow{v_2}-\overrightarrow{u_2}}{t}\right)\)–\(=m_1\left(\frac{\overrightarrow{v_1}-\overrightarrow{u_1}}{t}\right)\)

or,\(m_2 \vec{v}_2-m_2 \vec{u}_2=-m_1 \vec{v}_1+m_1 \vec{u}_1\)

or,\(m_2 \vec{v}_2+m_1 \vec{v}_1=m_2 \vec{u}_2+m_1 \vec{u}_1\)

∴\(m_1 \vec{u}_1+m_2 \vec{u}_2=-m_1 \vec{v}_1+m_2 \vec{v}_2\)

i.e., total momentum of the system before collision is equal to total momentum of the system after collision this is the law of conservation of linear momentum.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 20. Derive the equations of motion by graphical method.
Answer:

Equations of motion by graphical method : An object moving along a straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration a can be related to its velocity v and distance s covered in a certain time interval t by the following equations :

(1) v=u+at

(2) s = ut + ½a\(t^2\)

(3) \(v^2\)=\(u^2+2 a s\)

These equations are called equations of motion and can be derived from the velocity-time graph.

(1) Derivation of v = u + at: The velocity-time graph of an object moving under uniform acceleration a and initial velocity u is shown in Fig. It is seen from the graph, the initial velocity is u at A which increases to v at B in time t. If BC and BE be the perpendiculars drawn from B on time and velocity axes respectively, then u = OA, v = BC and t = OC.

So, BD = BC − CD = change in velocity in time interval t.

If AD be drawn parallel to OC, then from the graph,

BC = BD + DC=BD+OA

or, v=BD+u

or, BD=v-u

Now, acceleration, a \(=\frac{\text { change in velocity }}{\text { time }}\)=\(\frac{\mathrm{BD}}{\mathrm{AD}}\)=\(\frac{\mathrm{BD}}{\mathrm{OC}}\)

Putting OC=t, \(a \)= \(\frac{B D}{t}\)  or, BD = at=v-u

∴ V=u+at

(2) Derivation of s = ut + ½a\(t^2[\): Let the object moves a distance s in time t under uniform acceleration a. The distance traveled by the object is given by area OABC enclosed under the velocity-time graph A

So, distance traveled,

s = area OABC

= area of rectangle OADC + area of the AABD

= OA x OC + ½ (AD x BD) =u t+ ½(t xat)

∴ s=ut+ ½at.

(3) Derivation of \(v^2\)=\(u^2+2 a s\): Let the object travels a distance s in time t under uniform acceleration a. It is seen from the.
s = area of trapezium OABC \(=\frac{(O A+B C) \times O C}{2}\)=\(\frac{(u+v) t}{2}\)

Further, from the relation v = u + at, we have t \(=\frac{v-u}{a} .\)

so,s\(=\frac{(v+u)(v-u)}{2 a}\)

V \(=u^2+2 a s\).

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity and time (s)

Question 21. Show the displacement-time graphs of an object moving with uniform velocity and uniform acceleration.
Answer:

Displacement-Time graphs: The displacement of an object moving with uniform velocity along a straight path. The hypothetical time-displacement data of a particle are

Show in the following table.

Time (t) (second)             0  10  20  30  40
Displacement (s) (meter) 0  9    19  28  38


WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion displacement and time

The displacement-time graph is shown in fig. 1. It is a straight-line graph passing through origin. From the graph it is seen that in time interval AC \(=\left(t_2-t_1\right)\) the corresponding displacement BC is equal to (\(\left(s_2-s_1\right)\)) =s.

Thus, v \(=\frac{s_2-s_1}{t_2-t_1}\)=\(\frac{s}{t}\)

Again when the object is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight path, let the corresponding data are shown in the following table.

Time (t) in s             0  1  2  3  4    5   6
Displacement in m  0  1  4  9  16  22  36

The displacement-time graph is shown in the


WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion displacement and time(s)

Question 22. Write a short note on the parallelogram law of forces.
Answer:

The parallelogram law of forces : If simultaneously two forces act on a particle, the forces being represented in magnitude and direction by two adjacent sides of a resulting force, represented in magnitude and direction by the diagonal of the parallelogram passing through the same point.

If P and Q be two forces acting at an acute angle θ with each other, and be represented in magnitude and direction by R.

The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram, Q then their resultant force R is given in magnitude and direction by the diagonal of the parallelogram.

And if α be angle, the resultant R makes with the force P, then its value can be determined by measuring this angle.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion parallelogram

In our daily life we find applications of this law. Two applications are given as below :

(1) A boat pulled by two tugs in two different directions, then the boat does not move in either of these two directions, but moves along direction which is the diagonal of the parallelogram formed by two tugs as the sides of the parallelogram.

(2) If a man walks across the floor of a compartment of a train moving along a straight railway line, then the resultant velocity of the man can be found by the diagonal of the rectangle so formed.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 23. Give some examples of action and reaction forces.
Answer:

The following examples explain the action and reaction forces:

(1) When we sit on a chair, their is a downward gravitational force on us (i.e., our weight) which acts on the chair. This.is action. The chair also applies an equal reaction force on us in the opposite (i.e., upward) direction.

Because of these two equal and opposite forces acting on us we keep steady and do not fall to the ground. It is to be noted that equilibrium is restored not between the action and reaction forces but between our weight and the reaction of the chair, both acting on our bodies.

(2) While flying, a bird applies a force on the air by its wings. The air also exerts an equal and opposite reaction force to this action force of the wings which helps the bird to fly floating on the air. For this reason birds cannot fly in vacuum.

(3) Consider two magnets separated by a distance. When opposite poles of the magnets face each other, they attract each other and similar poles are facing each other they repel. Of the two magnets, weaker or lighter one is drawn or repelied from the other.

Here both the magnets attract or repel each other with some force but the lighter one moves towards or away from the heavier one. If we hold one of them hard on the table, the other would move towards or away, when the force of attraction or repulsion between the magnets are sufficient to pull each other.

(4) The Earth orbits around the sun. The only force that acts on the Earth by the sun is the gravitational force exerted by the sun on the earth, which provides the centripetal force required by the earth for its revolution.

Now where is the corresponding reaction force? The answer is the gravitational attractive force of the Earth on the sun. It is known that these gravitational forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in sign. Thus it is seen that action and reaction forces are equal and opposite to each other.

(5) Let us take two spring balances whose hooks be connected to each other. Holding them firmly, they are drawn in the opposite directions. The readings of the spring balances are found to be always the same.

Now, if one of the balances is fixed to a firm support like wall and the other is pulled with a certain force, it will be found that each of the spring balances shows same reading. Thus it proves conclusively that action and reaction forces are equal and opposite.

Question 24. What are the ways in which a force may be exerted?
Answer:

There are four different ways in which a force may be exerted. These are :

(1) Pull: It is usually applied along some length of a substance.

Example: the force is applied along a string, a chain, etc. and the string is said to be in a state of tension.

The pull substance like a rod. A rope tied to the ceiling through a hook. When pull the rope from the lower end, a force is exerted on the hook. The hook, in turn, exerts a reaction through the rope.

A pull is thus exerted along the length of a substance. Thus the effect of the pair of action and reaction forces exerted through a material medium is to bring the two interacting bodies together orto prevent them from separating.

(2) Push: When a man presses a wall with his hands, he applies a force on the wall, which in turn, applies a reaction on the man. As a result, the man and the wall tend to separate from each other.

So, by push it is meant a pair of action and reaction between two bodies which tries to keep the bodies apart from each other. A push distributed over an area is often called thrust and can be applied through rigid bodies only and not by flexible bodies. :

(3) Attraction and repulsion: When a pair of actions between two bodies separated by a distance tries to bring them together, attraction between them is said to exist and when it tends to keep apart, repulsion between them occurs.

Gravitational, magnetic, electrical forces are examples of this type of force. These forces exist always. It does not matter whether there is the presence of a material medium between them or not, though the magnitude of the forces may depend upon them.

(4) Friction: When a body tends to slide over another, the second body exerts a reaction on the first acting opposite to the direction of motion and trying to prevent the motion is called friction.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 25. “Rest and motion are relative”. Explain.
Answer:

Rest and motion are relative: A body seems to be at rest with respect to one neighboring fixed object but the same body may appear to be in motion with respect to some other fixed neighbouring object. So, rest and motion are relative terms.

Examples :

(1) In a moving train, a passenger finds his co-passengers at rest, but to an observer standing outside the train the same passengers appear to be in motion.

(2) A person standing on a road finds a car moving away from him. So, the car is in motion with respect to him. Now, if another car near it moves with the same speed and direction, thento a person in the second car, the first car seems to be at rest. In fact, every object in the universe is in motion with respect to one or the other object.

Example: A passenger in a moving train finds trees, buildings, etc. in motion, but. those things appear to be at rest to a person standing somewhere outside the train. ~ Thus, absolute rest and absolute motion are meaningless terms.

Question 26. Write a short note on displacement.
Answer:

Displacement: When an object changes its position as time passes on, the distance measured in the direction from its initial to final position along a straight line is known as its displacement.

Displacement is a vector quantity, it is directed from the initial position of a body to its final position. The measurement of displacement of a body solely depends upon its initial and final positions, not on the paths followed by it in reaching the final position from its initial position.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion displacement

As in the adjacent figure, an object moves from its initial position A to its final position B. It may do this in two ways.

It may either follow the path ACDEB or the path AOB, but in each instant the displacement is the straight line AB that joins the initial position C, D, E in the latter case and at O in the former case. A

lso the distances of ACDEB, and AOB are of different magnitudes but displacement AB is same in both some cases. One thing is common to both. It is that both distance and displacement denote some length of path covered by a moving body.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion displacement

But measurement of displacement is always directed from the initial position of a body to its final position. If the initial position of a moving body coincides with the final position occupied by it after moving through some length of path, the displacement of the body is zero.

Thus a body while moving along a circular or a curved path, if returns to its starting position, its displacement and the distance covered are different in magnitude but if it travels along a straight line, both the distance and displacement are equal in magnitude.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 27. Write a short note on inertia of rest.
Answer:

Inertia of rest: It is that property of a body by virtue of which the body tends to remain at rest and itself does not change its state.

Definition: Inertia of rest is the inherent property of a material body by virtue of which it continues in its state of rest until and unless no external unbalanced force compels it to move.

Example: A book kept on a table remains at rest as long as it is not disturbed by any externally applied force.

For disturbing from its state of rest, it can be raised or displaced.to other positions only by the application of a force by way of pulling up or pushing through Of course, the body at rest will not respond to an external force of any magnitude, the force to which the body responds, depends on the mass of the body; greater the mass of the body, greater external force is required.

A smaller force can disturb the rest condition of a body of a smaller mass. Another definition of the inertia of rest may also be derived : it is the ability of a body to stistain its initial state of rest. This property of sustaining ability of a body depends on its mass.

For example, a blackboard duster lying at rest on a table can be easily set into motion by pushing it gently with a finger, but such a small force cannot move a table of larger mass. From this we can infer that the ability of a body to sustain its initial state of rest or motion increases with increase of its mass.

But it is true that the force exerted on the table with finger brings forth a tendency of its motion, for, if the magnitude of the force is increased, the table starts moving. Thus, the ability of a body to sustain its intial state of rest or motion is limited.

Examples of inertia of rest :

(1) To remove dusts from a blanket or a cloth it is struck by a stick or jerked vigorously. When struck by a stick or jerked suddenly, fibres of the article are just made to move away, but the dust particles, due to their inertia of rest, remain at their initial positions and they fall off in absence of any support.

(2) A person sitting or standing in a bus at rest leans backward as the bus starts suddenly. While the bus is at rest, the person’s body in contact with it also remains at rest. As soon as the bus starts, the lower part of the person’s body in contact of the bus moves forward but his upper part tends to remain in the former position due to inertia of rest, the result is nothing but leaning back.

Question 28. Write a short note on the inertia of motion.
Answer:

Inertia of motion: Definition: The tendency of a moving body to maintain its uniform motion in a straight line in absence of any effective external force is called inertia of motion.

Another meaning is that a body moving uniformly tries to defy the effect of an external. force acting on it. The ‘effect’ of the force here refers to the disturbing actions over the uniformity of motion of the body.

But this ability is limited upto certain magnitudes of the said force. A body of large mass can maintain this property upto a large value of this force while a smaller mass yields to a much smaller force.

Example :

A person runs or walks uniformly along a road. His uniform motion may be changed simply by pushing or pulling him with hand, but a similar force cannot affect the uniform motion of a running locomotive engine that possesses a huge mass. But, a vigorous pull or push executed with the help of another engine can definitely change its uniform motion of it.

An external force changes the uniformity of motion of a body in either of these ways — if the force is directed in the direction of initial motion of the body, velocity of it increases.If it is in opposite direction, velocity decreases and if it is tangential to the body, the direction of motion changes.

Also, everywhere the inertia of a body and an external force acting on it are in opposition to each other. Thus it is also true that inertia of rest or inertia of motion of a body is a measure of its ability of sustaining its state of rest or uniform motion.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 29. “Mass is a measure of inertia.”  Explain.
Answer:

Mass is a measure of Inertia: This means, both types of inertia (of rest and of motion) are large for a body of large mass and they are small for a body of small mass. That is, greater the mass, greater is the ability of a body to sustain its initial state of rest or motion even under the effects of an external force and smaller the mass, smaller is its ability to do so.

Thus, a small force of push offered with hand can easily displace a book at rest. But to displace a large chunk of rock, a force of enormous magnitude is necessary. Here, the book of small mass has a large inertia of rest, soa very large force can move it.

Similarly, a small force can change the motion of a cyclist but a very large force is necessary to do so in case of a moving truck, for the inertia of motion of the truck of large mass is greater than that of the cyclist of smaller mass.

Question 30. State and explain Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:

Third law of motion: To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. Discussions on the third law of motion: If someone pushes with his hand a fixed massive body, like a wall or a tabletop, he feels pain on his fist; if he offers blow gently or violently he will feel the effect accordingly.

This means whenever a body applies a force on another, the second body also returns a force of the same magnitude on the former.

For application of force, always two different bodies or two different parts of a single body are necessary. When one body exerts a force on the other, the force is called the action, the second body also offers at the same time an equal force on the first body in the opposite direction and this force is called reaction.

Due to this fact Newton’s third law of motion Says, action and reaction are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.

Since every force of action is associated with an opposite force of reaction, no force can exist singly in nature, that is, in nature forces always appear in pairs.

Any force acting at some point in an inclined direction may be considered to consist of two parts or two components in two suitable directions such that the result of the combined effect of the components on the point is exactly same as that of the initial force. So the components are equivalent to the single force.

Question 31. What are the characteristics of displacement’?
Answer:

Displacement has the following characteristics :

(1) Displacement has the unit of length.

(2) The displacement may be positive, negative or zero.

(3) The magnitude of the displacement of a moving particle between two points gives the shortest distance between them.

(4) From the displacement of a moving particle between two points we do not get any idea about the path followed by the moving particle.

(5) The displacement of a moving particle between two points has a unique value.

(6) The actual distance traveled by the moving particle may be greater than or equal to the magnitude of the displacement. ;

(7) Altering the origin of the coordinate axis has no effect on displacement.

(8) As a particle cannot be at two different positions at the same time, so displacement is a single-valued function of time.

(9) The displacement changes if its direction be changed.

Wbbse Class 9 Difference Between Speed And Velocity

Question 32. Distinguish between speed and velocity.
Answer:

Difference between Speed and Velocity :

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion speed between velocity

Question 33. Write a short note on velocity-time graphs.
Answer:

Velocity-time graphs: Velocity-time graphs under different conditions are shown in the to In velocity-time graph for a particle moving with uniform velocity is shown.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity times graphs

As the velocity V. is uniform, so the plot of the velocity against time would be a straight line parallel to the time axis. The distance moved in time t is equal to it, which is seen from the graph as the area of the rectangle OABC. Thus the distance traveled by a particle in uniform motion is given by the area under the velocity-time graph.

In, the velocity-time graph for a particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration and starting with initial velocity u = 0 is shown. All these conditions being same, motion starting with initial velocity u is shown in .

In both cases, velocity-time curves are straight lines. In each case the constant slope of the straight line gives the uniform accleration.

In the velocity-time graph for a particle moving with uniform retardation in a straight line is shown. The curve is again a straight line but the slope is negative. In all the cases, the distance moved by the particle is given by the area under the velocity-time graph.

Question 34. How is a graph plotted?
Answer:

Plotting a graph: A graph is plotted to display the relationship between two quantities. Generally, one of the two quantities changes independently and the other quantity depends on it.

(1) Choosing the axes: Draw two perpendicular lines crossing each other at a point. Each line represents one of the two quantities to be plotted. Generally, a horizontal line from left to right is drawn to represent the independent quantity and a perpendicular line is drawn to represent the dependent quantity. These lines are called the x-axis and the y- axis, or the horizontal axis and the vertical axis respectively.

(2) Choosing the scale: The size of the paper on which a graph is drawn is limited. On the available length of the axes, values are marked at equal distances. This is done in such a way that all the values of the quantity represented on the axis can be accommodated in the available length.

(3) Plotting the points: Each set of values of the two quantities. is represented by a point on the graph.

(4) Joining the points: Once all the points corresponding to the available sets of values of the quantities are plotted, they are joined by a smooth curve to get the graph.

Question 35. Write a short note on impulse.
Answer:

Impulse: The total effect of a force is called impulse and is measured by the product of the force and the time for which the force acts on the body.

Impulsive force: Impulsive force is a force of very large magnitude but of extremely short duration, which acting on a body, produces a finite change of its momentum, displacement of the body during the action of the force being negligible.

The effect of the force is measured by its impulse.

Example of impulsive force: A player lowers his hands while catching a cricket ball. In doing so he increases the time of catch to reduce the momentum of the ball to zero. We know,

Impulse = force x time = change in linear momentum.

So, to produce a particular change in linear momentum, if one takes longer time, then the force required would be less. Thus in catching a cricket ball, the player increases the time of catch by lowering his hands and thereby decreases the force and smaller reaction occurs on the hands.

Question 36. How does the value of ‘g’ vary from place to place?
Answer:

The value of ‘g’ varies from place to place :

(1)Both as we go up from earth’s surface or go down inside below the surface of the earth, The value of acceleration due to gravity decreases.

(2) At the center of the earth the sete of acceleration due to gravity is found to be zero.

(3) Moreover, acceleration due to gravity changes due to earth’s spin about its axis also. Standard value of acceleration due to gravity is taken at 45° latitude sea level.

(4) Again, on the surface of earth it is maximum at the poles. Because, due to orange shape of the earth, the distance of the poles is shorter than that of the equator from the center of the earth.

Question 37. An object of mass 20 kg is accelerated uniformly from a velocity of 36 km\(h^{-1}\)“ to 54 km\(h^{-1}\)” in 20 s. Calculate
(1) the initial momentum of the body
(2) final momentum of the body and
(3) the force acting on the body.
Answer:

m = 20 kg; initial velocity, u = 36 km\(h^{-1}\) = 36 x 18 =10m\(s^{-1}\)

final velocity, v = 54 km\(h^{-1}\)\(=54 \times \frac{5}{18}\) =15 m\(s^{-1}\); time, t= 25s

(1) Initial momentum of the body, \(\mathrm{p}_1\) = mu = 20 x 10 = 200 kg m\(s^{-1}\)
(2) Final momentum of the body, \(\mathrm{p}_2\) = mv = 20 x 15 = 300 kgm\(s^{-1}\)

(3) Force \(=\frac{\text { change in momentum }}{\text { time taken }}\)=\(\frac{p_2-p_1}{t}\)\(=\frac{300-200}{25}\)=4N.

Question 38. A revolver of mass 500 g fires a bullet of mass 10 g with a speed of 100 ms. Find
(1) momentum of the bullet
(2) the initial momentum of the revolver and bullet as a system and
(3) recoil velocity of the revolver.
Answer:

Given, mass of the revolver, \(\mathrm{m}_1\) = 500 g = 0.5 kg.

mass of the bullet, \(\mathrm{m}_2\) = 10g = 0.01 kg

initial velocity of (revolver + bullet) system, u = 0

final velocity of bullet, v = 100 m\(s^{-1}\)

Let the recoil velocity of the revolver be V m\(s^{-1}\)

(1) momentum of the bullet = \(\mathrm{m}_2\)v = 0.01 x 100= 1 kgm\(s^{-1}\)
(2) initial momentum of (revolver + bullet) = (\(\mathrm{m}_1+ \mathrm{m}_2\))u= 0
(3) momentum of the revolver after firing = \(\mathrm{m}_1\)v = 0.5 x V kgm\(s^{-1}\)
momentum of (revolver + bullet) after firing = initial momentum of (revolver + bullet)

or,0.5v+1=0  or, V= -2m\(s^{-1}\)

∴ recoil velocity of the revolver = 2 m\(s^{-1}\).

39. Velocity-time graph for a body is shown. Find its (1) A acceleration, (2) velocity and (3) distance covered in 20 
Answer:

(1) Acceleration \(=\frac{\text { Change in velocity }}{\text { Time }}\)=\(\frac{0}{t}\)=0

(2) Velocity of the body = 15 m/s (from the graph).

(3) Distance covered in 20 seconds

= Area under v — t graph.
= OA x AB = (20 x 15) m = 300 m.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity(v) and time

Question 40. Velocity-time graph for the motion of a particle is shown:
(1) Which part of the graph indicates accelerated motion? Calculate the acceleration
(2) Which part of the graph shows retarded motion?
(3) Calculate the distance traversed by the body in the first 20 seconds of its journey.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity(v) and time(t)
Answer:

(1) In the graph OA part indicates accelerated motion as velocity goes on increasing from O to A.

Acceleration (a) \(=\frac{v-u}{t}\)=\(\frac{150-0}{20}\)=7.5m/\(s^{2}\).

(2) The part BC of the graph indicates retarded motion as velocity goes on decreasing from B to C.

Retardation(-a)\(=\frac{v-u}{t}\)=\(\frac{0-150}{10}\)=-15m/\(s^{2}\).

(3) Distance traveled by the body in the first 4 s of its journey Area under OA part of the graph = Area of OAD

=½×OD×AD=½×4×4=8cm.

Question 41. The driver of a train A travelling at a speed of 54 km/h applies brakes and retards the train uniformly.
The train stops in 5 seconds. Another train B is travelling on the parallel track with a speed of 36 km/h. His driver applies the brakes and the train retards uniformly. The train B stops in 10 seconds. Draw speed-time graphs for both the trains on the same graph and calculate the F 2 distance travelled by each train after the brakes were Ot>34567 8910 applied.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity and time(t)Answer:

In case of train A:

Initial velocity (u) = 54 km/h\(=\left(54 \times \frac{5}{18}\right)\)m/s = 15 m/s

Final velocity (v) = 0, time (t) =5s

Velocity-time graph for a is shown by straight line EF

∴ Distance travelled by A = Area of ΔEOF

=½×OF×OE=(½×5×15)m=3.75m.

In case of train B :

Initial velocity (u) = 36 km/h =\(=\left(36 \times \frac{5}{18}\right)\)m/s =10m/s

Final velocity (v) = 0

Time taken (t) = 10s

Velocity-time graph for (B) is shown by the straight line CD.

Distance traveled by B = Area of ΔCOD

= ½×OD×OC=(½×10×10)m=50m.

Question 42. For a moving object distance-time graph is shown beside. From the graph,
(1) Find the speed of the object during first 4 s of its motion.
(2) State how long it was stationary.
(3) State whether this situation is real or not.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion distance and time(s)Answer:

(1) Speed of the object during first 4s

= slope of OP part of the graph Time (s}

⇒ \(=\frac{P S}{O S}\)=\(\frac{75 m}{4 s}\)=18.75m/s.

(2) From 4 seconds to 14 seconds, distance does not change with time and hence it remains stationary for (14−4) = 10 seconds.

(3) This situation is impractical because the distance traversed can not be decreased with time. Moreover, time can not go backward as is shown by QR part of the graph. Hence it is not a real situation.

Question 43. Velocity-time graph for a moving body is shown.
(1) What is the initial velocity?
(2) What is the velocity of the body at the point C?
(3) Find the acceleration of the body between A and B.
(4) Find the acceleration acting on the body between B and C.
Answer:

(1) Initial velocity of the body = 20 m/s.
(2) Velocity of the body at the point C = 40 m/s.
(3) Acceleration between A and B

⇒ \(=\frac{v-u}{t}\)\(=\frac{(40-20) m / s}{3 s}\)=\(\frac{20}{3} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2\)

=6.67m/\({s}^2\)(approx).

(4) Acceleration between B and C\(=\frac{(v-u)}{t}\) =\(\frac{0}{t}\)

(∴ No change in velocity occurs between B and C) = 0

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity and time(t)(s)

44. A force of 5 N gives a mass m, an acceleration of 8 m/s? and a mass m, an acceleration of 24 m/s. What acceleration would it give if both the masses are tied together?
Answer:

In the first case: force (F) = 5 N, mass (m) =\(\mathrm{m}_1\)  acceleration (a) = 8 m/\({s}^2\)

∴F=ma ∴ 5=\(\mathrm{m}_1\) 8 or,m=\(\frac{5}{8}\) kg

∴ The mass \(\mathrm{m}_1\)  is \(\frac{5}{8}\) kg.

In the second case: Force (F) = 5 N, mass (m) =\(\mathrm{m}_2\), acceleration (a) = 24 m\({s}^2\)

∴F=ma  ∴5=\(\mathrm{m}_2\)  x 24  ∴\({m}^2\)  =\(\frac{5}{24}\) kg

∴The mass\(\mathrm{m}_2\)  is\(\frac{5}{24}\)kg.

In the third case: mass (m) = \(\mathrm{m}_1\) +\(\mathrm{m}_2\)=\(\left(\frac{5}{8}+\frac{5}{24}\right) \mathrm{kg}\)=\(\frac{20}{24} \mathrm{~kg}\)=\(\frac{5}{6} \mathrm{~kg}\)

Force (F) =5N

Acceleration (a) =?

∴F=ma      ∴5\(=\frac{5}{6}\)a      ∴ a=5×\(\frac{6}{5}\)=6m/\({s}^2\)

∴Hence, the required acceleration is 6 m/\({s}^2\).

Question 45. From the given velocity-time graph, answer the following :
(1) What type of motion does OA represent?
(2) What type of motion does AB represent?
(3) Find the acceleration of the body. ‘ Y
(4) Find the distance traveled by the body from O to C.
Answer:

(1) The graph is a straight line having upward slope, it represents uniform acceleration.

(2) Since it is a straight line parallel to time axis, it represents uniform speed.

(3) We know acceleration is the slope of the time-velocity graph. So, \(\frac{A D}{O D}\)=\(\frac{10 m}{5 s}\) = 2 m/s.

(4) Distance is the area enclosed between velocity time graph and time axis = area of

trapezium OABC = ½ (AB + OC) x BE = ½{(25−5) + 30) x 10 m/s = 250 m.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity and time(t)(s) graph

Question 46. From the given velocity-time graph of a body :
(1) Calculate the distance traveled by it in 4 s.
(2) Calculate the distance traveled by it in 8 s.
Answer:

(1) We know that the area between ~ velocity time graph and time axis gives the distance traveled by the body. The distance traveled in 4 sec is the area of
triangle OAC = ½ x OC x AC= ½ x4s x 10 m/s = 20m.

The distance traveled in 4 s is 20 m. Time per second

(2) Distance traveled in 8 s is given by the area of the trapezium OABD.

Area of trapezium OABD = ½ (AB + OD) x BD

Now, AB = CD = OD-OC=8-4=4s

BD = 10 m/s. OD = 8s.

Area of trapezium OABD = ½(4 + 8) x 10 =60m.

Thus, distance traveled in 8 s = 60 m.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 2 Forces And Motion velocity and time per second

Question 47. A particle moves in a straight line with a retardation of 10 m/s\(s^2\) If its initial velocity is 50 m/s, when would it stop?
Answer:

(1) The deceleration is 10 m/ \(s^2\)means that in each second velocity of the particle diminishes by 10 m. So, at this rate, the time in which its initial velocity diminishes.
To zero, then it stops. Hence, the required time \(=\frac{50 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}}{10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^2}\)=5s.

(2) By using the formula, v = u + at, where symbols are of usual significance, when the particle stops, its final velocity, v = 0, and ‘a’ should be (-ve) for deceleration.

∴V=u-at    or, 0=50−10.t   or, 10t=50      ∴ t=5.

So, the required time is 5 seconds. 

Question 48. Equal forces act on two masses ‘m’ and ‘2m’. If the acceleration acquired by ‘m’ be ‘f’, what is the acceleration acquired by 2 m?
Answer:

From the relation, force = mass x acceleration, the force acting on the mass‘m’ is mf.

Now the same force mf acts on the mass 2 m, and since, acceleration \(=\frac{\text { force }}{\text { mass }}\),
acceleration of the second body \(=\frac{m f}{2 m} \)= \(\frac{f}{2}\).

Otherwise: since, acceleration α\(\frac{1}{\text { mass }}\) , if the mass of one body is double the other, for the same force, the acceleration of the former body is half that of the latter and it is \(\frac{f}{2}\).

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 6 Heat

Chapter 6 Heat Very Short Answer Type:

Question 1. Which instrument is used to measure the temperature of a body?
Answer: Thermometer.

Question 2. Which instrument is used to measure heat gained or lost by a body?
Answer: Calorimeter.

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 3. How many Fahrenheit degrees is equal to (1) Celsius degree?
Answer: \(\frac{9^{\circ}}{5} \mathrm{~F}\)

Question 4. What is the value of 100°C in the Fahrenheit scale?
Answer: In Fahrenheit scale the temperature is 212°F.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 5. Is heat a vector quantity?
Answer: No, heat is a scalar quantity.

Question 6. Is there any change of temperature during the change of state?
Answer: There is no change in temperature during the change of state.

Question 7. What is the value of the specific heat capacity of pure water?
Answer: The specific heat capacity of pure water is 4200 J/kg K.

Question 8. Is the specific heat of solids greater than that of liquids?
Answer: Generally specific heat of solids has a lower value than that of liquids.

Question 9. Express 45°C in Fahrenheit scale.
Answer: 45°C=111°F.

Question 10. What is a thermometer?
Answer: The instrument with the help of which the temperature of a body can be measured accurately is called a thermometer.

Question 11. What will be the direction of heat flow when two bodies of different temperatures are kept in contact?
Answer: In thermal contact, heat will flow from the body with a higher temperature to the body at a lower temperature.

Question 12. What are the upper and lower fixed points in the Fahrenheit scale?
Answer: In the Fahrenheit scale the upper fixed point is 212°F and the lower fixed point is 32°F.

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter

Question 13. How many divisions are there in the fundamental interval of a Celsius scale?
Answer: The fundamental interval of a Celsius scale is divided into 100 equal divisions.

Question 14. How many divisions are there in the fundamental interval of a Fahrenheit scale?
Answer: The fundamental interval of a Fahrenheit scale is divided into 180 equal parts.

Question 15. Of 0°C and 0°F – which one is less?
Answer: Of 0°C and 0°F, 0°F is less.

Question 16. In which scale is a clinical thermometer graduated?
Answer: A clinical thermometer is usually graduated in Fahrenheit scale. But, nowadays, a clinical thermometer is also being graduated in a Celsius scale.

Question 17. At what temperature are the readings in Celsius and Fahrenheit scales equal?
Answer: At -40 temperature the readings in Celsius and Fahrenheit scales are equal.

Question 18. What is the normal body temperature of a human being in a Celsius scale?
Answer: The normal body temperature of a human being in a Celsius scale = 36°9 °C.

Question 19. What is the normal body temperature of a human being?
Answer: The normal body temperature of a human being is 98°4°F.

Question 20. What is the relation between Celsius and Kelvin scales of temperature?
Answer: lf any temperature in the Kelvin scale be T K and in the Celsius scale it is t°C, then T K = (273 + t)°C.

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 21. What is the relation between calories and joules?
Answer: (1)cal = 42 J.

Question 22. Which liquid has the highest specific heat?
Answer: The specific heat of water is the highest.

Question 23. What is the specific heat of pure water?
Answer: Specific heat of pure water in CGS system is 1cal \(g^{-1}\)°\( C^{-1}\) and in SI system it is 4200 J.K \(g^{-1}\)\(K^{-1}\)

Question 24. The water equivalent of a body is 20 g. What will be its thermal capacity?
Answer: As the water equivalent of the body is 20. g, its thermal capacity will be 20 cal °\( C^{-1}\).

Question 25. What is the SI unit of heat?
Answer: Joule (j) is the SI unit of heat.

Question 26. What is the SI unit of thermal capacity?
Answer: The SI unit of thermal capacity is Joule/Kelvin or Joule/°C.

Question 27. What is a clinical thermometer? 
Answer: The thermometer used for measuring the temperature of the human body is called a clinical thermometer.

Question 28. What is the thermometric liquid in a clinical thermometer?
Answer: Mercury.

Question 29. Name the liquid which has the lowest specific heat. State one use of this property
Answer: Mercury. That is why, it is used as a thermometric liquid.

Question 30. What are the two special features of a clinical thermometer?
Answer:

(1) A very short temperature range from 35°C to 42°C.
(2) A constriction in the glass tube just above the mercury bulb.

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 31. What is the value of 273K temperature in celsius scale?
Answer: Zero degrees centigrade (0°C).

Question 32. What is the unit of specific heat in the C.G.S. system?
Answer: Calorie per gram per degree Celsius (cal \(g^{-1}\)°\( C^{-1}\)).

Question 33. State the S.I. unit of specific heat (capacity).
Answer: The S.1. unit of specific heat capacity is J K \(g^{-1}\)\(K^{-1}\).

Question 34. What is the value of specific heat of the water in S.I. system?
Answer: The sp. heat of water in S.1. system is 4200 JK \(g^{-1}\)\(K^{-1}\).

Question 35. What is the value of specific heat of water in M.K.S. system?
Answer: In M.K.S. system the value of specific heat of water is 4200 J/kg°\(C^{-1}\).

Question 36. Equal masses of mercury and water are given equal amounts of heat. In which case will the temperature rise more and why?
Answer: Mercury, as it has lower specific heat than water.

Question 37. Mention two uses of high specific heat of water.
Answer: For heating purpose (hot water bag) and cooling purpose (car radiator).

Question 38. Mention the conditions under which the principle of Calorie a is valid.
Answer: No loss or gain of heat by the calorimeter.

Question 39. What is the unit of heat in CGS system?
Answer: Calorie is the unit of heat in the CGS system.

Question 40. What is the main principle of calorimetry?
Answer: Heat lost by the hot body = Heat gained by cold body.

Question 41. What will be the temperatures of the bodies at the state of thermal equilibrium?
Answer: The temperatures of the bodies at thermal equilibrium will be the same.

Question 42. What are the different kinds of heat?
Answer: Sensible heat, Latent heat and Radiant heat.

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 43. What is steam point?
Answer: Steam point is the boiling point of water under normal pressure.

Question 44. What is (1)calorie?
Answer: 1 calorie is defined as the heat required to raise the temperature of 1g of water through one degree celsius.

Question 45. What is fundamental interval?
Answer: It is the range of temperature between the upper and lower fixed points in the scale of temperature.

Question 46. What are the factors for determining the quantities of heat in a body?
Answer:

The quantity of heat depends upon the following factors :

(1) Temperature
(2) Mass
(3) Material of the body.

Question 47. What are the lower fixed point and upper fixed point of the thermometer in Celsius scale?
Answer: Lower fixed point is 0°C and upper fixed point is 100°C.

Question 48. What is the fundamental interval of Celsius scale?
Answer: The fundamental interval is divided into 100 equal parts in celsius scale.

Question 49. What is the melting point of ice in Kelvin scale?
Answer: Melting point of ice in Kelvin scale is 273 K.

Question 50. Is specific heat of solid greater than that of liquid?
Answer: Generally specific heat of solid has. lower value than that of liquid.

Question 51. Give an advantage of use of mercury in thermometer.
Answer: Equal volume of mercury increases or decreases for each degree increase or decrease of temperature in a regular manner.

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 52.  What is radiant heat?
Answer: Heat which reaches us from a source by the process of radiation is called radiant heat.

Question 53. What are the different scales of thermometer?
Answer: Gelsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin or Absolute scale of temperature.

Question 54. What is specific heat capacity?
Answer: Specific heat capacity is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of any substance through one degree.

Question 55. What do you mean by the statement that “S.H.C. of aluminium is 880 J k\(g^{-1}\)\(k^{-1}\)
Answer: The statement means 1kg of aluminum requires 880 J of heat for 1° K rise of temperature.

Question 56.The specific heat of copper is 0.09.’ — What does the statement mean?
Answer: ‘Specific heat of copper is 0.09’ means that 0.09 calorie of heat is required to raise the temperature of 1g of copper through 1°C.

Question 57. What is the temperature of 30°C in Kelvin scale?
Answer: The temperature of 30°C is 303 K in Kelvin scale.

Question 58. What is the boiling point of water in Kelvin scale?
Answer: The boiling point of water in Kelvin scale is 373 K.

Question 59. By which process heat reaches the earth from the sun?
Answer: Radiation.

Question 60. What is relation between work done and heat produced?
Answer: W =J x H.

W = work done
H = Heat produced
J = Mechanical equivalent of heat.

Question 61. Why do we feel warmer with two thin blankets than one blanket twice as thick?
Answer:

Air is a bad conductor of heat. When two blankets are used a layer of air is trapped in between. It does not allow the body temperature to go out. Hence, we feel warmer with two thin blankets than one blanket twice as thick.

Question 62. Why is it more convenient to cook when the cooking pot has a bottom made of copper?
Answer: Copper is an excellent conductor of heat. When the bottom of the cooking pot is made of copper, the heat is distributed very fast and equally. Hence, it is convenient to cook.

Question 63. Two coins, one of copper and the other of silver, are heated from room temperature to 100°C. Do they absorb same amount of heat? Explain your answer.
Answer: No. Since the specific heat of copper is more than that of silver, the copper coin will absorb more amount of heat.

Question 64. What is the melting point of ice in Kelvin scale?
Answer: Melting point of ice in Kelvin scale is 273K.

Question 65. The partial pressure of water vapor in the atmosphere is 10 mm of Hg at 20°C. Find the relative humidity. (Vapour pressure of water at 20°C = 17.5 mm of Hg)
Answer:

The vapour pressure of water at 20°C is 17.5 mm of Hg.

Hence, relative humidity \(=\frac{10}{17.5} \times 100\)= 57%.

Question 66. The rise in temperature of a body is 60° in celsius scale. What is the corresponding rise in temperature in Fahrenheit scale?
Answer:

We know, 1°C = \(=\frac{9}{5}^{\circ} \mathrm{F}\)

Question 67. How much heat would be produced by converting 42 Joule or work completely into heat?
Answer:

We know, W = JH

or, H\(=\frac{W}{J}\)=\(\frac{42 \text { Joule }}{4.2 \text { Joule } / \mathrm{Cal}}\)= 72 Joule/Cal = 10 Cal.

Question 68. Mass of a body is 150 g and its specific heat is 0.09. How much heat is required to raise its temperature by 10°C?
Answer:

Required heat = mass of the body x specific heat x rise in temperature = 150 x 0.09 x 10 = 135 cal.

Question 69. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 50 g of lead from 20°C to 100°C? Specific heat of lead is 0.03. 
Answer:

Heat gained by lead \(=m s\left(t_2-t_1\right)\)

= 50 x 0.03 x (100 −20) = 120 cal.

Question 70. What quantity of heat will be taken by 50 g of water at 20°C to reach the boiling point at normal pressure?
Answer:

Boiling point of water at normal pressure = 100°C.

So, heat taken by water = 50 x 1 x (100 −20) = 4000 cal.

Question 71. How many calories of heat are needed to melt 60 g of ice at 0°C?
Answer:

Given, the mass of ice,  m = 60 g;  temperature of ice = 0°C.

H = mL = 60 x 80 = 4800 cal.

Chapter 6 Heat 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 1. Two bodies have the same heat capacity. If they are combined to form a single composite body, show that the equivalent specific heat of this composite body is independent of the masses of the individual bodies.
Answer:

Let the two bodies have masses\(\mathrm{m}_1\) ,\(\mathrm{s}_1\) and specific heats\(\mathrm{s}_2\) and,,

then \(\mathrm{m}_1\)\(\mathrm{s}_1\)=\(\mathrm{m}_2\)\(\mathrm{s}_2\)

Let s = specific heat of the composite body.

Then,(\(\mathrm{m}_1\)+\(\mathrm{m}_2\)) S =\(\mathrm{m}_1\)\(\mathrm{s}_1\)+\(\mathrm{m}_2\)\(\mathrm{s}_2\)

Question 2. Define thermal capacity or heat capacity.
Answer:

Thermal capacity, also referred to as heat capacity, is the amount of heat required to change the temperature of an object by a certain degree.

Question 3. Define specific heat capacity.
Answer:

The specific heat capacity, also referred to as the specific heat of a material, is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of an object per unit mass of that object.

Question 4. Define Latent Heat.
Answer

: Latent heat is the energy absorbed by or released from a substance during a phase change from a gas to a liquid or a solid or vice versa.

If a substance is changing from a solid to a liquid, for example, the substance needs to absorb energy from the surrounding environment in order to spread out the molecules into a larger, more fluid volume.

If the substance is changing from something with lower density, like a gas, to a phase with higher density like a liquid, the substance gives off energy as the molecules come closer together and lose energy from motion and vibration.

Question 5. Define Sensible Heat.
Answer:

Sensible heat is the energy required to change the temperature of a substance with no phase change. The temperature change can come from the absorption of sunlight by the soil or the air itself.

Or it can come from contact with the warmer air caused by the release of latent heat (by direct conduction). Energy moves through the atmosphere using both latent and sensible heats acting on the atmosphere to drive the movement of air molecules which create wind and vertical motions.

Question 6. Define Latent Heat of Fusion and Vaporisation.
Answer:

The energy required to change the phase of a substance is known as latent heat. The word latent means hidden. When the phase change is from solid to liquid we must use the term the latent heat of fusion, and when the phase change is from liquid to gas, we must use the term the latent heat of vaporisation.

Question 7. What is the mechanical equivalent of heat energy?
Answer: The amount of heat energy or thermal energy created is proportional to the work done. This relationship is called the mechanical equivalent of heat and can be expressed by the equation

W=JH

where,

W is the work done in joules (J),

J is the relationship constant 4.18 joules/calorie (J/c),

H is the thermal energy created from the work in calories (c).

Question 8. What is ‘Anomalous Expansion of Water’?
Answer:

Water shows unusual expansion when it is cooled from four degree centigrade to zero degree centigrade, this expansion is known as “anomalous expansion of water.” The unusual behaviour of water, when it expands below 4° celsius to 0°, is called anomalous expansion of water.

Question 9. How does the anomalous expansion of water help to preserve aquatic life?
Answer:

The anomalous expansion of water helps to preserve aquatic life during very cold weather. When temperature falls, the top layer of water in a pond contracts, becomes denser and sinks to the bottom.

A circulation is thus set up until the entire water in the pond reaches its maximum density at 4°C. If the temperature falls further, the top layer expands and remains on the top till it freezes. Thus, even though the upper layer is frozen, the water near the bottom is at 4°C and the fishes, etc. can survive in it easily.

Question 10. Give an example of the anomalous expansion of water.
Answer:

If we take a cube of ice at -5°C and heat it, it expands till ice starts melting. During melting its temperature remains 0°C but its volume decreases. If heat is continuously supplied to water at 0°C, it further contracts upto 4°C and then it starts expanding. Thus, water has its minimum volume and maximum density at 4°C.

Question 11. What is absolute scale or Kelvin scale of temperature?
Answer:

Absolute or Kelvin scale of temperature : In this scale the lower fixed point is 273K and the upper fixed point is 373K, the fundamental interval is divided into 100 equal divisions like that in the celsius scale. Each division represents 1K.

Question 12. What is specific heat capacity of a substance?
Answer:

Specific heat capacity of a substance: The specific heat in SI system is known as specific heat capacity.

Definition: Specific heat capacity of a substance is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of the substance through 1 K as 1°C.

Question 13. What does the first law of thermodynamics state?
Answer:

First law of thermodynamics: When. work is completely converted into heat or heat is completely converted into work, one is equivalent to the other.

Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics: If by converting work W completely heat H is obtained then Wα H

Or, W=JH     (J = mechanical equivalent of heat)

Question 14. What is mechanical equivalent of heat? What are the units of mechanical equivalent of heat in CGS and SI systems?
Answer:

Mechanical equivalent of heat: Work done to produce unit heat is called mechanical equivalent of heat.

Units of mechanical equivalent of heat :

CGS system : 4.18 x \(10^7\)erg/cal

SI system:     4.18 J/Cal

Question 15. Which indicates higher temperature, one division of Celsius scale or one division of Fahrenheit scale?
Answer:

One division of Celsius scale indicates higher temperature than one division of

Fahrenheit scale, for, 1°C \(=\frac{9}{5} \ °F\)

Question 16. Explain why a clinical thermometer should not be dipped into boiling water.
Answer: A clinical thermometer should not be dipped into boiling water. This is because the Temperature of boiling water is 212°F, much higher than the maximum limit (110°F) of the Clinical thermometer. So, if the thermometer is dipped in boiling water, the expanding mercury column will exert a great force which may break the thermometer tube.

Question 17. Why is the bulb of the thermometer made Cylindrical and not spherical?
Answer:

A thermometer becomes quick-acting if its bulb is made cylindrical in shape instead of spherical. Heat absorbed by a body due to conduction is directly proportional to its surface area in contact.

Volume being the same, the elongated cylindrical bulb has a larger contact area than a spherical bulb. The cylindrical bulb will, therefore, absorb more heat in the same time than the spherical bulb, and hence, will respond quickly.

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 18. Two coins, one made of copper and another made of silver, are heated to 100°C at room temperature. Do they absorb same amount of heat? Explain.
Answer: The two coins will not absorb same quantity of heat.

Explanation : Heat absorbed = mass of the body x its specific heat x rise in temperature. Though the rise in temperature of both the copper and silver coins is the same, their masses and specific heats are different. So, the two coins will absorb different quantities of heat.

Question 19. A kettle containing water is cooled from 80°C to 40°C. Do they (the kettle and the water in it) release same amount of heat? Explain.
Answer: The kettle and the water inside it will not lose same amount of heat.

Explanation : Heat given up = mass of the body x its specific heat x fall in temperature.

Though the fall in temperature of both the kettle and the water in it is the same (80 – 40 = 40°C), their masses and specific heats are different and hence, the kettle and water in it will not release an equal amount of heat.

Question 20. Does milk get hot more quickly than water?
Answer:

The specific heat of milk is less than that of water. Hence, if the same amount of water and milk are heated separately at the same rate, the rate of increase in temperature is more for milk than for water. So, milk gets hot more. quickly than water.

Question 21. What is the specific heat of pure water?
Answer: S

pecific heat of pure water in CGS system is 1 cal\(g^{-1}\)\(C^{-1}\)and in SI system it is 4200 J. k\(g^{-1}\)

Question 22. What is the upper fixed point of a thermometer?
Answer: The upper fixed point or the steam point corresponds to the temperature of steam from water under normal atmospheric pressure (76 cm of mercury).

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 23. Express 45°C of temperature in Fahrenheit scale.
Answer:

We know that, \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

Or, \(\frac{45^0}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

Or, \(9\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

Or, F − 32 = 81

Or, F.= 81+ 32 = 113.

∴  In Fahrenheit scale 45°C is 113°F.

Question 24. A piece of copper of mass 100 gram is cooled from 60°C to 40°C. How much heat will be lost? (Specific heat of copper = 0.09 cal\(g^{-1}\)\(C^{-1}\)).
Answer:

Heat lost = mass x specific heat x fall of temperature

= 100.g x 0.09 cal\(g^{-1}\)\(C^{-1}\) x (60 – 40)° C = 180 calories.

Question 25. The mass of a piece of copper is 3 kilograms. The specific heat of copper is 0.09 cal \(g^{-1}\)°\(C^{-1}\). How much heat will be required to raise its temperature by 10°C?
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 3 kg = 3000 gm.

Heat required to raise the temperature by 10°C

= mass x specific heat x rise in temperature

= 3000 x 0.09 x 10 calories = 2700 calories.

Wbbse class 9 physical science chapter 6

Question 26. Explain the term Heat.
Answer:

Heat is a form of energy. It can be experienced by our senses. If we touch a body, we can say whether it is hot or cold. A body appears hot when our hand receives heat from it, while it appears cold when heat passes from our hand to that body.

Heat: The external cause due to which a cold body becomes hot directly or indirectly, or a warm body becomes cold, is known as heat.

Since heat is a form of energy, so it cannot be-created or destroyed, but can be transformed into another form or a number of forms of energy. When heat is applied to a body, it gradually gets heated and when heat is taken out of it, the body becomes cold.

Question 27. What do you mean by the temperature of a body?
Answer:

Temperature : Temperature is a quantity which defines the thermal state of a body. It determines the direction of flow of heat when two bodies of coi temperatures are kept in contact.

Thus, temperature is the condition of a body which determines the direction along which heat will flow. Heat is the cause and temperature is the effect. Temperature indicates the
degree of hotness or coldness of the body. It does not tell us the quantity of heat energy contained in the body. Hence, temperature is the thermal state of a body.

Question 28. State and define the units of heat.
Answer:

The S.I. units of heat is 1 Joule (J).

The C.G.S. unit of heat is 1 Calorie (Cal).

Calorie:nOne calorie heat is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of (1)gm of water through 1°C (from 14. 5° C to 15.5°. C).

1 calorie (1  cal) = 4°2 Joules (J) nearly.

1 Kilo calorie = 1000 calorie

= 4200 Joules. 

Question 29. How is temperature measured? Name the instrument to measure it.
Answer:

Temperature of a body is measured by an instrument called thermometer. The common type of thermometers used in the laboratory or to measure the temperature of a human body are mercury thermometers.

The most commonly used thermometers using the scale are:
(1) Celsius or centigrade scale and
(2) Fahrenheit scale.

WBBSE class 9 question and answers

Question 30. What are the different scales of temperature used in thermometers?
Answer:

To measure the temperature of a body accurately a standard temperature scale is essential.

A temperature scale is prepared by using fixed points on thermometers:
(1) Celsius scale of temperature, and
(2) Fahrenheit scale of temperature.

Question 31. What do you mean by calibration of thermometers?
Answer:

The calibration of thermometers is a process of fixing two points on it and then dividing the interval between them into convenient number of equal parts. The number of equal parts is called the scale of temperature. The fixed points are chosen in such a way that they can be easily obtained. These two fixed points are called lower fixed point and upper fixed point.

Question 32. Establish the relation between the two scales of temperature — Fahrenheit and Celsius.
Answer:

The given figures shows the two scales of temperature, the Celsius scale and the Fahrenheit scale of temperature.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 6 Heat Fahrenheit and celsius

The interval between the upper and lower fixed points is the same in both the scales. Thus, 100 centigrade (div.) degree = 180 Fahrenheit (div.). degree.

∴\(\frac{C-0}{100}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{180}\)

Or, \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

This the relation between the two scales of temperature.

Question 33. Explain Celsius scale (or centigrade scale) and Fahrenheit scale of temperature.
Answer:

Celsius scale (or centigrade scale): On this scale, the lower fixed point or ice point is marked as 0° C. The upper fixed point or steam point is marked as 100° C. The interval between the ice point and the steam point is divided into 100 equal parts. Each of these divisions is called one degree Celsius and is written as °C.

WBBSE class 9  question and answers

Fahrenheit scale of temperature: On the Fahrenheit scale of temperature, the ice point is marked as 32°F and the steam point is marked as 212°F. The interval between the two fixed points is divided into 180 equal parts.-Each division is called one degree Fahrenheit and is written as °F.

Question 34. Show by an experiment that two balls of different materials of same mass and temperature absorb different quantities of heat.
Answer:

Two balls of same mass but of different materials, say, lead and aluminum, are taken. They are immersed in water and heated for some time. After some time both balls are taken out of water and placed on a block of ice. It will be seen that the aluminum ball will melt more ice. This shows that the quantity of heat taken depends upon the material of the body if other conditions are constant. This property is known as the heat capacity of the body.

Question 35. Define thermal or heat capacity of a body.
Answer:

Thermal capacity: The thermal capacity (or heat capacity) is the amount of heat required to raise its temperature by 1° C.

Hence, thermal capacity =\(=\frac{\text { Amount of heat }}{\text { Rise in temperature }}\)

The unit of thermal capacity in S.I. system is Joule per degree.

The unit of thermal capacity in C.G.S. system is calorie per degree.

Question 36. The specific heat of lead is 0°03” – What is its meaning?
Answer:

The specific heat of lead is 0°03” means that one gram of lead will require 0°03 calories of heat to raise the temperature of lead through 1° C.

Question 37. Do one gram of iron and one gram of copper contain equal quantities of heat at same temperature? Explain.
Answer:

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body The specific heat of copper is less than that of iron. Hence the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of both metals of same mass will be different.

WBBSE class 9  question and answers

Question 38. Define water equivalent of a body.
Answer:

The amount of water whose temperature is raised through 1° C by the same quantity of heat which is required to raise the temperature of a body through 1° C, is known as the water equivalent of a body.

If the mass of a body is m gm and its specific heat be s, then the water equivalent (W) is W = ms gm.

The unit of water equivalent measured in gm or kg.

Question 39. State the difference between water equivalent and aennal capacity.
Answer:

Water equivalent and thermal capacity of a body are numerically equal, but their units are different. Water equivalent is an amount of water and it is measured in gram, but thermal capacity is an amount of heat and is expressed in calories.

Question 40. State the principle of caiorimetry. 
Answer:

The principle of calorimetry is based on the law of conservation of energy. When a hot body is mixed (or kept in contact) with a cold body, heat passes from hot body to the cold body till both bodies attain the same temperature. If no heat is lost with the surrounding,then

Heat lost by the hot body = Heat gained by the cold body.

Question 41. Why is water used in hot water bottles?
Answer: Water has a high specific heat in comparison to other liquids. Hence for the same mass of water and other liquids, our body can get greater amount of heat from water.

Question 42. Why do farmers fill their fields with water to protect their crops from frost?
Answer:

Waiter having high specific heat does not allow the temperature in the surrounding area of plants to fall below 0° C. In the absence of water, if on a cold night, temperature falls below 0° C, the water in the fine capillaries of plants will freeze and veins will burst due to increase in volume of water on freezing. As a result the crops willbe destroyed.

Question 43. Why should the bore of a thermometer be uniform and also narrow?
Answer:

The bore should be uniform, otherwise, unequal expansion of mercury thread will take place at different parts of the bore for equal changes in temperature. The bore of thermometer tube should be narrow so that the expansion of mercury thread is long enough for a small change of temperature.

WBBSE class 9  question and answers

Question 44. What do you mean by a quick-acting thermometer? What are the requisites for making a thermometer quick-active?
Answer:

The thermometer with which the temperature of a body can be measured very quickly is called a quick-acting thermometer

To make a quick-acting thermometer:
(1) Volume of its bulb should be small
(2) Glass wall of the bulb should be thin
(3) The bulb should be made cylindrical and
(4) The thermo metric liquid should be of high thermal conductivity.

Question 45. On what factors does the total quantity of heat in a body depend?
Answer:

The quantity of heat in a body depends upon its
(1) Mass
(2) Specific heat and
(3) Temperature.

Question 46. The body temperature of an ill person is 104° F. What would be its temperature in Celsius scale and Kelvin scale?
Answer:

By relation,\(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\) given F = 104° F.

Then,\(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{104-32}{9}\)  Or, C\(=\frac{5 \times 72}{9}\)=40°.

The required temperature in Celsius scale is 40° C.

∴ Reading in Kelvin Scale = 273 + 40 = 313K.

Question 47. The mass of a piece of copper is 3 kilogram. The specific heat of copper is 0°09 cal/g °\(C^{-1}\). How much heat will required to raise its temperature by 10° C?
Answer:

The mass of copper (m) = 3 Kg = 3000 Kg. Specific heat (s) = 0°09 cal/g\(C^{-1}\)  and rise in temperature (1) = 10° C. Heat required = mass x specific heat x rise in temperature

= 3000 x 0°09 x 10 cal = 2700 caI.

Question 48. Calculate the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 150 gm of water from 0°C to its boiling point.
Answer:

The rise in the température of water from 30° C to 100° C (boiling point)

= (100 – 30)°C = 70°C. 4

Heat taken by water = mass of water x specific heat x rise in temperature

= 150 x1 x 70 calories = 10500 calories.

Question 49. What quantity of heat will be taken by 50 gm of water at 20°C to reach its boiling point at normal pressure ?
Answer:

Mass m = 50 gm.

Temperature difference t = (100 − 20)°C = 80°C. ~ Specific heat of water s = 1.

We know that, H = mst

= 50 x (1)x 80

= 4000 cal

∴ Heat taken = 4000 cal.

Question 50. A thermometer having the corresponding upper and lower fixed points 95° and 15°, reads a temperature 65°, what will this temperature be in Celsius scale?
Answer:

The relation between temperature of Celsius and the given scale can be written from the general relation between any two scales as, \(\frac{65-15}{95-15}\)=\(\frac{C-0}{100-0}\)

⇒ \(\text { or, } \frac{50}{80}\)=\(\frac{C}{100}\)

80C= 50×100

∴C\(=\frac{50 \times 100}{80}\)=6.25.

The required temperature is 62.5°C.

WBBSE class 9  question and answers

Question 51. In Fahrenheit scale the temperature of a body increases by 36°. What is the corresponding risé of temperature in Celsius scale?
Answer:

1°F\(=\left(\frac{5}{9}\right)^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\)

∴ 36° F\(=\left(36 \times \frac{5}{9}\right)^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\)

=20° C.

Question 52. What are the types of heat?
Answer:

Types of heat: There are three types of heat.These are :
(1) Sensible heat
(2) Latent heat
(3) Radiant heat.

Question 53. What is radiant heat?
Answer:

Radiant heat: It is that thermal condition of the body which determines whether it will absorb heat from other body or release heat to that body.

Question 54. What is lower fixed point of a thermometer?
Answer:

Lower fixed point of a thermometer: At normal atmospheric pressure, the temperature at which pure ice melts into water or pure water freezes into ice is called the lower fixed point of a thermometer.

Question 55. What is upper fixed point of a thermometer?
Answer:

Upper fixed point of a thermometer: It is the temperature at which pure water boils and transforms into steam under normal atmospheric pressure.

Question 56. What do you mean by fundamental interval?
Answer:
Fundamental interval: The range of temperature between the upper and the lower fixed points is called Fundamental interval.

Question 57. What is absolute scale or Kelvin scale of temperature?
Answer:

Absolute or Kelvin scale of temperature: In this scale the lower fixed point is 273 K and the upper fixed point is 273 K, the fundamental interval is divided into 100 equal divisions like that in the celsius scale. Each division represents 1K.

Question 58. What are the units of heat in CGS and SI systems?
Answer:

Unit of heat in CGS system is calorie: It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of pure water through 1°C. Unit of heat in SI system is joule : As heat is a form of energy, so now-a-days, heat is measured in the unit of energy. That is heat is expressed in joule. It is the SI unit of heat.
1 calorie = 4%8 joule.

Question 59. What do you mean specific heat of a substance?
Answer:
Specific Jeeat of a substance: It is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of it by 1 degree.

Question 60. What are the units of specific heat in CGS and SI systems?
Answer:

Unit of specific heat in CGS system is cal/g/°C.

Unit of specific heat in SI system is J/kg K.

Question 61. What are the units of heat capacity in CGS system and SI systems?
Answer:

Unit of heat capacity in CGS system is Calorie/°C.

Unit of heat capacity in SI system is Joule/kelvin.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 62. State the relation between thermal capacity and specific heat of a body.
Answer:

Relation between thermal capacity and specific heat of a body: Quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a body of mass ‘m’ and specific heat is by 1° = m.s.1= m.s.

i.e., Thermal capacity = mass x specific heat.

Question 63. Show that specific heat is the heat capacity of unit mass.
Answer:

Thermal capacity of a body

= mass x specific heat of material of the body.

Hence, thermal capacity = ms.

Putting, m = 1, in the above relation,

Thermal capacity = 1 x specific heat.

So, it can be concluded, specific heat is the thermal capacity per unit mass.

Question 64. What are the units of water equivalent in CGS system and SI system?
Answer:

Unit of water equivalent in CGS system is gram (g).

Unit of water equivalent in SI system is Kilogram (kg).

Question 65. What are the differences between thermal capacity and water equivalent?
Answer:

Differences between thermal capacity and water equivalent :

Thermal capacity Water equivalent
(1)    Thermal capacity represents some quantity of heat. (1)    Water equivalent represents some quantity of water.
(2)    Units of thermal capacity in CGS and SI systems are calorie/°C and J/K respectively. (2)    Units of water equivalent in CGS and SI systems are gram and kg respectively.

 


Question 66. What is the fundamental principle of calorimetry?

Answer:
Fundamental principle of calorimetry: If no heat flows to outside from the system of bodies and if no chemical reaction takes place between these, >, then from the principle of conservation of energy, it can be said, heat lost by the hotter bodies = heat gained by the colder bodies. This is the principle of calorimetry.

Question 67. What is the relation between heat and molecular velocity?
Answer:
Relation between heat and molecular velocity: The molecules in a hotter body have slower motions. Also, if heat is supplied to a body, its molecules move more rapidly. If heat is withdrawn from a body, the motion of its molecules becomes slower. Thus, increase or decrease of molecular velocity corresponds to higher or lower quantity of it.

Question 68. Why should the bore of a thermometer be uniform?
Answer:

Reason: The bore should be uniform, otherwise, unequal expansion of mercury thread will take place at different parts of the bore for equal change of temperature.

Question 69. Why is meant by sensitivity of a thermometer?
Answer:

Sensitivity of a thermometer: A thermometer is considered sensitive if it :

(1) Quickly picks up the temperature of the body with which it is kept in contact
(2) Can detect small changes of temperature.

Question 70. Why is water preferred to other liquids in a hot water bag?
Answer:

Reason: Since water has the highest specific heat, a certain mass of water heated to a certain temperature contains more heat than the same mass of any other liquid heated to the same temperature. So, hot water will take longer time to cool than any other liquid heated to the same temperature. So, for hot compression, it can be used for a sufficiently long time.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 71. When a mass m of hot water was added to a mass 3 m of cold water (initially at 10°C), the mixture attained a final temperature of 20°C. Find the initial temperature of hot water.
Answer:
Solution: Let s be the specific heat capacity of water and t be the initial temperature of hot water. Then we have,

Heat lost by hot water = ms(t −20)

and heat gained by cold water = 3ms (20 −10) = 30 ms.

Since heat lost = heat gained. :

We have, ms (t- 20) = 30ms_ or, t-20=30 or,  t= 50°C

The initial temperature of the hot water was, therefore, 50°C.

Question 72. One joule of work expended in winding a 30 g steel watch and the watch is wrapped in a heat insulator. How much warmer would the watch be by the time it has run down? Specific heat of steel = 0.(1)cal/g°c.
Answer:

W = JH or, H=W/J \(=\frac{1.0 \mathrm{~J}}{4.18 \mathrm{~J} / \mathrm{cal}}\)  = 0.24 cal.

Now, H ( or Q ) = ms ΔT

∴ ΔT=\(\frac{\mathrm{H}}{\mathrm{ms}}\)=\(\frac{0.24 \mathrm{cal}}{30 \mathrm{~g} \times 0.1 \mathrm{cal} / \mathrm{g}^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}\)=0.08 C°.

Question 73. The temperature on a day was 94°F. What is it in Celsius sca
Answer:

We know that, \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)        F=94°

or,\(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{94-32}{9}\)                                          C=?

or, C\(=\frac{62 \times 5}{9}\) =34.4°.

Question 74. The lowest attainable temperature so far is — 270° Celsius. What is it in Fahrenheit scale?
Answer:

We know,  C =− 270°

⇒ \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}[/latex, F=?

or, [latex]\frac{-270}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

or,−54 \(=\frac{F-32}{9}\)

or, F − 31=−54×9=−486

or, F = −486+32=− 454

∴ f=−454°5.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 75. Convert 50°C to Fahrenheit scale.
Answer:

We know,  C=50°

⇒ \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)   F=?

or, \(\frac{-50}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

or, 90=F−32

or, F  = 90+32=122

Hence, 50°C =122°F

Question 76. The difference in the readings of a Fahrenheit and a Celsius Thermometer is  48°. What are the actual readings shown in the thermometers?
Answer:

Let the actual readings in the Rahsenhelt and the Celsius thermometers a to F and C.

∴ F−C =  or,48°C  F=C+48°

Again ,from the relation, \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

or, \(\frac{C}{5}\)\(=\frac{F+48-32}{9}\)=\(\frac{C+16}{9}\)

or, 9C=5C+90

or, AC=80

or, C=20°

Now,F= C + 48° = 20° + 48° = 68°.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 77. A certain temperature is 104°F, what is its value in Kelvin scale?
Answer:

We know the relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin scales is

⇒ \(\frac{F-32}{9}\)=\(\frac{K-273}{5}\), F=104°

or, \(\frac{104-32}{9}\)=\(\frac{K-273}{5}\), K=?

or, \(\frac{72}{9}\)=\(\frac{K-273}{5}\)

or, 8×5=K−273

or, K=313

∴ 104°F=313K

Question 78. The normal temperature of human body is 98.4°. What is the value of this temperature in centigrade scale?
Answer:

We know, F = 98.4°

⇒ \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

or, \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{98.4-32}{9}\)

or,\(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{66.4}{9}\)

or, 9C=6.64×5

or, \(C\)=\(\frac{332.0}{9}\)=36.89

So, the required temperature = 36.89°C,

Question 79. Which temperature is same in both centigrade scale and Fahrenheit scale?
Answer:

Let the temperature be X°.

According to question, C = F = X.

We know, \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

or, \(\frac{x}{5}\)=\(\frac{x-32}{9}\)

or, 9x=5x-160

or, 9x-5x= -160

or, 4x=-160

or,x\(=\frac{-160}{4}\)=−40°

So, (−)40° temperature will read same both in Fahrenheit and centigrade scales.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 80. Mass and specific heat of a substance 100 g and 0.09 respectively. Find the Thermal capacity and water equivalent of the body.
Answer:

We know,  m= 100g;     s = 0.09

Thermal capacity = ms

= 100 x 0.09 = 9 Cal/°C

Water equivalent = ms

= 100 x 0.09 =9g.

Question 81. Calculate the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 60 g of water from 20°C to its boiling point.
Answer:

We know,   m = 50g

Absorbed heat = ms\(\left(t_2-t_1\right)\) \(t_1\)= 20°C

=50 x 1x(100−20) ⇒ \(t_2\)  = 200°C

=50×80,   s=1

= 4000 cal.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 82. A body of iron having mass 60 g is cooled from 200°C to 100°C. Calculate the amount of heat given out. Specific heat of iron = 0.12.
Answer:

We know, m = 60g

The amount of heat given out by iron    \(t_1\)= 100°C

= ms\(\left(t_2-t_1\right)\)       \(t_2\) = 200°C

= 60 x 0.12(200 − 100) s= 0.12

= 60 x 0.12 x 100 = 720 cal.

Question 83. Find the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water from 10°C to 90°C.
Answer:

Mass of water = 1 kg = 1000 g

Rise in temperature of water = 90 − 10 = 80°C

Specific heat of water = 1cal \(g^{-1}\) \( C^{-1}\)

Thus, the required heat = mst = 1000 x 1 x 80 = 80,000 cal.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 84. A kettle and the water in it are cooled down from 80°C to 40°C. Do the kettle and water give up the same amounts of heat? Explain

your answer.
Answer:

Heat lost by a body = mass of the body x specific heat of the body x fall in temperature. Although fall in temperature of water or kettle = 80 −40 = 40°C is same, their masses and specific heats being different, they would not give up same amounts of heat.

Question 85. If the specific heat of copper be 0.09, calculate the thermal capacity and water equivalent of a block of copper of mass 50 g.
Answer:

Thermal capacity of the piece of copper

= mass x specific heat = 50 x 0.09 = 4.5 cal/°C.

Water-equivalent of the piece of copper

= mass x specific heat = 50 x 0.09 = 4.5 g.

Question 86. What quantity of heat will be taken by 50 g of water at 20°C to reach its boiling point at normal pressure?
Answer:

Boiling point of water at normal pressure = 100°C.

So, heat taken by water = 50 x 1x (100 −20) = 4000 cal.

Question 87. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one keane ofa metal is 2300 cal. Find the specific heat and water equivalent of the metal! piece.
Answer:

Given,

mass of the metal piece m = 1 kg = 1000 g;

rise in temperature = 20°C; total amount of heat Q = 2300 cal.

If specific heat of the metal s, then

Q=mst_ or, 2300 = 1000 x s x 20

∴ s\(=\frac{2300}{1000 \times 20}\)=0.115

Again, water-equivalent of the metal piece = ms = 1000 x 0.115 = 115 g.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 88. 300g of water at 15°C is mixed with 500 g of water at 30°C. What is the resultine temperature?
Answer:

Given, \(\mathrm{m}_1\)= 300g; \(\mathrm{m}_2\)  = 500g; \(\theta_1\) = 15°C; \(\theta_1\) = 30°C.

Let the resulting temperature be θ°C.

Heat gained by cold water =\(\mathrm{m}_1\)xs (θ −\(\theta_1\)) = 300 x1x (θ−15) calorie

Heat lost by hot water = \(\mathrm{m}_2\)x s x (\(\theta_2\)− θ) = 500 x (1)x (30 − θ) calorie.

From the relation, Heat gained = Heat lost.

300(θ −  15) = 500(300 − θ )

or, (300 + 500)θ = 500 x 30 + 300 x 15

∴θ \(=\frac{15000+4500}{800}\)

=24.38°C.

Question 89. Calculate the amount of work to be done to convert 100g of water at 0°C to water at 100°C. Mechanical equivalent of heat = 4.2 Joule.
Answer:

Heat required, H = mst = 100 x 1x (100 −0) = 10,000 cal.

Work required, W = JH = 4.2 x 10,000 = 42,000 J.

Question 90. A steel ball of specific heat 0.12 has its temperature increased by 0.5°C on falling through a certain height. If J = 4.2 x\(10^7\)erg\(\mathrm{cal}^{-1}\) , calculate the height.
Answer:

Given, specific heat, s = 0.12

Increase in temperature, θ = 0.5°C; J = 4.2x \(10^7\)erg\(\mathrm{cal}^{-1}\)

Let mass of the ball be m gram and the height be h cm. Then

PE of the ball = mgh.

Heat produced = msθ = m x 0.12 xθ

mgh=Jxmx0.12xθ

h\(=\frac{\mathrm{J} \times 0.12 \times 0.5}{g}\)=\(\frac{4.2 \times 107 \times 0.12 \times 0.5}{980}\)

=2.571×\(10^3\)cm=25.71m.

Question 91. A kilogram of water at 20°C is placed in a refrigerator. How much heat must be extracted before all the water turns to ice? Latent heat of ice = 80 Cal \(g^{-1}\).
Answer:

Mass of water m = (1)kg = 1,000 g; L = 80\(\text { calg }^{-1}\); \(t_1\) = 20°C; \(t_2\) = 0°C

Heat extracted from water, \(\mathrm{H}_1\) = ms(\(t_1\) −\(t_2\) ) = 1000 x (20 −0) = 20,000 cal.

Heat extracted from water to freeze into ice, \(\mathrm{H}_2\)= mL = 1000 x 80 = 80,000 cal.

Total heat extracted = \(\mathrm{H}_1\)+\(\mathrm{H}_2\)= 20,000 + 80,000 = 1,00,000 cal.

Question 92. After a few pieces of dry ice had been added to 120 g of water at 46°C, the final temperature of the mixture was found to be 0°C. What is the mass of ice added? Latent heat of ice = 80 cal\(g^{-1}\).
Answer:

Given, \(\mathrm{m}_1\)= mass of water = 120g \(t_1\) = temperture of water = 46°C.

Final temperature of the mixture,,\(t_2\)= 0°C; L = 80 cal\(g^{-1}\)

Let mass of the ice added be \(\mathrm{m}_2\)g.

Heat lost by water at 46°C to be water at 0°C = \(\mathrm{m}_1\)s(\(t_1\)−\(t_2\))

= 120 x (1)x (46 – 0)

= 120 x 46 cal.

Heat required by m,g ice at 0°C to water at 0°C.= \(\mathrm{m}_2\)L =\(\mathrm{m}_2\)x 80 cal.

Heat Lost = Heat gained; 120 x 46 = \(\mathrm{m}_2\) x 80

∴ \(\mathrm{m}_2\)

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 93. How much heat is released in converting 5g of steam at 100°C to water at 60°C ?Latent heat of steam = 540 calg”.
Answer:

Heat released in converting 5g steam at 100°C to 5g of water at 100°C = 5 x 540 cal.

Heat released in converting 5g of water at 100°C to 5g of water at 60° =5x 1(100-60) =5 x 40 cal.

∴ Total heat released = 5 x 540 + 5 x 40 = 5 x 580 = 2900 cal.

Question 94. A piece of copper heated to 35°C is dropped into 140 g of water at 15°C. The mass of copper is 150 g and the specific heat of copper is 400 J/kgK. Find the final temperature. (sp. heat of water = 4200 J/kgK)
Answer:

Here, the hot piece of copper will give up heat and cold water will absorb it. Let the final temperature be t°C.

Now, the heat lost by copper = its mass x sp. heat fall of temperature

= 0.15 x 400 x (35 – t) = 60 x (85-1) J.

And heat gained by water = its mass x sp. heat x rise of temperature

= 0.14 x 4200 x (t − 15) = 588(t − 15) J. Now, heat lost = heat gained

or, 60 x (35 − t) = 588 (t− 15) or, 175 – St = 49t – 735

∴ t= 16.85°C.

Question 95. A lump of copper of mass 100 g is cooled from 60°C to 40°C. How much heat will be rejected by the lump ? Specific heat of copper = 0.09 cal \(g^{-1}\) \( C^{-1}\)
Answer:

Amount of heat rejected = mass x sp. heat x fall in temperature

= 100 x 0.09 x (60 − 40) Cal = 180 Cal.

Question 96. A brass sphere of mass 0.4 kg at 100°C is dropped into 1 kg of water at 20°C. The final temperature of the mixture is 23°C. Find the $.H.C. of brass. Given, S.H.C. of water = 4200 J/kgK.
Answer:

Heat lost by brass sphere = m x s x (\(t_1\)−\(t_2\))

= 0.4 x s x (100 — 23) = 30.8 x sJ.

Heat gained by water

=mxsx (\(t_1\)−\(t_2\)) =1 x 4200 x (23 − 20) = 12600 J.

Now, Heat lost = Heat gained

30.8 x s = 12600

∴ s  = 409.1 J/kgK.

Question 97. How many calories of heat will be evolved on the expenditure of 84 joules of energy?
Answer:

4.2 joule will produce 1 calorie heat.

∴  84 joules will produce\(\frac{1 \times 84}{4.2}\) calorie = 20 calorie.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 98. How much work is to be completely converted to heat to melt 50 g ice at orc?
Answer:

Heat required to melt 1  g ice at 0°C to water at 0°C = 80 calories.

∴ Heat required to melt 50 g ice at 0°C to water at 0°C = 80 x 50 calories = 4000 calories.

Now, for 1   calorie, 4.2-joule work is to be converted to heat.

∴ For 4000 calories, 4.2 x 4000 joule work is to be converted to heat = 16800 Joule.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 99. A mass 10 kg falls a height 1 kilometer to the ground. If all the energy is converted into heat, find the amount of heat developed (given 4.2 joule = 1 calorie).
Answer:

The potential energy mgh stored in the body when it was 1  km above the ground converts to heat when it falls to the ground.

∴ Potential energy = mgh = 10 kg x 9.8 m/\( s^2\) x 1000 m = 98000 J.

∴  The required heat developed = 98000 J.

Question 100. How much heat is necessary to convert 10 g ice at 0°C to 10 g water at the same temperature? 
Answer:

Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 calories per gram or 336 J per gram.

∴  Heat required to convert (1)g ice at 0°C to water at 0°C = 80 calories or 336 J.

∴  Heat is required to convert 10 g ice at 0°C to water at 0°C.

= (80 x 10) calorie or (336 J x 10) = 800 calorie or 3360 J.

Question 101. Find the quantity of heat required to convert 15 g water at 100°C to 15 g steam at 100°C. (Specific latent heat of vapourization of water = 22.5 x 105 J/kg)
Answer:

15 g = 0.015 kg.

∴ Heat required to convert 1 kg water at 100°C to steam at 100°C = 22.5 x 10.

∴  Heat required to convert 0.015 kg water at 100°C to steam at 100°C

= 22.5 x \(10^5\) x 0.015 J = 33750 J.

Chapter 6 Heat 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. State and explain the principle of calorimetry.
Answer:

When two bodies (one being solid and the other liquid or both being liquid) at different temperatures are mixed, heat will be transferred from the body at a higher temperature to the body at a lower temperature till both acquire the same temperature. The body at higher temperatures releases heat while the body at lower temperatures absorbs it, so that

Heat lost = Heat gained,

i.e., the principle of calorimetry represents the law of conservation of heat energy While using this principle always keep in mind that

(1) Temperature of the mixture (T) is always > lower temperature (\(T_1\)) and < higher temperature(\(T_2\)),i.e.,\(T_1\)<T<\(T_2\),

ie., the temperature of the mixture can never be lesser than lower temperature (as a body cannot be cooled below the temperature of the cooling body) and greater than higher temperature (as a body cannot be heated above the temperature of the heating body when there is no chemical reaction).

(2) When the temperature of a body changes, the body releases heat if its temperature falls and absorbs heat when its temperature rises. The heat released or absorbed by a body of mass m is given by:

Q=mc ΔT

Where c is the specific heat of the body and AT change in its temperature in °C or K.

(3) When the state of a body changes, change of state takes place at constant temperature [m.pt. or b.pt.] and heat released or absorbed is given by

Q=mL

Where L is latent heat. Heat is absorbed if solid converts into liquid (at m.pt.) or liquid converts into vapor (at b.pt.) and is released if liquid converts into solid or vapor converts into liquid.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 2.20 gm steam at 100°C is let into a closed calorimeter of water equivalent to 10 gm containing 100 gm ice at — 10°C. Find the final temperature of the calorimeter and its contents. The latent heat of steam is 540 cal/gm, the latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm, and the specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/°C gm.
Answer:

Heat lost by steam = mL + ms (100 − t)

where, t is the equilibrium temperature

Heat lost by steam = 20 x 540 + 20 x (1)(100 − t) =10800 + 2000 – 20t.

Heat gained by (ice + calorimeter) = 100 x 80 + 100 x 0.5 x 10+ 100 x t.

Now, Heat lost = Heat gained :

or, t 10800 + 2000 − 20 t = 8000 + 500 + 100%

or, 120 = 4300 or t = 4300/120 = 35.83°C.

Question 3. A tube leads from a flask in which water is. boiling under atmospheric pressure to a calorimeter. The mass of the calorimeter is 150 gm, its specific heat capacity is 0.1 cal/g/°C, and it contains originally 340 gm of water at 15 °C. Steam is allowed to condense in the calorimeter until its temperature increases to 71°C, after which the total mass of the calorimeter and contents are found to be 525 gm. Compute the heat of condensation of steam.
Answer:

Mass of calorimeter and contents before passing steam = (150 + 340) = 490 gm.

Mass after passing steam = 525 gm.

=> mass of steam which condenses = (525 – 490) gm = 35 gm.

= 286

Let L = latent heat of steam.

Heat lost by steam = heat gained by water + heat gained by calorimeter.

35L +35 x 1 (100-71) =340 x 1 x (71-15) + 150 x 0.1x (71- 15), Thus, L=539 cal/gm.

Question 4. What is a Calorimeter?
Answer:

A calorimeter is a device used to measure the heat of a reaction. It can be sophisticated and expensive or simple and cheap A styrofoam cup is used as a calorimeter because it is a container with good insulated walls to prevent heat exchange with the environment.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 6 Heat Calorimeter

In order to measure heat of reactions, we often enclose reactants in a calorimeter, initiate the reaction, and measure the temperature difference before and after the reaction. The temperature difference enables us to evaluate the heat released in the reaction. A calorimeter may be operated under constant (atmosphere) pressure or constant volume.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 5. State the laws of thermodynamics.
Answer:

There are two major laws concerning thermodynamics:

First Law of Thermodynamics: The First Law of Thermodynamics is the law of Conservation of Energy. It states that energy cannot be created or destroyed. Instead, it is converted from one form to another, such as from mechanical work to heat, from heat to light, from chemical to heat or such. One example of that is how the kinetic energy of a moving car is converted into heat energy at the brakes and tire surfaces. Another example is when chemical energy is released in burning and is converted into light and heat energy.

Second Law of Thermodynamics: The Second Law of Thermodynamics has several variations which will be explained below. Some heat is wasted in conversion  One version of the Second Law of Thermodynamics states that some heat is wasted when converting heat into mechanical energy. In other words, in a car engine, not all of the heat created from the exploding gasoline is used in turning the engine or moving the car. Some of the heat simply heats the engine. The percentage of heat turned to work is called the ‘thermal efficiency’ of the engine.

Question 6. Explain the terms saturation vapor pressure (s.v.p.) and unsaturated vapor.
Answer:

Let us suppose that some liquid is poured into a bottle which is then corked up. Owing to evaporation, the space above the liquid begins to fill with vapor. The vapor molecules move about in all directions and exert pressure when they bounce off the walls of the bottle.

They also strike the surface of the liquid and many re-enter it. Eventually, a state of dynamic equilibrium is reached in which the rate at which molecules leave the liquid is equal to the rate at which others return to it.

Under these conditions, the space above the liquid is said to be saturated with vapor, and the pressure exerted is called the saturation vapor pressure ( s.v.p.).

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 6 Heat Saturated And Unsaturated
For a given temperature the saturation vapor pressure of a liquid is always the same whether there is air in the space above it or not. Before equilibrium has been reached in the manner described the vapour is said to be unsaturated.

Question 7. What are the kinds of heat?
Answer:

Heat is mainly of three types:

(1) Sensible heat: The kind of heat perceptible by senses or can be detected by a thermometer is known as Sensible heat.

(2) Latent heat: It is the quantity of heat absorbed or released when a substance of unit mass undergoes a physical change of state at constant temperature and pressure. This heat can not be measured by a thermometer.

(3) Radiant heat: The heat which radiates from its source to all directions is called Radiant heat. E.g. Sunlight.

Question 8. What are the conditions required to fulfill the principle of calorimetry?
Answer:

The conditions are:

(1) There should not be a transfer of heat from the bodies to the surroundings.
(2) There should not occur a change of state of any body.
(3) Chemical reaction must not take place between the components.
(4) The bodies should not be soluble in each other.

Question 9. Equal masses of milk and water are separately taken in two identical vessels. The vessels are heated simultaneously in the same oven. Which one will have the quicker rise of temperature, milk or water, and why?
Answer:

The specific heat of milk is less than that of water, so milk will require a smaller quantity of heat for each degree rise in temperature than that needed for the same mass of water. Hence, the supply of heat being the same to the equal masses of milk and water, the rise in the temperature of milk will be quicker than that of water.

(Mathematically, let H quantity heat be supplied to a body of mass m and specific, heat

S. Then if the rise of temperature is t, H = mst. Or, t\(=\frac{\mathrm{H}}{\mathrm{m}} \cdot \frac{1}{\mathrm{~S}}\)

Now if the same quantity in heat H be supplied to equal mass of different substance, then t ∝\(\frac{1}{s}\)

(∴ H, m are constants).

This means a substance of lower specific heat will have a greater rise in temperature. So, in this case, milk will have a quicker rise in temperature.)

Question 10. What do you mean by the sensitivity of a thermometer? Write down the characteristics of a sensitive thermometer.
Answer:

The efficiency of a thermometer to measure even a very little difference of temperature is called: its sensitivity. A thermometer becomes more sensitive if it can measure the slight differences in temperature more accurately.

Conditions for sensitivity :

Bulb:

(1) Should be of large volume (cylindrical)

Glass capillary tube:   

(1) The bore of the capillary tube should be fine
(2) The area of the cross-section should be the same everywhere
(3) Lengthy

Thermometric liquid:

(1) Should be of high coefficient of volume expansion
(2) Must be of low thermal capacity

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 11. Will the temperature of a body containing more heat will always be higher than that of another body containing less heat? Answer with an explanation.
Answer: No.

The quantity of heat in a body depends on three factors:

(1) Mass of the body,
(2) Specific heat of the body and
(3) Change in the temperature of the body. The flow of heat depends on the temperature of the bodies. Heat always flows from the body of high temperature to the body of low temperature.

Question 12. What are the effects of heat on a body?
Answer:

When heat is supplied to a body, the following changes are found to occur:

(1)  Change in temperature
(2)  Cange in volume
(3)  Change of state
(4)  Change in physical properties
(5)  Change in chemical properties
(6)  Creation of light energy, electric energy, burning, etc.

Question 13. Why is mercury used in thermometers?
Answer:

Mercury is an ideal substance for commonly used thermometers. It has the following advantages:

(1) Mercury is a liquid metal and a good conductor of heat, hence it easily acquires the temperature of the body with which it is kept in contact.
(2) The volume of mercury increases sufficiently for a small increase in temperature.
(3) Mercury is opaque and bright like silver, so it can be easily seen from outside the glass tube.
(4) While rising or falling, mercury does not stick to the walls of the glass tube.
(5) The freezing point of mercury is – 30°C and its boiling point is 357° C. Any temperature between this range is measurable by it:
(6)Pure mercury is available easily.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 14. Write three differences between heat and temperature.
Answer:

The main differences between heat and temperature are the following :

Heat Temperature
1.    Heal is a form of energy. 1.    Temperature is a thermal condition of the body, which shows how hot or cold the body is.
2.    Heat is the cause. If a body is heated without a change of states, its temperature increases. 2.    Temperature is the effect.
3.    The total quantity of heat contained in two bodies may not be equal but their temperatures may be same. 3.    The temperatures of two bodies may be the same, whether their quantity of heat contained be not equal
4.    The quantity of heat contained in two bodies may be same but temperatures may be different. 4.    The temperature of two bodies may be different but may have the same quantity of heat.
5.    The direction of flow of heat from one body to another does not depend upon the quantity of heat 5.    The direction of flow of heat from one body to another body depends upon
possessed by them. their temperature difference.
6.    Heat is measured in Joules or in Calories 6.    Temperature is measured in degrees.
7.    During the change of state, the amount of heat in a body changes 7.    During the change of state, the temperature of the body remains constant.


Question 15. Explain the factors on which the quantity of heat of a substance depends.
Answer:

If the change of state of a substance does not occur due to the application of heat, then the quantity of heat of the substance depends on its mass, material, and temperature.

(1) On Mass: The heat absorbed by a body is proportional to its mass. Let two balls of the same material, having a mass of one ball double the other, be immersed in boiling water at the same time. The heat gained by the first ball (whose mass is double) will be more than that of the second ball.

(2) On material: The quantity of heat taken by the body depends on the material of the body.

(3) On temperature: Heat taken by a body is directly proportional to the rise in temperature.

Question 16. Define specific heat (or, specific heat capacity). State its mathematical expression. State its units.
Answer:

Specific Heat: The heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of a substance through t°C is known as specific heat or specific heat capacity of the substance.

If Q is the quantity of heat supplied to a body of mass m so that its temperature rises through t? C, then specific heat (S) is given by

⇒ \(S\)=\(\frac{Q}{m t}\), Quantity of heat Q=mst.

Units of specific heat: The S.I. unit of specific heat is Joule per kilogram per degree C ( Joule/kg/ \(C^{-1}\)).

The C.G.S. unit of specific heat is calorie per gram per degree C cal/g °\(C^{-1}\).

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 17. Explain mathematically that heat lost by the hot body is equal to the heat gained by the cold body if there is no loss of heat due to exchange with the surroundings.
Answer:

Let a substance A of mass \(m_1\), specific heat \(s_1\), and a higher temperature \(t_1\) is mixed with another substance B of lower temperature. Let the mass of the substance B is \(m_2\), specific heat be \(s_2\) and final temperature be \(t_2\)

Let the final temperature of the mixture be t.

Then, fall of temperature of A =\(t_1\)– \(t_2\) and gain of temperature of B =t−\(t_2\),

Heat lost by A = \(m_1\).\(s_1\). (\(t_1\) − t).

Heat gained by B =\(m_2\) \(s_1\)(t – \(t_2\)). If no heat is lost in surroundings then, heat lost by A = Heat gained by B

or,\(m_1\)\(s_1\)(\(t_1\)−t)=\(m_2\) \(s_1\)(t−\(t_2\))

Question 18. What will be the reading in Fahrenheit scale of temperature scale corresponding to 100 C? Sites Careak 392
Answer:

From the relation, \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\), C=100° C

⇒ \(\frac{100}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)   or, F−32=20×9

or, F = 180 + 32 = 212° F.

Question 19. At what temperature is the reading on the Fahrenheit scale five times the reading on the centigrade scale?
Answer:

Let the reading on the centigrade scale be x°, then the reading on the Fahrenheit scale = 5x°.

From the relation,\(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\) or, \(\frac{x}{5}\)=\(\frac{5 x-32}{9}\)

or, 25 x − 160 = 9x or, 16 x = 160, or, x =10.

Therefore, reading on a centigrade scale is 10° C and Fahrenheit scale is = 10 x 5 = 50° F.

Question 20. A body of mass 500 gm requires 3000 joules of heat in order to raise its temperature from 35° C to 45° C. Calculate the specific heat of the body.
Answer:

Given, the mass of water (m) = 500 gm = 0.5 Kg

Heat supplied (Q) = 3000 J, and rise in temperature (t) = 45-35 = 10°C.

Let the specific heat of the body =s

Heat supplied = m.s.t

3000 =0°5x s x 10,

or, 5S = 3000, or s = 600.

Hence, specific heat of body = 600 J/Kg/° C

Question 21. An iron ball of mass of 50 gm is warmed in a furnace and then dropped in a vessel containing 240 gm of water at 30° C. The water equivalent of the vessel is 10 g. If the temperature of water rises to 50° C, find the temperature of the furnace. The specific heat of iron = 0.1.
Answer:

Let the required temperature of the furnace be t° C.

Heat gained by water = mass x specific heat x rise in temperature

= 240 x (1)x (50 – 30) = 4800 cal.

Heat gained by vessel = 10 x (50 – 30) = 200 cal.

Total heat gained by water and vessel = (4800 + 200 ) cal = 5000 cal.

Heat lost by iron ball = mass x specific heat x fall in temperature

= 50 x 0.1 x ( t −50) cal.

By the principle of calorimetry,

Heat lost by iron ball = Heat gained by water and vessel

50 x 0.1 x ( t− 50) = 5000

or, t= 1000 + 50 = 1050° C

Hence the temperature of the furnace = 1050° C.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 22. If a clinical thermometer reads 98°4°F as the temperature of a healthy person then what would be the reading of the temperature of this person, if measured in Celsius scale?
Answer:

From the relation, \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

C=\(=\frac{5}{9}(F-32)\)

⇒ \(=\frac{5}{9}(98 \cdot 4-32)\)

⇒ \(=\frac{5}{9} \times 66.4\)

= 36.8°C.

Question 23. Calculate the amount of heat given out when the temperature of a piece of iron of mass 60 grams is lowered from 200°C to 100°C. (Specific heat of iron = 0°12)
Answer:

We know that H = mst

Mass of iron = 60 gm.  Where t = rise in temperature

Fall in temperature = 200°C − 100°C   and S = Specific heat = 100°C.

Specific heat of iron = 0.12

∴ H = 60 x 0.12 x 100:

= 720 cal.

∴ The amount of heat given out

= 720 cal.

Question 24. The difference in the readings of a Fahrenheit and a Celsius thermometer is 48°, What are the actual readings shown in the thermometers?
Answer:

Let the actual readings in the Fahrenheit and the Celsius thermometers correspond to F and C.

∴F−C = 48° or, F=C + 48°

Again, from the relation,  \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)

⇒ \(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{C+48-32}{9}\)=\(\frac{C+16}{9}\)

∴ S =20°

Now, F = C + 48° = 20° + 48° = 68°.

∴ The reading in the Fahrenheit thermometer is 68° and that in the Celsius thermometer is 20°.

Question 25. What are the advantages of mercury as a thermometric substance?
Answer:

Advantages of mercury as a thermometric substance :

(1) Mercury being a metal, it absorbs very little heat from the source and thus there is almost no change in the temperature of the source.
(2) Mercury is a shining liquid, so it can be easily seen through glass.
(3) Mercury remains in the liquid state for a long range of temperatures (— 39°C to 357°C). So temperature can be measured over a long range.
(4) Mercury does not wet the glass wall of the tube, so it can move up and down easily through the glass tube.

Question 26. What steps should be taken to make a thermometer sensitive?
Answer:

Requisites of a sensitive thermometer :

(1) The thermometer bulb should have thin walls, so that heat from a body in its contact may easily reach the mercury inside it.
(2) The bore of the thermometer tube should be narrow so that the expansion of the mercury thread is long enough for a small change in temperature.
(3) The bore should be uniform, otherwise, unequal expansion of mercury thread will take place at different parts of the bore for equal changes in temperature.
(4) The thermometric liquid should be good conducting so that it quickly assumes the temperature of the body in contact of the thermometer.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 27. Obtain an expression for the heat absorbed or given out by a body.
Answer:

Calculation of the amount of heat absorbed or given out by a body: If S be the specific heat of a substance, then we can write from the definition of specific heat that,

1 unit mass of a substance, for 1° rise or fall of temperature, will absorb or give out ‘S’ units of heat.

m unit mass of a substance, for t° the rise or fall of temperature, will absorb or give out ‘mst’ units of heat.

That is,
Quantity of heat (absorbed or given out)

= mass of the body x specific heat x rise or fall of temperature.

Question 28. What is the relation between Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin scales?
Answer:

Relation between Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin scales: Since the range of temperature from lower fixed point to upper fixed point is equal in all three scales, 100 centigrade degrees = (212 — 32) or 180 Fahrenheit degrees = (373 − 273) or 100 absolute degrees.

We consider that the three thermometers in the above three scales are dipped simultaneously in a liquid of a certain temperature. Let the temperatures recorded in the Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin thermometers respectively be C, F, and K. Now, it can be proved that

⇒ \(\frac{C-0}{(100-0)}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{(212-32)}\)=\(\frac{K-273}{(373-273)}\)

or,\(\frac{C}{100}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{180}\)=\(\frac{K-273}{100}\)

or,\(\frac{C}{5}\)=\(\frac{F-32}{9}\)=\(\frac{K-273}{5}\)

Question 29. State and explain the equivalence of work and heat.
Answer:

From various phenomena, it is possible to consider that there exists a relation between heat and work. In some phenomena, heat transforms to mechanical work and in some, the reverse happens.

In 1798 Rumford noticed the intense heat generated in a steel body that was being hollowed for making barrels of cannon. He concluded that the mechanical work done in the following process was converted into heat energy.

When a football bladder or a bicycle is pumped, the body of the pump is heated. Here, due to the push of the piston, the motion of the air particles inside the pump increases, i.e., their kinetic energy increases.

The kinetic energy of the air particles converts to heat energy. When heat is supplied to a gas confined in a vessel at constant pressure, the volume of the gas increases, which means, the gas particles do work against the pressure. Here, heat is converted to work.

Here, to cause expansion, i.e., to increase the space between the gas particles some heat energy from the gas particles is expanded, the loss of heat causes cooling. Thus, heat is used to do the mechanical work in increasing the separation between the gas particles.

From the above example, it is clear that heat and mechanical work are related to each other. So, if W amount of work produces H quantity of heat or H quantity of heat produces W mechanical work, according to Joule, W ∝ H or W = JH, where J is a constant, called Joule’s constant. J is also called the Mechanical equivalent of heat.

The above said relation, W=JH, J\(=\frac{W}{H}\)

lf H = 1, ie., when unit quantity of heat is produced, W = J. This means J, the mechanical equivalent of heat is equal to the mechanical work that produces a unit quantity of heat. So, the definition of the mechanical equivalent of heat is it is the quantity of mechanical work that can produce a unit quantity of heat.

If the unit of work chosen is erg, and that of heat, calorie, then in the C.G.S. system, the value of J is 4.2 Joule/calorie. Thus, the mechanical equivalent of heat is 4.2 Joule; it means that, if 4.2 Joule work is fully converted to heat, (1)calorie heat is produced.

This value of J has also been confirmed by many experiments.

Question 30. What is latent heat? Classify it and define its different types.
Answer:

The quantity of heat given out or absorbed per unit mass of a substance during the change from one state to another keeping the temperature constant at the temperature at which the change of state occurs is called the latent heat of the substance.

There are different types of change of states and the following are the corresponding latent heats:

Latent heat of fusion: The quantity of heat required to convert the unit mass of a solid substance at its melting point to its liquid state keeping the temperature constant is known as its latent heat of fusion.

The values of latent heat of fusion of ice in C.G.S. and SI systems are 80 calorie/g and 3.36 x \(10^5[l/latex] J/kg respectively.

Latent heat of vaporization: The quantity of heat given out to convert the unit mass of a liquid at its freezing point to its solid state keeping the temperature constant is known as its latent heat of solidification.

Latent heat of condensation: The quantity of heat given out to convert the unit mass of a vapor at its normal boiling point to its liquid state keeping the temperature constant is known as its latent heat of condensation.

Question 31. Distinguish between. saturated and unsaturated vapor.
Answer:

Difference between saturated and unsaturated vapor:

(1) A vapor in a closed enclosure at a given temperature is said to -be saturated if the pressure exerted by it is maximum at that temperature and the pressure exerted by it is called saturation vapor pressure at the temperature. A vapor in a closed enclosure at a given temperature is said to be unsaturated if the pressure exerted by it is less than the maximum value at that temperature.

(2) Saturated vapor does not obey Boyle’s law, while unsaturated vapor obeys Boyle’s law.

(3) Saturated vapor does not obey the pressure law, while unsaturated vapor obeys the pressure law.

(4) A certain quantity of unsaturated vapor can become saturated if the pressure is increased or the temperature is decreased at constant volume.

Question 32. Write a short note on the anomalous expansion of water on marine life.
Answer:

Generally, liquids are found to expand on heating, i.e., their volumes increase with the rise in temperature. But in the case of water, this phenomenon does not hold true within a certain range of temperature.

When water is cooled from room temperature, it contracts uniformly till the temperature reaches 4°C. Below this temperature instead of contraction, water expands with fall in temperature till 0°C, when water freezes to form ice. This phenomenon is called the anomalous expansion of water.

This peculiar behavior of expansion of water has great importance on marine life in cold countries. In these countries when air above the surface of the water of a pond falls below 0°C, the water on the surface, cooling, becomes denser than that below and gradually sinks downwards. It keeps ‘on till the water temperature falls to 4°C. As the surface temperature falls further, it
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 6 Heat Volume And Temperature graph

Becomes less dense than the water below, which is at 4°C, and is the densest. It thus remains at the top, cooling more and more and ultimately a layer of ice is formed there and remains there, as ice is lighter than water.

The layer of ice forms as a poor conducting layer on the top, which prevents the heat from the water below from passing into the colder atmosphere
above.

A layer of ice develops in thickness extremely slowly. The temperature of the deeper layers of the water in the pond remains nearly at 4°C and falls gradually to 0°C upwards till the layer of ice is reached. The marine life in the winter is thus saved.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 33. When 0.15 kg of ice at 0°C mixed with 0.30 kg of water at 50°C in a container, the resulting temperature is 6.7°C. Calculate the heat of the fusion of ice. ([latex]S_{\text {water }}\)=4186J\(\mathrm{kg}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1}\))
Answer:

Let mw = mass of water = 0.30 kg

⇒ \(m_i\)= mass of ice = 0.15 kg

⇒ \(\mathrm{T}_1\)= initial temperature of water.= 50°C

⇒ \(\mathrm{T}_2\)= final temperature of water = 6.7°C

⇒ \(\mathrm{L}_f\)= Heat of fusion of ice

⇒ \(\mathrm{S}_w\) = Specific heat of water = 4186 J\(

⇒ [latex]\mathrm{kg}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1}\)

Heat lost by hot water \(=m_w s_w\)  \(\left(T_1-T_2\right)\) = (0.30kg) (4186 Jk\(g^{-1}\) (50 – 6.7)°C = 5437614 J

Heat needed to melt ice =\(m_i\)\(\mathrm{L}_f\)= (0.15 kg) (\(\mathrm{L}_f\))

Heat is needed to raise the temperature of ice water

=\(m_i\)\(\mathrm{S}_w\) (\(\mathrm{T}_2\)−0°C) = (0.15 kg) (4186 J\(\mathrm{kg}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1}\)) (6.7 −0)°C = 4206.93 J

Heat lost = Heat gained

∴ 54376.14 J = (0.15 kg)\(\mathrm{L}_f\)  + 4206.93 J

or, \(\mathrm{L}_f\) = 3.34\(10^5\) J k\(g^{-1}\)

Question 34. 300g lead at 99°C is dropped in 100 g waster at 18°C. The final temperature of the mixture is 27°C. Find the specific heat capacity of lead if specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J k\(g^{-1}\)\(K^{-1}\)
Answer:

Let the specific heat capacity of lead be ‘s’ J/kg K.

Heat lost by 300g lead to cool to 27°C

⇒ \(=\frac{300}{1000} \times 5 \times(99-27) \text { Joules }\)

= 0.3 x s x 72 joules = 21.6s Joules

Heat gained by 100 g water when the temperature rises from 18°C to 27°C

⇒  \(=\frac{100}{1000} \times 42,000 \times(27-18) \text { joules }\)

= 3780 joules.

So, from the principle of calorimetry, heat lost = heat gained

∴21.68 = 3780

or, s\(=\frac{3780}{21.6}\)=\(175 \mathrm{JKg}^{-1} \mathrm{~K}^{-1}\).

Question 35. A piece of copper heated to 35°C is dropped into 140 g of water at 15°C. The mass of copper is 150 g and the specific heat of copper is 400 J/kg K. Find the final temperature. (Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg.K)
Answer:

Let the final temperature be t°C.

Now, the heat lost by copper.

= 0.15 x 400 x (35 − t) = 60(35 – t) joule.

Heat gained by water

= 0.14 x 4200 x (t − 15) = 588 (t−15) joule.

So, from the principle of calorimetry,

heat lost = heat gained

60(36 − t) = 588 (t −15)

or, 60 x 35 −60t = 588t 588 x 15

or, 60 x 35 + 588 x 15 = 188t + 60t

∴ 648t = 60  35 +588  15

or, t\(=\frac{60 \times 35+588 \times 15}{648}\)

=16.85° C

Question 36. How much heat is required to convert fully 1 kg of ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C? (S.L.H. of fusion of ice = 3.36 x \(10^5\)J/kg, S.L.H. of vapourisation of water = 22.6 x \(10^5\) J/kg and specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 x \(10^3\) J/kg)
Answer:

Heat required to convert 1kg ice at 0°C to 1 kg water at 0°C = 3.36 × \(10^5\) J……….(1)

∴The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg water at 0°C to 100°C =1x 4.2 x\(10^3\) x 100 J = 4.2 x\(10^5\) J……….(2)

Heat required to convert (1)kg water at 100°C to 1 kg steam at 100°C = 22.6 x  x\(10^5\) J………… (3)

∴ The total quantity of heat required to convert 1 kg ice at 0°C to (1)kg steam at 100°C

= (1) + (2) + (3) = (8.36 + 4.2 + 22.6) x \(10^5\) J

= 3016 x \(10^5\)  J.

Question 37. 300 g lead at 99°C is dropped in 100 g water at 18°C. The final temperature of the mixture is 27°C. Find the specific heat capacity of lead if the specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J K\(g^{-1}\)\(K^{-1}\)
Answer:

Let the specific heat capacity of lead be ‘s’ J/kgK.

Heat lost by 300 g leads to cool from 99°C to 27°C

= \(\frac{300}{1000}\) xs x (99-27) J=0.3 xS x 72 J= 21.6 SJ.

Heat gained by 100 g water when its temperature rises from 18°C to 27°C

=\(\frac{100}{1000}\) x 42000 x (27 −18) J = 3780 J.

From the principle of calorimetry, heat lost = heat gained

or, 21.6 s= 3780

∴ S= \(\frac{3780}{21.6}\)  Jkg-1K-(1)= 175 Jk\(g^{-1}\)\(K^{-1}\).

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement

Physical Science Class 9 WBBSE Chapter 1 Measurement Very Short Answer Type :

Question 1. What do you mean by mass?
Answer:

Mass : The mass of a body is the quantity of matter contained in it.

Question 2. What is the function of ordinary scale?
Answer:

Function of ordinary scale: We generally use an ordinary scale for the measurement of length.

Question 3. What is solar day?
Answer:

Solar Day: The interval of time between two consecutive apparent transits of the sun across the meridian at any place is called a solar day.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 4. What is the definition of second in the SI system?
Answer:

Definition of a second in SI system: The time taken for 9, 192, 631, and 770 vibrations of a radioactive atom CS133 in a standard magnetic field is called one second.

Question 5. What do you mean by volume?
Answer:

Volume: It is defined to be the space occupied by a substance. Solids have three dimensions, i.e., length, breadth, and height.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 6. What is liter?
Answer:

Litre: A volume of 1 kg of pure water at 4°C or 277 K is called a liter.

Question 7. What is spring balance?
Answer:

Spring balance: With the help of this instrument, the weight of a body can be measured.

Question 8. Is the density of a material dependent on its mass or volume?
Answer:

The density of a substance is independent of its mass or volume.

Question 9. In which unit is the wavelength of X-rays measured?
Answer:

The wavelength of x-rays is measured in angstrom (A) unit.

Question 10. The yellow light of sodium has a wavelength of 589 nanometres. Express it in meters and Angstrom.
Answer:

589 nanometre = 0.000000589 metre = 0.0000000589 Angstrom.

Question 11. Give an example of a physical quantity that has no unit. Write the dimension of velocity.
Answer:

A physical quantity that ‘has no unit is the Mechanical Advantage of a machine. The dimension of velocity is \(\mathrm{LT}^{-1} .\)

Question 12. Name two quantities having the same unit.
Answer:

Velocity and speed have the same unit, e.g. m/s in the SI system.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 13.1 A=__cm,1 micron =___ cm. [Fill in the blanks]
Answer:

⇒ \(10^{-8}\), \(10^{-4}\)

Question 14. What is the unit of measuring the distance between the stars?
Answer:

Light year is the unit used for measuring the distance between the stars.

Question 15. Which physical quantity is normally measured with a common balance?
Answer:

Mass is normally measured with a common balance.

Question 16. Name the suitable units that should be chosen to measure

(1) Distance between two cities
(2) Mass of a small grain
(3) Distance between two stars
(4) Atomic radius
(5) Volume of water contained in an overhead tank. (Each part of the question carries )
Answer:

(1) Kilometre
(2) Milligram
(3) Light year
(4) Fermi
(5) Kilolitre.

Question 17. Why is the temperature 4°C mentioned in defining the density of water in the CGS system?
Answer:

Because at 4°C, water has maximum density, which is 1g/cc.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 18. What is the necessity of measurement of a physical quantity?
Answer:

Measurement of a physical quantity gives a clear idea about the largeness or smallness of the quantity. Simple eye estimation does not give any exact magnitude of the physical quantity, so measurement of a physical quantity is very important.

Question 19. Define light year.
Answer:

A light year is the distance traveled by light in one year at the rate of 3 x \(10^8\) meters per second.

Question 20. Name a scalar quantity which is the product of two vector quantities.
Answer:

The scalar quantity is work which is the product of two vector quantities force and displacement in the direction of force.

Question 21. Name a physical quantity that has both magnitude and direction but it is not a vector quantity.
Answer:

The quantity is electric current.

Question 22. Name a physical quantity that has a unit but not a dimension.
Answer:

Plane geometric angle.

Question 23. What is a cubic foot?
Answer:

It is the volume of a cube on the edge of one foot.

Question 24. What is the relation between a cubic foot and a gallon?
Answer:

One cubic foot = 6.25 gallons.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 25. What is the physical quantity?
Answer:

Physical Quantity: A physical quantity is any measurable quantity of an object or an event.

Example: mass, length, time, weight, density, etc.

Question 26. Define scalar quantity.
Answer:

Scalar quantity: The quantity which has only magnitude but no direction is called a scalar quantity.

Question 27. Define vector quantity.
Answer:

Vector Quantity: The quantity which has both magnitude and direction is called a vector quantity

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 28. What is the unit?
Answer:

Unit: In measuring any physical quantity, some convenient and definite quantity of it is taken as the standard and in terms of this standard the physical quantity is measured. This standard is called a unit.

Question 29. Mention one importance of units.
Answer:

Importance of units: Measurement of any physical quantity without a unit is meaningless because we cannot have any idea about a physical quantity with its magnitude only.

Question 30. What is fundamental unit?
Answer:

Fundamental Unit: The units of physical quantities which are independent of each other and from which other units can be derived are called fundamental units.

Question 31. What is a derived unit?
Answer:

Derived unit: The units of physical quantity which are derived with the help of one or more than one fundamental unit are called derived units.

Example: The unit of area is obtained by using the unit of length twice. Similarly, units of speed, force, work, etc. are all derived units.

Question 32. What is accuracy?
Answer:

Accuracy: The closeness of the measured value to the true value of the physical quantity. is known as the accuracy of measurement.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 33. What is precision?
Answer:

Precision: It means the extent or limit to which the measurement of a physical quantity is done

Physical Science Class 9 WBBSE Chapter 1 Measurement 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. Is every physical quantity a unit?
Answer:

No, some physical quantities are measured by the ratio of two identical quantities, e.g. atomic weight, specific heat, specific gravity, etc. These physical quantities have no units, they are pure numbers.

Question 2. What are the characteristics of fundamental units?
Answer:

Characteristics of fundamental units :

(1) They do not depend on each other.
(2) They can form the units of other physical quantities.
(3) They are only three in number.

Question 3. What are the types of different systems of units? y
Answer:

Different systems of units: At present two different systems of units are used in science throughout the world.

(1) CGS or Metric system.
(2) SI or international systems of units (1960).

Question 4. What is the CGS system?
Answer:

CGS or French or Metric system: This system originated in France but now it is used in scientific measurements and is widely used throughout the world including India. From the initial letters of the words centimeter, gram, and second, this system is called the CGS system. This is a decimal system.

Question 5. What is the SI system of units?
Answer:

SI or International System of Units: In 1960, an international system of units of measurement known as the SI system was recommended by the General Conference on Weights and Measures to have a consistent system of units and to simplify communications among scientists.

Question 6. Define meter.
Answer:

Metre: The distance between the two marks made on a platinum-iridium (90: 10) bar maintained at 0°C temperature preserved at the International Bureau of Weights and Measures at Sevres near Paris, is considered as one meter (symbol: m).

Question 7. What is the modern concept of meter?
Answer:

Modern concept of meter (October 1983): The distance traveled by light in;1/3x \(10^8\)sec in vacuum is called 1 meter.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 8. What do you mean by mass?
Answer:

Mass: The mass of a body is the quantity of matter contained in it.

Question 9. State the bigger units of mass.
Answer:

Bigger units of mass:

(1) Quintal (= 100 kg)
(2) Metric ton or tonne (= 1000 kg = 10 Quintal)
(3) CSL (= 1.4 x mass of the sun).

Question 10. State the smaller units of mass.
Answer:

Smaller units of mass :

(1) a.m.u. (= 1:6603 x \(10^{-24}\)g)
(2) 1 carat = 200 mg

Question 11. What is density? State its CGS and SI units.
Answer:

Density: The density of the material of a body is the quantity of its mass per unit volume.

Unit of density in CGS system: g \(\mathrm{cm}^{-3}\)

Unit of density in SI system: kg \(\mathrm{m}^{-3}\)

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 12. What do you mean by solar day?
Answer:

Mean solar day: The length of the solar day varies from day to day owing to various reasons and the mean value of the actual solar days averaged over a full year is called the mean solar day.

Question 13. What are the advantages of the metric system?
Answer:

Advantages of the metric system:

(1) In the metric system, multiples and sub-multiples of the units of length and mass are always ten times the preceding ones.

(2) In the metric system, units of length, mass, and volume are related by the same relation.

(3) In the metric system, the same prefixes (such as milli, centi, deci, etc.) are used in the units of length and mass.

Question 14. Define dimension.
Answer:

Definition of dimension: Dimensions of a derived unit are the powers to which the fundamental units of mass, length, and time must be raised to represent that unit.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 15. Define dimensional expression.
Answer:

Definition of dimensional expression: Dimensional expression is a product or quotient of the symbols of fundamental physical quantities involved in a derived physical quantity raised to appropriate powers.

Example: Dimensional expression of force : \(\left[\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}\right]\)

Question 16. State physical quantities without dimension.
Answer:

Physical quantities without dimension: A physical quantity is expressed as a ratio between two physical quantities of the same unit, it becomes a number only, which will not have dimension.

Example: Mechanical advantage of a machine, specific gravity, refractive index, etc. are dimensionless. Again, angle, although has a unit (radian), it has no dimension.

Question 17. How can you measure the length of a curved line?
Answer:

Measurement of the length of a curved line: If the length of a curved line is to be measured with the help of a scale, we make use of a thread and place it along the curved line and measure the length of the straightened thread with the help of a scale.

Question 18. Why are scales made usually with wood or plastic?
Answer:

Scabies are made usually with wood or plastic: In making an ordinary scale wood or plastic is usually used instead of metal because, with the change in atmospheric temperature, metal scales change in length.

A metal scale gives correct readings only at a temperature at which it has been graduated. At any other temperature, it would give incorrect measurements. But in the case of wood or plastic, these changes are negligible. So the scales are made usually with wood or plastic.

Question 19. What is common balance?
Answer:

Common balance: In the laboratory, we measure the mass of a body with a common balance. The weighing balance used in our daily lives is a simple version of this common balance.

Question 20. What is the working principle of measurement of mass?
Answer:

Working principle of measurement of mass: We find the mass of a body by comparing its mass with some standard weights. Generally, the measurable object is kept on the left pan of the balance and the standard weights are placed on the right pan. When the balance beam is horizontal, then.

Mass of the objective= Mass of the standard weights

Question 21. What is the working principle of the measurement of weight?
Answer:

Working principle of the measurement of weight: The spring balance should be kept vertical and the pointer should coincide with the ‘0’ mark of the scale. When a weight is suspended from the hook, the spring elongates, elongation being proportional to the weight.

So, the pointer attached to the spring moves over the graduated scale. By noting its position against the scale, we can directly measure the weight of a body.

Question 22. What is a measuring cylinder?
Answer:

Measuring cylinder: The instrument by which the volume of a liquid is measured is known as measuring cylinder.

Question 23. What points should be noted during measuring the volume of a liquid
Answer:

Points to be noted while measuring the volume of a liquid

(1) The volume of a liquid cannot be measured by measuring a cylinder that reacts with glass.

(2) The volume of a liquid cannot be measured by a cylinder which is very volatile.

Question 24. How can you measure the density of an irregularly shaped body by using a common balance and measuring cylinder?
Answer:

Density: The density of a substance is defined as mass per unit volume of the substance.

If M is the mass of the substance, V is the volume, then the density D is given by D = M/V…..(1)

The mass of the irregularly shaped body is determined by a common balance and volume is measured by a measuring cylinder. From equation (1) density of the body can be determined.

Wbbse Physical Science Class 9 Chapter 1

Question 25. How will you determine the volume of a solid by a measuring cylinder?
Answer:

Determination of the volume of a solid by a measuring cylinder: To find the volume of the solid, some liquid in which the solid sinks but does not dissolve is taken in a dry measuring cylinder. The reading of the upper meniscus of the liquid in the cylinder is noted, let it be \(\left(V_1\right)\) ml.

The solid substance tied with a waxed thread is now slowly immersed in the liquid. Let the reading of the upper meniscus of the liquid in a measuring cylinder be\(\left(V_2\right)\)ml. So, the volume of the given solid is \(\left(V_2-V_1\right)\)ml.

Question 26. What is measurement?
Answer:

Measurement: Measurement is the determination of the size or magnitude of something. , The comparison of an unknown quantity with some standard quantity of the same type is known as measurement.

Question 27. What are the basic units to measure the physical quantities?
Answer:

The basic units are shown in the following table.
 WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 MeasurementQUANTITY AND UNITS

Question 28. Define Astronomical Unit.
Answer:

Astronomical unit (AU): It is the mean distance between the sun and the earth. It is used in measuring astronomical distances.

AU = 1.5 x \(10^{13}\) m

Question 29. Why is temperature mentioned in the unit of length but not in the unit of mass?
Answer:

The length is measured by a scale made of metals, plastic, wood gataparcha, etc. The length of these substances varies with temperature difference. So in determining the unit of length, temperature is to be specified to get the exact length. On the other hand, mass is an intrinsic property of matter, it does not vary with the change of temperature. So, it is not necessary to specify the temperature.

Wbbse Physical Science Class 9 Chapter 1

Question 30. If the mass and volume of a piece of iron be 760 g and 100 cm, then what would be its density?
Answer:

Density of iron = mass of iron/volume of iron

= \(\frac{760 \mathrm{~g}}{100 \mathrm{~cm}^3}\)=7.6g/\(\mathrm{cm}^3\)

Question 31. State two rules for writing the S.I. units.
Answer:

The following guidelines are followed while writing the units of physical quantities.

(1) The symbol for a unit that is not named in honor of any scientist is written in small letters.

Example: The symbol! for meter is ‘m’.

(2) The symbol for a unit that is named in honor of any scientist is written with an initial capital letter.

Example: The symbol for a unit of force (newton) is N.

Question 32. When is a common balance called defective?
Answer:
A defective common balance:
A common balance is called defective if

(1) the arms of the balance are of unequal length.

(2) the scale pans are of unequal weight.

(3) the center of gravity is not exactly below the fulcrum of the balance when the beam is horizontal.

Question 33. Why are the masses of weights in a weight box taken in the ratio of 5: 2 : 2: 1?
Answer:

The masses of the standard weights in a weight box in gm are 100g, 50g, 20g, 20, 10g, 5g, 2g, 2g, and 1 gm and in milligrams are 500, 200, 200, 100, 50,20, 20 and, 10, i.e in the ratio of 5 : 2: 2: This is because, with this ratio of the masses, the mass of any body within 211.11 gm can be measured with a common balance without the need of any larger weight.

For example, if the mass of a body is 56.86 gm., its mass can be measured by placing standard weights of (50 + 5 + 1) gm and (500 + 200 + 100 + 50 + 10) mg in the right-hand pan of the balance.

Question 34. How will you measure the volume of tea in a teacup?
Answer:

The volume of tea in a teacup can be conveniently measured with the help of a narrow measuring cylinder whose volume is graduated in centimeters and decimals of centimeters.

The total amount of tea is poured inside the cylinder and the reading of the upper level of tea in the cylinder gives the volume of tea.

Question 35. If the bus fare per mile is changed into per kilometer, find whether a Passenger pays more or less than the actual fare if he travels a distance of 10 miles and pays at the rate of a kilometer.
Answer:

As the rate of fare is equal both in the mile and kilometer and 10 miles being equal to 10 x 1.60 km = 16 km, the Passenger will pay more if he pays at the rate of kilometer.

Question 36. In a ration shop, one metric ton of rice is sold per week. How many kilograms of rice are sold per week?
Answer:

1 metric ton = 1000 kilograms.

So, 1000 kilograms of rice are sold per week.

Wbbse Physical Science Class 9 Chapter 1

Question 37. Which is greater in length a table of 2 meters in length or a table of 2 yards in length? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:

1 (one) metre = 39.37 inches
2 metres     = 39.37 x 2 inches
                     = 39.37 x 2/12 x 3 yards
                     = 2.186 yards.
As 2 meters = 2.186 yards, hence a table of the length of 2 meters is greater than a table of the length of 2 yards.

Question 38. Which is cheaper—rice at Rs. 2 per kg or rice at Rs. 1 per pound?
Answer:

1 (one) kg = 2.2056 Ibs.

Therefore, the cost of 2.2046 Ibs of rice at the rate of Rs. one per pound = Rs. 2.204. Again, the cost of 1 kg of rice at a rate of Rs. 2.00 per kg = Rs. 2.00. Hence, rice of 2 rupees per kg is cheaper than that of one rupee per pound.

Question 39. Which one will be profitable to you—kerosene costing rupees forty per gallon or kerosene costing ten rupees per liter? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:

We know,

1 gallon = 4.536 litres.

Now if a gallon of kerosene is purchased at the rate of liter, it costs rupees 45.36 (Rs.4.536 x 10), but if it is purchased at a gallon rate, it costs rupees forty only. Hence, it is profitable to purchase at a gallon rate.

Question 40. What is the mass of 100\(\mathrm{cm}^3\)? of a liquid whose density is 1.2 gm/cc?
Answer:

We know, density = mass/volume
or, Mass = volume x density.
Hence, volume = 100 cubic centimeters.
Density = 1.2 gm/c.c.
Mass = 100 x 1.2 = 120 gm.

Question 41. The mass and volume of a piece of iron are 510 gm and 60 c.c. respectively. What is the density of the iron piece? Express the value also in S.I. unit.
Answer:

Solin. Density (d) =\(\frac{\text { mass }(M)}{\text { volume }(V)}\)=\(\frac{510 \mathrm{~g}}{60 \mathrm{v} \cdot \mathrm{c}}\)=8.5/c.c

Density of iron in S.I. unit = 8.5\(\times 10^3 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\)

Question 42. How is the volume of a regularly shaped body determined?
Answer:

To find the volume of a regularly shaped body its dimensions such as length, breadth, height, radius, etc. are measured.

Then use the following relations:

Volume of cuboid = length x breadth x height

Volume of a cube =\((\text { side })^3\)

Volume of sphere =\( \frac{4}{3} \pi \text { (radius) }^3\)

Question 43. Is light year a fundamental unit or a derived unit? Arrange in descending order of magnitude—angstrom, femtometre, micron, nanometre.
Answer:

A light year is a fundamental unit since it denotes length. Arranged in descending order: micron, nanometer, angstrom, femtometre.

Question 44. Why does one not express his age in seconds?
Answer:

A person does not express his age in seconds because, with such a small unit of time, the number expressing his age will be very large which does not give one a clear idea about the age.

Wbbse Physical Science Class 9 Chapter 1

Moreover, in calculating age in seconds and then expressing it with a large number, some more seconds will pass off which do not come into the calculation. Thus, the correct age of one cannot be expressed in seconds.

Question 45. Is the density of a material dependent on its mass or volume?
Answer:

The density of a substance is independent of its mass or volume. If the mass of a substance is increased or decreased, its volume correspondingly increases or decreases proportionately and vice versa, so density, the ratio of mass to volume, remains unchanged.

Question 46. What precautions should be taken while determining the volume and density of a solid body with the help of a common balance?
Answer:

To find the volume and thus density of a body, the following points should be kept in mind :

(1) The body must sink completely in the liquid taken in the measuring cylinder.

(2) The body must not react chemically with the liquid and also it must not dissolve in the liquid.

(3) While dipping the body in the liquid taken in the measuring cylinder, it should be done carefully so that no liquid splashes out of the cylinder.

Question 47. The mass of a proton is 1.67 x 10 Kg. How many protons would be required to make 1 kg?
Answer: Number of protons = \(\frac{1 \mathrm{~kg}}{1.67 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}}    =\frac{10^{27}}{1.67} \)

=\(6 \times 10^{27}\) approx.

Question 48. Light of a certain color is composed of a train of waves each of 0.3048 microns long. How many of these are there in a meter?
Answer:

Number of waves    =\(\frac{1 \mathrm{~m}}{0.3048 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~m}}\)=\(\frac{1 \times 10^6}{0.3048}\)

=\(33 \times 10^5\) approx.

Wbbse Physical Science Class 9 Chapter 1

Question 49. Mankind has existed for about 10° years, whereas the universe is about 10 years old. if the age of the universe is taken to be one day, for how many seconds has mankind existed?
Answer:

⇒ \(10^{10}\) years is taken as equivalent to 24×60×60 s.

so, yrs is equivalent to \(\frac{24 \times 60 \times 60 \times 10^6}{10^{10}}\)s.

⇒\(\frac{24 \times 9}{25} s\)

∴ \(8.64 \mathrm{~s}\)

Question 50. What are the characteristics of fundamental units?
Answer:

Characteristics of fundamental units:

(1) They do not depend on each other.
(2) They can form the units of other physical quantities.
(3) They. are only three in number.

Question 51. What is the working principle of measurement of weight?
Answer:

Working principle of measurement of weight: The spring balance should be kept vertical and the pointer should coincide with the ‘0’ mark of the scale. When a weight is suspended from the hook, the spring elongates, elongation being proportional to the weight.

So, the pointer attached to the spring moves over the graduated scale. By noting its position against the scale, we can directly measure the weight of a body.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science 

Question 52. Why is the unit of area not called a fundamental unit?
Answer:

The area is the product of two lengths (length and breadth) whose unit is a fundamental unit. So unit of area has been obtained by multiplying the two fundamental units.

Question 53. Which will be of greater density—a kilogram of iron or a kilogram of cotton? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:

If the volume of a kilogram of cotton is larger than that of a kilogram of iron, the density of cotton will be less than that of iron.

Question 54. How can a physical quantity be classified? :
Answer:

A physical quantity can be classified into two broad categories:

(1) Scalar quantity
(2) Vector quantity.

Question 55. Express a light year in a megametre.
Answer:

Light year is the distance traveled by light in one year at the speed of 3 x \(10^8\) VMS.
One megametre = \(10^6\) m.
Distance traveled by light in one year (865 days) in megametre (Mm)
\(\frac{3 \times 10^8 \times 60 \times 60 \times 24 \times 365}{10^6}\)Mm=9.4608×\(10^9\)  Mm

Question 56. Arrange in ascending order of magnitude; 1 micron, 1 angstrom, 1 fermi, 1 millimeter, 1 nanometre.
Answer:

1 micron     = \(10^{-6}\)m
1 angstrom = \(10^{-10}\)m
1 fermi (or femtometre)= \(10^{-15}\)m
1  millimetre = \(10^{-3}\)m
1 nanometer = \(10^{-9}\)m.

The required ascending order is 1 fermi, 1 angstrom, 1 nanometre, 1 micron, 1 millimeter.

Question 57. Light of a certain color is composed of a train of waves, each of wavelength 6355 angstrom. How many such waves are present in an inch or 2.54 centimeters?
Answer:

1 angstrom = \(10^{-8}\)mcm

∴ 6355 angstrom.= 6355 x \(10^{-8}\)cm. Since, 1 inch = 2.54, cm.

∴  The required number of waves=\(\frac{2.54}{6355 \times 10^{-8}}\)=\(40 \times 10^3\)

Question 58. In the CGS system density of water is 1 g/cc. Find the density of water in SI.
Answer:

Density of water =1 g/cc=1g/1\(\mathrm{cm}^3\)
=\(\frac{1 g}{(1 \mathrm{~cm})^3}\)=\(\frac{\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg}}{\left(\frac{1}{100} \mathrm{~m}\right)^3}\)=\(\left(\frac{1}{1000} \times \frac{1000000}{1}\right) \mathrm{kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\)

=\(1000 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\)

 Therefore,Density of water in the SI system is \(1000 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\)

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science 

Question 59. In a faulty balance, the lengths of the left and right arms are respectively 11 cm and 10.5 cm. The apparent mass of a body determined by the balance is found to be 22 g; find the true mass of the body.
Answer:

The standard mass of 22 g is kept in the right pan. So, from the principle of balance, mass on the left pan x length of left arm = mass on the tight pan x length of right arm, or m X 11 = 22x 10.5
m=\(\frac{22 \times 10.5}{11}\)=21

So, the true mass is 21 g.

Question 60. The mass of an empty bucket of 10 I Capacity is 1 kg. Find its mass when it is completely filled with a liquid of density 800 \(\mathrm{kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\)
Answer:

1 =I \(\mathrm{dm}^3\)=8kg;

Mass of 10 I of the given liquid=\(\frac{800 \mathrm{~kg}}{(10 \mathrm{dm})^3}\times 10 \mathrm{dm}^3\)

So, the mass of the bucket with the liquid (8+1) or 9 kg.

Question 61. The dimension of a physical quantity is given as [M][L]?(T}2. Name the quantity. What is its SI unit? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:

\([\mathrm{M}][\mathrm{L}]^2[T]^{-2}\)=M\(\left[\frac{\mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{T}}\right]^2 \)  = mass x velocity?.

=2x½× mass ×velocity? = 2 x kinetic energy. So, the given quantity is twice the kinetic energy. The SI unit of K.E. is Joule, for a unit of kinetic energy is the same as the unit of work.

Question 62. Deduce the dimension of power.
Answer:

Power=\(\frac{\text { work }}{\text { time }}\)=\(\frac{\text { force } \times \text { distance }}{\text { time }}\)=force x velocity

=mass x acceleration \(\times \frac{\text { distance }}{\text { time }}\)

=Mx Lx \(\mathrm{T}^{-2} \times  \mathrm{LT}^{-1}\)=\(\mathrm{ML}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-3}\)

Question 63. Find the value of 1 unified atomic mass unit (a.m.u.) in kg.
Answer:

1 a.m.u=\(\frac{1}{12} \text { of a } C_{12} \text { isotope. }\)

\(1 \mathrm{ml}^{12} \mathrm{C}\)=\(12 \mathrm{~g}^{12} \mathrm{C}\)

\(\text { i.e., } \mathrm{N}_{\mathrm{A}} \text { number of }{ }^{12} \mathrm{C}\)=12g\(\left[N_A=\text { Avogadro number }\right]\)

Therefore, 1 a.m.u =\(\frac{1}{12} \times \frac{1}{N_A} \times 12 g\)=\(\frac{1}{N_A} g\)=\(\frac{1}{1000 N_A} \mathrm{~kg}\)=\(1.66 \times 10^{-27} \mathrm{~kg}\)

Question 64. Calculate the angle of (a) 1° (degree) (b) 1° (minute of arc or arc minute) (c) 1” (second of arc or arc second) in radians
Answer:

360°=2π rad, 1°=60′, 1′=60″.

(1)360°=2π rad=
∴ 1°=\(\frac{2 \pi}{360} \times \mathrm{rad}\)=\(1.745 \times 10^{-2}\)rad

(2) 1°=60°=\(1.745 \times 10^{-2}\)rad
∴ 1′=\(\frac{1.745}{60} \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{rad} \simeq 2.91 \times\)rad

(3) 1′=60″=2.91\(2.91 \times 10^{-4}\)rad
∴ 1″=\(\frac{2.91}{60} \times 10^{-4}\)rad=\(4.85 \times 10^{-6}\)rad

Question 65. Express the numbers in exponential notation :
(a) 563
(b) 0.0012
(c) 43,900,000
(d) 0.0000007190
Answer:

(a) 5.63 x \(10^2\)
(b) 1.20 x \(10^{-3}\)
(c) 4.39 x \(10^7\)
(d) 7.19 x \(10^{-7}\)

Question 66. How many protons would be required to make 1 kg? m, = 1.67 107 kg.
Answer:

Number of protons(n)× \(m_p\) =1 kg
∴n=\(\frac{1}{1.67 \times 10^{-27}}\) =\(5.99 \times 10^{26}\)

Question 67.
(1) How many millimeters (mm) are there in a kilometer (km)?
(2) How much larger is a millisecond (ms) than a nanosecond (ns)?
(3) A microwatt (UW) is what fraction of a kilowatt (kW)?
(4) A gigaparsec (GPsc) is how many kiloparsecs (kpsc)?
(5) What fraction of a kilovolt (kV) is a millivolt (mV)?
Answer:

(a) \(10^6\)
(b)\(10^6\)
(c)\(10^{-9}\)
(d) \(10^6\)
(e) \(10^6\)

Question 68. If 325 sheets of paper make a stack 2.54 cm high, what is the thickness of a sheet of a single paper?
Answer:

The thickness of a single sheet of paper \(=\frac{2.54 \mathrm{~cm}}{325}\)=\(7.8 \times 10^{-3}\)cm.

Question 69. There are 120 small divisions on a stopwatch dial. What is the least count of the watch?
Answer:

1 Complete rotation =60 s
i.e., 120 division =60 s
∴ divisions= \(\frac{60}{120}\) =0.5 s
∴Lest count=0.5 s.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science 

Question 70. The length of an object was measured to be 30 cm by a linear scale of least count 0.1 cm. What is the % error?
Answer:

 % error=\(\frac{\text { least count }}{\text { measured value }} \times 100\)=\(\frac{0.1}{30} \times 100\)=0.33 \%

Question 71. A piece of iron has a volume of 500 mi and a mass is 4kg. Find the density of the object.
Answer:

Density =\(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)=\(\frac{4 \mathrm{~kg}}{500 \mathrm{ml}}\)\(=\frac{4000 \mathrm{~g}}{500 \mathrm{ml}}\)=\(8 \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{mL}\)

Question 72. 100 g of water is added to a 100 cc solution of sugar of density 1.5 g/cc. What is the density of the new mixture?
Answer:

Mass of sugar = density x volume = 1.5 g/cc x 100 cc = 150 g.
Assume 100 g water = 100 cc water (density of water = 1 g/cc).
∴ Total volume = 100 + 100 = 200 cc, mass of solution = 150 g + 100 g = 250 g.
∴ Density \(=\frac{250 \mathrm{~g}}{200 \mathrm{cc}}\)=1.25g/cc

Question 73. Find the dimension of force.
Answer:

Force = mass x acceleration =\(\text { mass } \times \frac{\text { change in velocity }}{\text { time }}\)

\(=\frac{\text { mass } \times(\text { final velocity }-\text { initial velocity )}}{\text { time }}\)

\(=\frac{m \times \frac{L}{T}}{T}\)=
\(\frac{M L}{T^2}\)=\(\left[M L^2 T^{-3}\right]\)

Question 74. Power [P] is the rate of doing work. Find the dimensional equation of power.
Answer:

power\(=\frac{\text { work }}{\text { time }}\)\(=\frac{\text { force } \times \text { displacement }}{\text { time }}\)

\([P]=\frac{\left[M L T^{-2}\right] \times[l]}{[T]}\)=\(\left[\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}\right]\)

Question 75. Specific gravity is the ratio of two densities. Show that it has no dimension.
Answer:

Specific gravity of a substance \(=\frac{\text { Density of the substance }}{\text { Density of water at } 4^{\circ} \mathrm{C}}\)

\(=\frac{M L^{-3} T^0}{M L^{-3} T^0}\)=\(\left[M^0 L^0 T^0\right]\)

So, Specific gravity is dimensionless.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science 

Question 76. Kinetic energy is given by amv’ and potential energy by mgh. Show that both of them have the same dimensions.
Answer:

Kinetic energy \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)=\((M) \times\left(L T^{-1}\right)^2\)\(=\left[\mathrm{ML}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]\)

Potential energy = mgh =(M)\(×\left(\mathrm{LT}^{-1}\right)^2\)=\(\left[\mathrm{ML}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]\)
So, kinetic and potential energies have the same dimensions.

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 1 Measurement 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. State different smaller units of length in the SI system.
Answer:

Smaller units of length in the SI system :

(1) Femtometre or Fermi (\(=10^{-15}\) m) (fm)

(2) Picometre ( \(=10^{-12}\) m) (pm)

(3) X-ray unit (  \(=10^{-13}\) m) (Xu)

(4) Angstrom ([late]=10^{-10}[/latex] m) (A)

(5) Nanometre (\(=10^{-9}\) m) (nm)

(6) Micrometre or micron (\(=10^{-6}\) m)

(7) Centimetre (\(=10^{-2}\) m) (cm)

(8) Decimetre ( \(=10^{-1}\) m) (dm)

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science 

Question 2. What are the bigger units of length?
Answer:

Bigger units of length:

(1) Astronomical unit (AU): The average distance between the earth and the sun.

1 AU = 14.95 X \(=10^8\) km

(2) Light year: The distance that a light wave travels in the year in a vacuum.

1 light year = 9.46 x \(=10^{12}\) km

(3) Parsec: The biggest unit for the measurement of distance. 1 parsec = 3-26 light

years = 30.84 x \(=10^{12}\) km.

Question 3. What are the requisites of a good balance?
Answer:

Requisites of a good balance :

(1) The balance must be true, i-e., the balance beam should be horizontal with no loads or with equal loads on the pans.

(2) The balance must be sensitive.

(3) The balance must be stable, i.e., the balance beam must come quickly to its equilibrium position once it is displaced.

(4) The balance must be rigid, i.e., all the parts of the balance must be strongly built.

Wbbse Class 10 Physical Science 

Question  4. What is a sensitive balance? What are the conditions to be a sensitive balance?
Answer:

Sensitive balance: A balance is said to be sensitive when even for slight differences in weights on the two pans the beam should be tilted from its horizontal position.

Conditions for a balance to be sensitive :

(1) The balance beam should be light with long arms.
(2) The center of gravity of the beam should be near the fulcrum.

Question  5. What is the concept of measurement?
Answer:

Measurements are an integral part of the human race, without them, there would be no trade, no statistics.

Scales are used to measure. One would know a simple ruler or tape could be used to measure small distances. The current system of small units has three standard units meter, kilogram, and second. These three units form the MKS system or the metric system. A meter is a unit of length, currently defined as the distance light travels within 1/299782458th of a second.

A kilogram is a unit of mass. While it was previously defined as a specific volume of water (e.g. 1 liter or a 10 cm? cube), its current definition is based on a prototype platinum-iridium cylinder.

A second is a unit of time. Originally defined as the amount of time the earth needs to make 1/86400 of a rotation, it is now defined as 9192631770 oscillations of a Cesium-133 atom. The bigger units of measurement are astronomical units (AU).

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement common balance Earth And Mars

Question  6. Define scalar quantities and vector quantities. Give examples.
Answer:

Scalar quantities: The physical quantities which have only magnitude but no direction are called scalar quantities.

Examples: mass, distance, time, volume, speed, work, energy, power, density, electric current, etc.

Vector quantities: The physical quantities which have magnitude, as well as direction, are called vector quantities.

Examples: displacement, velocity, acceleration, momentum, force, weight, electric field, magnetic field, etc.

Question  7. What do you mean by the unit of a physical quantity? All physical quantities do not have units, explain it.
Answer:

The known standard constant quantity which is used for comparison of a physical quantity is said to be a unit.

For example, the length of an iron rod is 5 meters. It means the unit of length is meter (m) and this unit is contained 5 times the length of that iron rod. Hence,

Physical quantity = numerical value x unit.

All physical quantities do not have units. Those physical quantities which are expressed as the ratio of the same quantities do not have units.

For example, atomic weight of elements, specific gravity, and refractive index.

Question  8. What observations should be taken for the choice of a unit?
Answer :

The selection of a unit to measure a physical quantity should have the following properties :

(1) The unit chosen should be of convenient size.

(2) The unit should be well-defined.

(3) The unit should not change with space, time, and temperature.

(4) It should be reproducible.

Question  9. Define fundamental and derived units. Give examples.
Answer:

Fundamental units: The unit that is independent of any other unit or which can neither be changed nor be related to any other unit is called a fundamental unit.

Examples: Units of length, mass, time, temperature, current, luminous, intensity, etc. are fundamental units.

Derived units: The units which depend on the fundamental units or which can be expressed in terms of the fundamental units are called derived units.

Example: The units of velocity, acceleration, energy, force, momentum, etc. are the derived units.

The velocity of a moving body is obtained by dividing the distance traveled by the body by the time taken. When distance is expressed in the unit of length as centimeters and time in seconds, then

a unit of velocity = unit of length/unit of time = cm/second = cm/sec.

Question  10. Define the C.G.S. system and S.I. system of measurement of units.
Answer:

C.G.S system: In this system, the unit of length is centimeter (cm), a unit of mass is gram (g) and the unit of time is second (s).

S.I. System: In this system units of seven physical quantities have been considered as fundamental units.

In the S.1. system following are considered as the fundamental units :

 WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement Physical Quantites unit and Symbols

Question  11. Define the S.I. units of length, mass, and time.
Answer:

The unit of length is meter (m), the mass is kilogram (kg) and that of time is second (s). They are defined as

Metre (m): A meter is defined as 1,553,164.1 times the wavelength of the red line in the spectrum of cadmium.

Kilogram (kg): A kilogram is the mass of a cylindrical piece of platinum-iridium alloy kept at the International Bureau of Weights and Measures at Sevres near Paris.

Second (s): A second is defined as. 1/86400 is the part of a mean solar day.

Question  12. Explain the reason for using different smaller and larger units for measuring a particular quantity.
Answer:

To measure a particular quantity we use both smaller units and larger units as per requirement. For example, to measure the length of a room, we use meter (m), to measure the distance between two cities we use kilometer (km) units.

For the measurement of the distance of a star from the earth, the commonly used unit is light year because a kilometer is considered a very small unit in this case. To measure the length of a very small quantity we consider smaller units of length as centimeters, millimeters, microns, etc.

For example, to measure the thickness (or diameter) of a wire, we use centimeters or millimeters. In this case unit taken as meter is absurd. If the thickness of a paper measured in millimeters (mm) is 1 mm, then expressed in meters is 0.001 m, which looks odd.

Question  13. What do you mean by the dimension of a physical quantity?
Answer:

Generally, the dimension of a physical quantity represents the powers to which the fundamental unit (or units) has to be raised to obtain the derived unit of the physical quantity.

The dimensions of length, mass, and time are expressed as L, M, and T respectively. Dimensions generally represent the nature of the units only. They do not indicate the magnitude of the units.

For example, the volume of a cube L’ units

\begin{equation}
\text { Dimension of density of a cube }=\frac{\text { Dimension of mass of a body }}{\text { Dimension of volume of a body }}
\end{equation}

\begin{equation}
=\frac{M}{L^3}=M L^{-3}
\end{equation}
Dimension of force = dimension of mass x acceleration.

Question  14. State the different measuring devices to measure the different physical quantities.
Answer:

To measure the different physical quantities, the commonly used measuring devices are the following :

(1) Ordinary scale (or meter scale): Used to measure the length of an object.

(2) Common balance:  Used to measure the mass of a body.

(3) Spring balance:  Used to measure the weight of a body.

(4) Measuring cylinder:  Used to measure the volume of a liquid. It is also used to measure the volume of a solid by displacement method.

(5) Clock:  Used for measuring time.

(6) Stopwatch: Used for measuring a time interval between two events such as race, sports, etc.

Question  15. What is ordinary scale? Describe the method of measuring length with the help of an ordinary scale.
Answer:

An ordinary scale is a measuring device used to measure the length of an object. Ordinary scale is generally made up of wood, metal, or plastic. It is graduated in centimeters and millimeters. 1 centimeter is divided into 10 equal parts, each part is 1 millimeter.

To measure the length of a line say AB, we place the scale in such a way that it remains perpendicular to the line AB. Now note the readings of the starting point A and the end point B from the scale. Then,

Length of line AB = Reading of end B – Reading of end A. Let the starting point, A of the line AB at 2 cm, coincide with the scale. If the endpoint, B of the line does not coincide exactly with the graduation of the scale, the reading has to be taken by the eye approximation method. While taking the reading eye should be placed

directly above point B. In the figure given below the correct position of the eye should be at E. If we place our eye sideways, say\(E_1 \text { or } E_2\) then it leads to an error called parallax error. S

Let the end B coincides with the scale at 6.5 cm. Therefore, the length of the line AB = 6.5 cm- 2cm = 4.5 cm.

Question  16. What is density? State its units. How is the density of an irregular body insoluble in water measured?
Answer:

Density: The density of a substance is defined as its mass per unit volume. Density is a scalar quantity and is represented by the letter d. If the mass of a body is M gm, and the volume of the body is V cubic cm, then

d = M/V. Its C.G.S. unit is gm per \(\mathrm{cm}^3\), SI unit is kg/\(m^3\)

To find the density of an irregular body, first find the mass of the body by common balance. Now find the volume of the body insoluble in water by measuring the cylinder. By dividing the mass of the body by volume, we get the density of the body.

Question  17. What is a common balance? How will you measure the mass of a body with the help of a common balance? 
Answer:

Common balance: Common balance is an instrument used to measure the mass of a body. By common balance, we find the mass of a body by comparing its mass with some known standard weights.

Generally, we put the body on the left pan of the balance whose mass is to be determined, and the standard weights are placed on the right pan. When the beam of the balance becomes horizontal (or the pointer rests at zero scale) then the mass of the body is equal to the standard weight.

The different parts of a common balance are shown in the figure given below :
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement common balance

Different parts of common balance:

1- plumb line
2 – levelling screws
3- arrester
4- pans
5- beam
6- adjusting nuts
7-pointer
8- scale

A horizontal rigid beam is placed on a vertical pillar. Two scale pans (marked 4 in figure) of the same mass are suspended on the two ends of the beam supported by two strips placed on knife edges at the two ends.

The centre of the beam is kept on the fulcrum which is also attached with a pointer and a plumb line. The pointer moves over a scale fixed on the pillar when the pillar is raised with the help of a knob. The correct weight is known with the help of the pointer and the scale.

To adjust the balance, it is first leveled by leveling screws (marked 2 in the above figure). The horizontal beam is also adjusted by the two adjusted nuts (marked 6 in the figure).

Question  18. What is the volume of a body? How will you measure the volume of a given liquid by measuring devices?
Answer: The space occupied by a body is called its volume. The volume of a liquid in the laboratory is measured by the following measuring devices:(1) Measuring cylinder
(2) Measuring flasks
(3) Burette
(4) Pipette

A measuring cylinder is commonly used to measure the volume of liquids. It is a glass cylinder of uniform radius. The outer wall is graduated in cubic centimeters and millimeters from the bottom upwards. It is available in different sizes.

Before measuring the volume of a ‘liquid through a measuring cylinder, it is cleaned and kept fixed vertically. The liquid whose volume has to be measured is poured into it and the reading of the upper layer of the liquid is noted. This reading is the volume of the given liquid.

Question  19. What is a spring balance? How will you measure the weight of a body with the help of the spring balance?
Answer:

Spring balance is a type of balance used to measure the weight of a body. It consists of a spring kept in a metal tube. It is partially exposed in front of the metal tube. The Graduate upper end of the spring is rigidly fixed. The lower end of the engram spring is attached to a metal rod.

One hook is attached with a Pointer to the lower end of the metal rod. The body whose weight is to be determined is hanged from this hook. A pointer attached to Spring spring moves on a graduated scale (usually in grams or kilograms). The position of the pointer indicates the weight of the body.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement spring balanceQuestion  20. Describe a method to find the volume of an irregular solid heavier than and insoluble in water, with the help of a measuring cylinder.
Answer:

To find the volume of an irregularly shaped solid body, we take a graduated cylinder. Fill the cylinder partly with water. Note the reading of the lower level of water, say x, c.c. Now tie the given solid with a thin string and lower it gently into the cylinder so that the solid is completely immersed in water.

The level of water rises again. Note the new reading of the raised water level (say, \(x_2\) C.C.). Since the body displaces water equal to its volume, the volume of the solid = second reading first reading. Thus, the volume of solid \(=\left(x_2-x_1\right)\)cubic centimeters.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement Measuring CylinderQuestion  21. How will you measure time?
Answer:

Time is measured by a wall clock, wristwatch, and table clock. To measure a fraction of time, the stopwatch is used.

Clock :
In our day-to-day life, time is measured by a pendulum clock, whose functioning is based on the oscillation of a pendulum. In this type of clock, a metal rod is suspended from a rigid support. A heavy metal ball is suspended from the end of the rod. The time taken by the metal ball in one oscillation is regulated as 1 second.

It consists of a circular dial which is divided into 60 equal divisions. Each division represents 1 minute. It is further divided into 12 equal parts, where each part represents 1 hour. Hours are marked from 1 to 12. In this clock, the long arm is the arm of minute and the short arm is the arm of hour.

Spring is wound up with the help of a key in an old type of clock and by a battery in digital clocks or battery-operated clocks. The potential energy stored in the spring is converted to kinetic energy and it rotates the arms of the clock.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement clockStopwatch:

A stopwatch is used to measure the time interval between two events. it consists of a circular dial which is divided into 60 equal divisions. Each division represents 1 second. A long light needle called the second’s hand, pivoted at the center, rotates over the circular scale.

A big circular dial also contains a small circular dial to read the time in minutes. The smaller dial graduated in 30 or 60 divisions and the small needle called the minute’s hand rotates over the scale. When the second’s hand completes one rotation, the minute’s hand moves through one division or 1 minute.

A knob is provided at the top of the frame for winding the watch. By pressing the knob in succession, the watch can be started and stopped and both the needles can be brought to the starting point for further use.

Question  22. Distinguish between scalar and vector quantities mentioning three points of difference.
Answer:

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement scalar vector 1

Question  23. How can you measure (1) the thickness of a page of a book, (2) the diameter of a piece of hair or thread, and (3) the length of a segment of a zigzag line, with the help of a ruler?
Answer:

(1) To determine the thickness of a page of a book :

The thickness of about, say, 25 pages of the book together is measured with a ruler. Dividing this thickness by the number of pages chosen, the thickness of a page is calculated.

The same procedure is followed for different numbers of pages at different sections of the book. The average of these gives the required thickness of a page found out.

(2) To find the diameter of a fine thread or a hair :

For this, a long piece of thread or hair is taken. The piece is then coiled over the millimeter marks on the scale. The coiling should be such that each turn remains in close contact to its adjacent one.

Thus the added diameters of the segments of thread in all the turns cover a few millimetres of the scale which is noted. New dividing the length on the scale by the number of turns, the diameter of the thread or hair is determined.

(3) To measure the length of a curved or a zigzag line:

A piece of thread is taken help of. A required portion of the thread is very carefully laid over the given line. Now, the length of the straightened part of the thread that was used just to cover up the given line is measured with the help of a ruler, which gives the length of the given line.

Question 24. How can you determine the density of a liquid using a common balance and a measuring cylinder?
Answer:

A clean and dry measuring cylinder is placed on the left pan of a good common balance and it is counterpoised with the mass m, gram, say. Now, some quantity of the given liquid is poured cautiously inside the measuring cylinder upto a certain level and the level is noted avoiding parallax error; let it be V cc.

Now mass of the cylinder with the liquid in it is also determined and let it be m, gram. So, the mass of the liquid taken in the measuring cylinder is (m, – m,) gram.

∴ Density of the liquid \(=\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)=\(\frac{\left(m_2-m_1\right) \text { gram }}{V c c}\)

\(=\frac{m_2-m_1}{V} \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{cc}\)

Question  25. State three differences between common balance and spring balance.
Answer:

The three differences are :

(1) Common balance measures the mass of a body, and spring balance measures the weight of a body

(2) Common balance will show the same value of the mass of a body at different parts of the earth; spring balance will show different weights of a body at different parts of the earth

(3) In a common balance, several standard masses have to be placed in steps on one scale pan to counterpoise with the mass of a given body placed on another scale pan. It is a time-consuming process. But in a spring balance, the weight of the given body can be known instantaneously.

Question  26. How can you measure the exact mass of a solid by a common balance with unequal arm length? 
Answer:

Suppose the length of the left and right arm of the balance are |, and |, respectively. Now, keeping the solid with a mass of m gram at the right-hand pan it is counterpoised with a mass of w, gram at the left-hand pan.

Now,\(w_1 \times I_1\)=\(m \times I_2\)

\(\text { or, } \frac{l_1}{l_2}\)=\(\frac{m}{w_1}\)…………(1)

Again, the solid of mass is kept at the left-hand pan, and let us suppose it is counterpoised with a load of mass w, at the right-hand pan.

So,\(m \times I_1\)=\(w_2 \times I_2\)

\(\text { or, } \frac{I_1}{I_2}\)=\(\frac{w_2}{m}\)………….(2)

Now, from (1) and (2), we get

\(\frac{m}{w_1}\)=\(\frac{w_2}{m}\)

\(\text { or, } m_2\)=\(w_1 w_2\)

\(\text { or, } m\)=\(\sqrt{w_1 w_2}\)

Therefore, the correct mass \(=\sqrt{\text { Product of counterpoising   loads}}\)

Physical Science And Environment Class 9

Question  27. The mass of a piece of gold in the air is 193. g. In a measuring cylinder, there is 50 cm? of water. When the piece of gold is immersed in water in the measuring cylinder, the reading of the volume of water is found to be 60 cm. What is the density of gold?
Answer:

From the problem we get,

Volume of the piece of gold \(=(60-50) \mathrm{cm}^3\) \(=10 \mathrm{~cm}^3(\mathrm{~N})\)

We know, density \(=\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)

So, density of gold \(=\frac{\text { mass of gold }}{\text { volume of gold }}\)
\(=\frac{193 \mathrm{~g}}{10 \mathrm{~cm}^3}=19.3 \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{cm}^3\)

Question  28. The volume of a can is 100 ml and it weighs 20g. It is then filled fully by a liquid and weighs 180 g. Find the density of the liquid.
Answer:

The volume of the liquid (v) = 100 ml

Mass of the liquid (M) = (180 – 20) g = 160g

So, density of the liquid \(=\frac{\text { mass of the liquid }}{\text { volume of the liquid }}\)
\(=\frac{160 \mathrm{~g}}{100 \mathrm{~cm}^3}\)=\(1.6 \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{cm}^3\)

Question  29. The density of a liquid is 1°2 g/\(\mathrm{cm}^3\). What will be the mass of 100 \(\mathrm{cm}^3\) of the liquid?
Answer:

Volume of the liquid \(=100 \mathrm{~cm}^3\)

Density of the liquid \(=1^{\prime} 2 \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{cm}^3\)

We know the mass of liquid  = volume of the liquid x density of the liquid

= (100×1.2)g= 120g.

Question  30. The density of silver in a CGS unit is 10°5 g/cm®. What will be the density of silver in SI unit?
Answer:

From the problem we get,

Density of silver in CGS unit \(=10^{\circ} 5 \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{cm}^3\)

So, the density of silver in SI unit

\(=10^{\circ} 5 \times 1000 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\) \(=10500 \mathrm{~kg} / \mathrm{m}^3\)

Question  31. The radius of a solid sphere is 10 cm. The density of its matter is 8 g/\(\mathrm{cm}^3\). What is the mass of the sphere ?.
Answer: We know,

Volume of a sphere V \(=\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3(r=\text { radius of the sphere) }\)

V\(=\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times(10)^3 \mathrm{~cm}^3\)          r=10cm

Density of its matter \(=8 \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{cm}^3\)

So, mass of sphere = volume x density

\(=\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7} \times(10)^3 \times 8 \mathrm{~g}\)=33.51 kg.

Question  32. The mass of a piece of solid substance is 20-52 g. When the piece is immersed in water its mass becomes 12-48 g. What will be its volume and density?
Answer:

Mass of displaced water by the body = (20.52 – 12.48) g = 8.04 g.

Volume of displaced water \(=\frac{8.04}{1 \mathrm{~g} / \mathrm{cc}}\)

So, the volume of the solid substance =  8.04 c.c.

Question  33. Define liter and gallon and find the relation between them.
Answer:

Litre is the space occupied by the mass of one kilogram of water at 4°C. The volume of 1 liter may also be considered as the space of a cube of length, breadth, and height 10 cm each, occupied by a gas or a liquid.

Thus, 1 litre = 1.0 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm \(=1000 \mathrm{~cm}^3\)

1 litre = 1000 cubic centimeters.

Gallon is the volume of 10 pounds of water at 62°F

1 gallon = 4,536 litres.

Question  34. State the limitation of an ordinary scale for the measurement of length. Why should the zero mark of the scale not be used while measuring length by a meter scale?
Answer:

Limitation of an ordinary scale :

A meter scale can measure length correctly only up to 1 mm (or 0.1 cm), which is the least count of a meter scale. For more accurate measurement, a vernier scale is to be used. Besides, an ordinary meter scale is not useful for the measurement of the diameter of rods, wire, spheres, internal and external diameters of hollow cylinders, etc.

For these, an instrument called a slide caliper is to be used. For measurement of the diameter of very thin objects like hair, or thread, an instrument called a screw gauge is usually used Measurement should be made from the graduation mark other than the ‘0’ mark at one end of the scale to avoid error due to wear and tear of this end.

Question  35. How would you measure the volume of an irregular solid that can not be introduced into a measuring cylinder given to you?
Answer:

If the measuring cylinder is not wide enough for the solid to enter into it, the value of the solid can be measured with the help of an overflow jar which consists of an iron vessel provided with a spout.

The jar is filled with water up to the point of overflowing. The given measuring cylinder is placed under the spout of the overflow jar. The solid is carefully and slowly lowered into the overflow jar.

The solid displaces its volume of water and this water flows out from the spout into the measuring cylinder. The volume of water collected in the measuring cylinder is recorded. This is also the volume of the given solid.

Physical Science And Environment Class 9

Question  36. What will be the mass of 454 liters of water?
Answer:

Mass = volume x density

Density of water = 1 gm/cc.

Now, 1 gm \(=\frac{1}{1000} \mathrm{~kg} .\)=\(10^{-3} \mathrm{~kg}\)

454 litres = 454 x \(10^{3} \)c.c.

A mass of 454 liters of water

= 454 x \(10^{3} \) x1gm

= 454 x \(10^{3} \) x\(10^{-3}

= 454 kg.

Question  37. The length, breadth, and height of a water reservoir are 2 m, 1m, and 1m respectively. How many liters of water it can hold?
Answer:

The volume of the water reservoir = length x breadth x height

=2m x 1m x 1m

=2 x 10dm x 1 x 10dmx 1 x 10dm

= 2000 cubic decimetre

So the volume of water in the reservoir

= 2x [latex]10^{3} \) cubic decimetre

=2x \(10^{3} \) litre

(∴ cubic decimetre = 1000 cubic centimetre = 1 litre)

Question  38. What are the bigger units of length?
Answer:

The bigger units of length are kilometer (km), light year, and Astronomical Unit (A.U.).

1 Kilometre (km) = 1000 m (or\(10^{3} \) m)

A light year is the distance traveled by light in a vacuum in one year.

1 Light year = Speed of light x 1 year

= 3 x \(10^{8} \) m/s x 1 year

=3 x \(10^{8} \) m/s (865 x 24×60 60)s =9.46 x \(10^{12} \) km

Astronomical Unit (AU) is the mean distance of Earth from the sun.

1 A.U. = 1.496 x\(10^{11} \) metre.

Question  39. What are the smaller units of length?
Answer:

The S.I. unit of length is 1 meter. Its smaller units are centimeters (cm), millimeters (mm), micro, and nanometer (nm)

1 Metre =100cm or, 1cm\(=1 / 100 \mathrm{~m}\)

1 Metre = 1,000 mm_ or, 1 mm \(=1 / 1000 \mathrm{~m}\)

1 Metre = 10,00,000 micron or, 1 Micron =\(10^{-5} \)m

1 Nanometre=\(10^{-9} \)m.

Question  40. What is the utility of a unit? Do all physical quantities have units?
Answer:

Utility of a unit: Measurement of a physical quantity is just a process of comparing it with a well-defined standard quantity which is of similar nature to that of the quantity to be measured. This standard quantity, known as a unit, is chosen before measuring a physical quantity.

Now, with a preconception about the magnitude of the chosen unit, a comparison of a certain quantity with it gives a clear idea about the measured quantity. Hence, without

A unit, any measurement is meaningless:
There are some physical quantities, each of which is expressed by a ratio of similar physical quantities, so they have no units.

Examples: Mechanical advantage of a machine, solubility, refractive index, atomic weight, etc.

Question  41. What are the advantages of the metric system?
Answer:

Advantages of the metric system:

(1) In the metric system, multiples and sub-multiples of the units of length and mass are always ten times the preceding ones.

(2) In the metric system, units of length, mass, and volume are related by the same relation.

(3) In the metric system, the same prefixes (such as milli, centi, deci, etc.) are used in the units of length and mass. 2

Question  42. What precautions should be taken while determining the volume and density of a solid body with the help of a common balance?
Answer:

Precautions :

(1) The body must sink completely in the liquid taken in the measuring cylinder.

(2) The body must not react chemically with the liquid and also it must not dissolve in the liquid.

(3) While dipping the body in the liquid taken in the measuring cylinder, it should be done carefully so that no liquid splashes out.

Question  43. State the relationship between
(1) Inch and centimetre
(2) Kilometre and mile
(3) Kilogram and pound
(4) Pound and gram.
Answer:

(1) One Inch = 2.54 Centimetre
(2) One Kilometre = 0.6213 Mile
(3) One Kilogram = 2.2046 Pounds (Ibs.)
(4) One Pound = 453.56 grams.

Question  44. Define the units of the following physical quantities using the fundamental units : area, volume, density, velocity, acceleration, force, work, momentum, power and pressure.
Answer:
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurementtable quantity and definition Derived units symbols

Question  45. State the applications of dimensional analysis.
Answer:

Applications of dimensional analysis :

(1) Addition or subtraction can be done with only those physical quantities which have the same dimensions. ‘

Total energy \(=\text { kinetic energy }\left(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\right)\)+Potential energy

Each of energy terms-has the same dimension =\(\left[\mathrm{ML}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]\)

(2) Identical dimensions can be canceled in the numerator and the denominator.

Acceleration :\(\frac{\text { Velocity }}{\text { Time }}\)=\(\frac{\left.\mid M^0 L T^{-2}\right]}{[T]}\)=\(\left[M 2 L T^{-2}\right]\)

Pressure :\(\frac{\text { Force }}{\text { Area }}\)=\(\frac{\left[\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{L}^2\right]}\)=\(\left[\mathrm{ML}^{-1} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]\)

(3) Every correct formula or equation must have the same dimension on both sides of the equation.

Question  46. State the utility of dimensional analysis.
Answer:

Dimensional analysis helps us in deducting certain relations among different physical quantities.

It is of much help in checking the derivation, accuracy, and dimensional consistency of mathematical expressions.

Examples: Deducing a relation

The period of oscillation (T) of a simple pendulum depends on its length (1), mass (m), and g.

Let, T\(=k l^a g^b m^c ; k\)= dimensionless quantity; a, b, c = exponents

\(\left[L^0 M^0 T^1\right]\)=\([L]^a\left[L T^{-2}\right]^b\left[M^c\right]^c\)\(L^{a+b} \cdot T^{-2 b} \cdot M^c\)
On equating the dimensions on both sides, we have
a+b=0,-2b=1,c=0, or b=-½,va=-b=½,c=0

T\(=k l^a g^b m^c ; k\)=\(\left.k\right|^{\frac{1}{2}} g^{\frac{1}{2}} \cdot m^0\)=\(k \sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)

Actually, k is observed to be 2π 

T=\(2π \sqrt{\frac{1}{g}}\)

Examples: Dimensional Consistency :

Check whether the equation\(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)  = mg is dimensionally correct or not.

L.H.S.:  \([M]\left[L T^{-1}\right]^2\)=\(\left[M L^2 T^{-2}\right]\),     R.H.S: \([\mathrm{M}]\left[\mathrm{LT}^{-2}\right][\mathrm{L}]\) =\(   \left[\mathrm{ML}^2 \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]\)
L.H.S. = R.H.S., the equation is dimensionally correct.

Physical Science And Environment Class 9

Question  47. Write a note on the different types of errors in measuring physical quantities.
Answer:

Errors :

Least count, Range, Absolute, Relative, and Percentage: Measurement errors, which are, in general, of two types :

(1) Systematic error
(2) Random error.

Systematic error is of three types :

(1) Instrumental error,
(2) Experimental error and
(3) personal error.

They can be minimized or eliminated by improving techniques or experimental procedures, opting for a better instrument, and removing personal error by more careful measurement. unpredictable fluctThe type (b) is irregular and random.

They may arise due to random mutations in experimental conditions. Temperature variation, mechanical vibration, and voltage fluctuation are the possible reasons.

Least count error :

The smallest value that can be measured by an instrument is called its least count. All the readings are. good only upto this value. The least count error is the error associated with the resolution of the instrument. It belongs to the random error category but within a limited size.

A meter scale has the least count of 1 mm or 0.1 cm, and a Vernier caliper has the least count of 0.01 cm. We can improve the least count error by selecting an instrument of higher precision or by repeating the observations several times and then taking the mean or average value.

Absolute and relative error :

Let us consider n number of measurements giving values, \(m_1, m_2, \ldots m_k \ldots m\), and the true value is \(m_{\text {true }}\)

Then mean value \(m_{\text {mean }}\) \(=\left(m_1+m_2 \ldots+m_k+\ldots+m_n\right) / n\)\(=\sum_i m_i / n\)

Absolute error\(\left|\Delta m_k\right|=m_k-m_{\text {mean }}\),k=1,2,………n

Mean absolute error,\(\Delta m_{\text {mean }}\)=\(\sum_k\left|\Delta m_k\right| / n\)

The range of a single measurement \(=m_{\text {mean }} \pm \Delta m_{\text {mean }} \text { i.e. }\)\(=m_{\text {mean }} \pm \Delta m_{\text {mean }}\)
or,\(m_{\text {mean }}-\Delta m_{\text {mean }} \leq m \leq m_{\text {mean }}+\Delta m_{\text {mean }}\)

i.e., any measurement of the physical quantity m is likely to lie between \(\left(m_{\text {mean }}+\Delta m_{\text {mean }}\right)\) and (\(\left(m_{\text {mean }}-\Delta m_{\text {mean }}\right)\)

Relative error =\(=\Delta m_{\text {mean }} / m_{\text {mean }}\)

Percentage error = Relative error 100% \(=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{m}_{\text {mean }}}{\mathrm{m}_{\text {mean }}} \times 100\)

Note that | Δm | is always positive but Δm may be both (+) ve.

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

48. In 5 successive measurements, the values of the period of oscillation of a simple pendulum are obtained as T, = 2.63, T, = 2.56, T, = 2.42, T, = 2.71 and T, = 2.80 (ins). Demonstrate the different errors and range of measurement.
Answer:

\(T_{\text {mean }}=\sum_i T_i / 5\)=(2.63+2.56+2.42+2.71+2.80)/5

\(=\frac{13.12}{5}\) =2.624 s[Mean value of T]

\(\left|\Delta T_i\right|\)=|2.63-2.62|,|2.56-2.62|,|2.42-2.62|,|2.71-2.62|,|2.80-2.62|

=0.01,0.06,0.20,0.09,and,0.18,(s)[absolute errors]

\(\mathrm{T}_{\text {mean }}=\sum_i\left|\Delta \mathrm{T}_{\mathrm{i}}\right| / 5\)=(0.0+0.06+0.20+0.09+0.18)/5=0.54/5

= 0.11 s [mean absolute error]

Range of measurement : \(T_{\text {mean }} \pm \Delta T_{\text {mean }}\)=2.62±0.11s

Relative error \(=\Delta T_{\text {mean }} / T_{\text {mean }}=\frac{0.11}{2.62} \times 100\)=4%

The least count (or the minimum value), the maximum value measurable, and the relative error of a few simple instruments are listed in the following table.WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement Question  49. State the characteristics. of the units of measurement.
Answer:

Characteristics of the units of measurement :

(1) The unit should be well-defined.

(2) The unit should be of considerable size.

(3) The unit should be easily reproducible.

(4) The unit should be imperishable. ‘

(5) The unit should be constant with respect to time or with physical conditions like pressure, temperature, etc.

Question  50. State the different types of variables and constants based on dimensions.
Answer:

Different types of variables and constants :

(1) Dimensional constants :

The quantities which have dimensions but which are of constant value are called dimensional constants.

Example: Gravitational constant, Planck’s constant.

(2) Dimensionless constants :

The constant quantities having no dimensions are called dimensionless constants.

Example: Pure Numbers 1, 2, 3 … 1, π (= 2.718).

(3) Dimensional variables :

The quantities which have dimensions but do not have any fixed value are called dimensional variables.

Example: Volume, Velocity, Force, etc.

(4) Dimensionless variables :

The quantities which have neither dimensions nor any constant value are called dimensionless variables.

Example: Angle, Specific Gravity, Strain, etc.

Question  51. State the limitations of dimensional analysis.
Answer:

Limitations of dimensional analysis :

(1) This method fails to determine the dimensionless constants in the formula.

(2) If a physical quantity depends on more than three factors having dimensions, the formula cannot be determined.

(3) This method cannot be used to derive a relation involving trigonometric or exponential or log functions.

(4) This method fails to derive an exact form of a relation when it consists of more than one part on any one side.

(5) It gives no information regarding whether a physical quantity is scalar or vector.

(6) Even when dimensions are given, the physical quantity may not be unique, as many physical quantities have the same dimensions.

Question  52. Mention some points to be noted while writing SI units.
Answer:

The following points may be noted while writing SI units :

(1) Punctuation marks like full stops, commas, etc. are not written after the symbols of the units. (e.g. we should write cm and not cm.).

(2) The symbols of the units are always used in singular form (i.e., we write 1m, 5 m, etc., and not 5 ms).

(3) The name of a unit is never written in the initial capital letter, even if it is named after some person. (e.g. we write ampere, joule, Newton, etc. and not as Ampere, Joule, Newton, etc.).

(4) If a unit is named after a person, its symbol is written in capital letters but the symbols of other units are not written in capital letters (e.g., we write newton (N), joule (J), metre (m), kilogram (kg), etc.).

(5) When temperature is expresed in kelvin scale, (°) degree sign is not used, i.e., we write 300 K and not 300°K.

(6) Units like metre per-second, etc. are written as m/s or \(\mathrm{ms}^{-1}\)

Question  53. Describe how time is measured by clocks and stopwatch.
Answer:

Clocks and Stop Watch : Time is measured by a clock and small time interval is measured by stopwatch. They are described below

The Pendulum clock : In this clock a simple pendulum is used. At a particular place, a pendulum of a given length takes a fixed time to complete one oscillation, i.e., starting from one extreme position and coming back to that position. This time is called the time period of the pendulum clock.

With the help of a coiled spring a gear (a toothed wheel) is rotated. A second pendulum regulates the speed of this gear being connected with it. Due to this regulated rotation of the gear, the hands of the clock being attached with it turn over a graduated circular dial and indicates the time. The spring requires to be wound after regular interval.

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement pendulum clockThe Stop watch : This watch resembles a pocket watch in appearance. On pressing a knob the watch starts and it stops when the knob is pressed for the second time. From the positions of the hands the time interval is obtained. This watch can measure a time interval of one-tenth of a second accurately. The watch is used in sports, scientific work, etc. for measuring time.WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 1 Measurement stop watchQuestion  54. Define the units of area, volume, density and temperature scales in different systems.
Answer:

Units of Area, Volume, Density, and Temperature scales :

(1) The units of area: of a surface in CGS, MKS or SI systems are correspondingly square centimeters (\(\mathrm{cm}^2\), square meter \(\left(m^2\right)\)

(2) Units of volume: of a solid body in CGS, MKS or SI systems are cubic centimeters (cc) and cubic meter (\(\left(m^3\right)\)) respectively.

For measuring volume of a liquid, the units usually used are litres or gallons.

Smaller units of litre are decilitres, millilitres of a cubic centimeter (cc).

10 decilitres = 1 litre; 1000 millitres (ml) = 1 litre or 1000 cubic centimetre (cc) = 1 litre.

(3) Units of density : Density of the material of a body is defined us the quantity of its

Mass per unit volume. Thus ,density \(=\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)

So, the unit of density in CGS is gm/cc or gm \(\left(m^{-3}\right)\), that in MKS or SI is kg/\(\left(m^3\right)\) or Kg \(\left(m^{-3}\right)\). Density of a substance is not dependent on its mass or volume.

If the mass of a substance is increased or decreased, its volume correspondingly increases or decreases proportionately and vice versa, so density, the ratio of mass of volume, remains unchanged, provided temperature remains constant.

For this reason, density of a solid golden bar and that of a solid golden ball is same, although the said bar andthe ball may have different masses, and hence, corresponding different volumes.

(4) Temperature scales : In CGS system, temperature is measured in Celsius scale. A temperature in Celsius scale is written with °C at the end of a number that indicates the magnitude of the temperature. In SI system the temperature scale used is known as Kelvin or Absolute scale. To write any temperature in this scale the degree sign is not written. For example, 300K but not 300°K.

Question  55. Define Ampere, Candela and Mole.
Answer:

Definition of Ampere, Candela, Mole : These three are considered as fundamental physical quantities in SI.

(1) Ampere : Symbol :A. It is the constant current which, flowing in two straight parallel infinite conductors of negligible cross-section placed one metre apart-in vacuum, produces 2 X \(10^{-7} \mathrm{Nm}^{-1}\) force between the conductors. The force is attractive or repulsive accordingly as the currents in the conductors are in same or opposite directions.

(2) Candela: Symbol: Cd. It is the radiant intensity of \(\frac{1}{683}\)watt per steradian (unit of solid angle) in a given direction sent by a source that emits monochromatic radiations of frequency 540 x 1012 Hz.

(3) Mole: Symbol: mole. Mole is a counting unit for chemists and it is the number 6.023

A mole stands for Avogadro’s number of items.
1 mole of atoms                 =  6.023   \(10^{23}\) atoms
1 mole H Molecules           =  6.023   \(10^{23}\) H Molecules
1 mole\(\mathrm{CO}_2\) Molecules       = 6.023  \(10^{23}\)\(\mathrm{CO}_2\) Molecules
1 mole  eletrons                 =  6.023   \(10^{23}\) eletrons
1 mole  rupees                   =  6.023    \(10^{23}\) rupees .

Question  56. How can we measure the area of an irregularly shaped lamina?
Answer:

Measurement of an irregularly shaped lamina : Take a graph paper of 1 m\(m^2\) or \(\frac{1}{100}\) area of each of its small squares. Place the irregular lamina on the graph paper and draw its outline.

Now count the number of complete number of squares inside the outline drawn. In the counting process, the number of squares more than half part of which are within the outline is also added. Let the total number of squares counted as stated above be x. So, the area of the lamina is x m\(\)m^2[/latex

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Separation Of Components Of Mixture

Separation Of Components Of Mixture Very Short Answer Type:

Question 1. What is a mixture?
Answer: A mixture refers to the physical combination of two or more elements or compounds at any proportion where the identities of the-all components are retained. Some mixtures can be separated into their components by physical means.

Question 2. What is a homogeneous mixture?
Answer: Most of the materials are neither pure elements nor pure compounds; they are mixtures. A solution of sugar in water is an example.

Question 3. Mention one reason to separate the components of a mixture.
Answer:
To get a pure sample of a substance: Pure substances are required in our daily life for various purposes like, in laboratory for conducting various experiments, in industry, in medicines and for carrying out research works.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 4. Mention the principle of sedimentation and decantation.
Answer: Heavy solid insoluble in a liquid settles down at the bottom forming a sediment. The upper clear liquid is the supernatant liquid.

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Example: Muddy water (mud forms the sediment).

Question 5. Mention the principle of fillration.
Answer: Light-weighed solid insoluble in a liquid can be separated by filtration.

Example: Sawdust + water (sawdust floats on water).

Question 6. Mention the principle of distillation.
Answer: One of the components is a solute solid. Both components are recovered.

Example: Salt + water.

Question 7. What is distillation?
Answer: The process of converting a liquid into its vapour by heating and the subsequent condensation of the vapours back into the original liquid is called distillation.

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 8.

What is fractional distillation?
Answer: The process of separation of two or more miscible liquids by distillation by making use of the difference in their boiling points is called fractional distillation.

Question 9. What is sublimation?
Answer:

Sublimation: A process of phase transition when a solid goes directly into vapour phase without passing through the liquid phase.

Example: lodine or \(\mathrm{NH}_4 \mathrm{Cl}\)

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 10. What is alloy?
Answer:
Alloy: Solid-solid mixture of metals or metals with non-metals.

Question 11. What is distillate?
Answer:

Distillate: In distillation process, the condensed vapour is called distillate.

Question 12. What is filtrate?
Answer:

Filtrate: The liquid that passes through the filter.

Question 13. What is residue ?
Answer:

Residue: The insoluble solid left on the filter.

Question 14. What is sedimentation ?
Answer:

Sedimentation: The process of settling down of the insoluble solid when the mixture of insoluble solid and liquid is allowed to stand.

Question 15. What is sediment?
Answer:

Sediment: The solid substance that settles down.

Question 16. What is supernatent liquid?
Answer:

Supernatant Liquid: The clear liquid left in sedimentation.

Question 17. What is decantation?
Answer:

Decantation: The process of pouring out of

Separation Of Components Of Mixture 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. What is a mixture? State the types of mixtures.
Answer:

If two or more substances (elements, compounds or both), mixed togther in any proportion, do not undergo any chemical change but retain their characteristics, the resulting mass is called mixture. A mixture may be of two types:

(1) Heterogeneous mixture: A mixture in which various constituents are not mixed uniformly is called a heterogeneous mixture. For example, a mixture of sand, salt, sulphur, etc.

(2)Homogeneous mixture: A mixture in which different constituents are mixed uniformly is called a homogeneous mixture. For example, all solutions are homogeneous mixtures.

Question 2. What are miscible and immiscible liquids? Give examples.
Answer:

When two liquids are dissolved in each other forming a homogeneous solution, it is called a miscible liquids mixture. For example, a solution of-ethy| alcohol and water, a solution of methyl alcohol and acetone. When two liquids do not dissolve in one another, they are called immiscible liquids: For example, mixture of kerosene oil and water, a mixture of carbon disulphide and water.

Question 3. How are the miscible liquid mixture and immiscible liquid mixture separated?
Answer:

The liquid-liquid mixture are separated by use of diffrent physical methods depending on the state and nature of mixture. The miscible liquid mixture is separated by the method of fractional distillation while the mixture of immiscible liquids by separating funnel.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 4. What is the function of a fractionating column?
Answer:

The improved fractionating column is designed in such a way that the liquids of higher boiling point are mostly condensed in it and return in the form of liquid in the distillation flask.Only the liquid of lower boiling point is allowed to pass through it.

Question 5. Mention the principle of mechanical picking with example.
Answer:

Mechanical Picking: The components are to be of different sizes and colours.

Example: Tiny stones from grains and pulses.

Question 6. Mention the principle of magnetic separation with example.
Answer:
Magnetic Separation: One of the components being magnetic, magnetic separation can separate the mixture of of iron and powdered sulphur.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 7. Mention the principle of gravitational separation with example.
Answer:

Gravitational Separation: One of the component is much heavier than water and the other one is much lighter than water.

Example: A mixture of sand and saw dust.

Question 8. Mention the principle of sublimation with example.
Answer:

Sublimation: One of the components sublimes.

Example: a mixture of sand and iodine, a mixture of common salt (NaCl) and ammonium chloride (\(\mathrm{NH}_4 \mathrm{Cl}\)).

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 9. Mention the principle of solvent extraction with example.
Answer:

Solvent Extraction : One of the components is soluble in a solvent (say, water) and the other one is not.

Example: Mixture of sodium chloride (soluble in water) and chalk (not soluble in water).

Question 10. Mention the principle of fractional crystallization with example.
Answer:

Fractional Crystallization: The solubility of components in a solvent have to differ widely.

Example: Mixture of potassium nitrate (less soluble in water) and common salt.

Question 11. Mention the principle of sedimentation with example.
Answer:

Sedimentation or Decantation: A heterogeneous mixture containing an insoluble solid in a liquid.

Example: Mixture of sand or mud and water.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 12. Mention the principle of evaporation with example.
Answer:

Evaporation: One component being non-volatile, may be soluble in water or not.

Example: Salt. solution [non-volatile salt recovered].

Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 13.

Mention the principle of filtration with example.
Answer:

Filtration: A heterogeneous mixture containing an insoluble solid in liquid.

Example: Mixture of sand in water. 

Question 14. Mention the principle of distillation with example. 
Answer:

Distillation: A homogeneous mixture having a dissolved solute in a solvent. (Both components are recovered).

Example: A solution of common salt.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 15. Mention the principle of separation by’ separating funnel with example.
Answer:

By Separating Funnel : A mixture of ifnmiscible liquids, differing widely in density.

Example : A mixture of oil (say, kerosene) and-water. Kerosene being much lighter than water.

Question 16. Mention the principle of fracti6nal -distillation with. example.
Answer:

Fractional Distillation: A homogéneus mixture of two miscible liquids, differing widely in their boiling points.

Example: A solution of alcohol and water. Alcohol boils at much lower temperature than water.

Question 17. What chromatography?
Answer:

Chromatography : It is a method by which in a mixture of different substances are separated. In this method due to difference in adsorption. of different substances in solid phase (adsorbent) and difference in migration of the substances in the mobile phase (liquid or gas) various substances are separated.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 18. What is paper chromatography?
Answer:

Paper Chromatography : It is a very easy technique to separate the various organic dyes present in the writing ink or printing ink.

Question 19. Mention two advantages of chromatography.
Answer: Advantages of chromatography :

(1) A small amount of the compound present in the mixture can be separated.
(2) The properties of the individuals present in the mixture do not alter.

Separation Of Components Of Mixture 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. Describe the method of separation of a mixture of two immiscible liquids using separating funnel.
Answer: The components of a mixture of two immiscible liquids (such as oil and water) are separated by a separating funnel.Separating funnel is a long glass tube provided with a stop clock. The immiscible liquid is poured in the funnel and allowed to stand for some time. The immiscible liquids separate into two distinct layers. The liquid with lower density (oil) remains in the upper layer and the liquid with higher density (water) will be deposited in the lower layer.

A conical flask is placed under the nozzle of the separating funnel. The stop clock is gently opened so that the heavier liquid trickles in the flask drop by drop. Once the denser liquid is drained out, the stop clock is closed. Another conical flask is placed under the nozzle of the separating funnel. Stop clock is opened to drain the lighter liquid. In this way both the liquids are separated in two separate flasks.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 2. What is fractional distillation? How is the mixture of two miscible liquids separated by the method of fractional distillation?
Answer:  The process of separation of two miscible liquids by the process distillation, making use of their difference in boiling points, is called fractional distillation. The mixture of two miscible liquids is separated by a fractional distillation apparatus.

The fractional distillation apparatus contains a distillation flask fitted with a fractional columm. One end of a-Leibig’s condenser is connected with fractionating ‘column and other end with a receiving flask to collect the distilate as shown in the given figure. The fractionating column is designed in such a way so that the vapours of the higher boiling liquid are mostly
condensed in it and return into the distilating flask in the form of liquid.

The vapours of the lower boiling liquid passes through the Leibug’s condenser and are collected in a receiver. The thermometer shows a constant reading as long as the vapours of the first liquid are passing to Leibig’s condenser. As soon as the temperature starts rising, the receiver is replaced by another receiver to collect the second liquid.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Separation Of Components Of Mixture Fraction Of Distillation

Question 3. Why do we separate the components of a mixture?
Answer:

Reasons for separating the components of mixture: The components of a mixture are separated because of the following reasons :

(1) To get a pure sample of a substance: Pure substances are required in our daily life for various purposes like, in laboratory for conducting various experiments, in industry, in medicines and for carrying out research works.

(2) To remove any undesirable or harmful components: The undersirable components present in a mixture can sometimes be very harmful, hence they need to be removed in order to get the desirable component. For example, small stones are removed from tice before the rice is cooked, otherwise, they can harm us.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

(3) To obtain the useful components of a mixture: Sometimes a mixture may comprise more than one useful components. These useful components need to be separated for their individual use. The best example of such a mixture is crude petroleum.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Separation Of Components Of Mixture Distillation Of process

Question 4. Explain the method of separation of colouring matters of ink (made of three different coloured substances) by simple paper Chromatography.
Answer:

Take a strip of filter paper about 10 cm long and 5 cm broad and stick its smaller end to a glass plate. On the lower end about 1 cm from the bottom, mark a small point and put one or two drops of ink. Now suspend this filter paper in a tall cylinder and pour some water in the cylinder till the lower end of the filter paper slightly dips in the water. The cylinder is covered with a glass lid to prevent evaporation.

After some time the water rises up the filter paper upto the ink mark and slowly dissalves the various constitutes of ink in it. The various constitutes of ink get absorbed by the filter paper in different amounts. The components of the ink solution rise to different heights on the paper strip depending on their solubility in water. The constitutes that are more absorbed they move upward lesser. Thus different column bands are formed on the paper and colouring matters of the link are separated. The diagram given here shows the method of separation of colouring matters of ink by paper chromatography.

Question 5. Write a short note on distillation.
Answer:

Distillation: This process allows separation and recovery of both components of a solid-liquid mixture by the use of a distillation apparatus. The process of converting a liquid into its vapour by heating and the subsequent condensation of the vapours back into the original liquid is called distillation.

Procedure :

(1) The mixture is taken in a distillating flask fitted with a Leibig’s condenser. At the other end of the condenser a receiver is placed to collect the distance.
(2) When the flask is heated, the vapours of the solvent pass through the condenser. They are cooled, condensed into a liquid and collected as a distillate in the receiver.
(3) The solid component forms the residue in the flask.
Examples: Distillation of solid-liquid mixtures.

Components of the Solid-Liquid Mixture Soluble solid component Distillate
1. Iodine + Chloroform Iodine Chloroform
2. Salt + Seawater Common salt and other salts Pure water
3. Iodine + Alcohol Iodine Alcohol


Wbbse Madhyamik Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Question 6.

State the importance of fractionation of petroleum.
Answer:

Importance of fractionation of petroleum: The chief source of liquid fuels is petroleum. However, petroleum cannot be used directly because it burns with a highly sooty flame, producing harmful gases.

The petroleum is subjected to fractional distillation. The crude oil (petroleum) is separately boiled in a ‘retort’so as to form its vapour. The vapours of petroleum are passed into the fractionating column. The vapours of heavier molecules condense in the lower parts of the fractionating column. The vapours of lighter molecules condense in the upper part of fractionating column.

The crude petroleum obtained from mines is a mixture of hydrocarbons containing [laaatex]C_1 \text { to } C_{40}[/latex]   carbon atoms. Its different fractions are collected by fractional distillation. This process of purification of petroleum into different fractions is called refining of petroleum.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Separation Of Components Of Mixture Fraction Of Petroleum

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 7. State the procedure of separation by separating funnel.
Answer:

Separation by separating funnel :
(1) Separating Funnel: It is an apparatus used for separating immiscible liquids. The liquids do not mix with each other and due to difference in densities the liquids remain in separate layers in the separatory funnel.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Separation Of Components Of Mixture Separatory Funnel

(2) Procedure :
(1) A mixture of the immiscible liquids is taken in a separatory funnel (with its stopcock closed) and allowed to remain on the stand
(2) The immiscible liquids get separated into two x Water distinct layers, the lighter component forming the upper layer and the denser component the lower g Separatory funnel layer.
(3) A conical flask is placed below the stem of the separatory funnel and the stopcock is carefully opened to run out the denser immiscible layer.
(4) The stopcock is then closed and a new conical flask is placed as before and the femaiing lighter upper iayer is carefully taken out.
Example : Separation of Liquid-Liquid pactres using a separatory funnel.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Question 8. State the different types of mixture giving one example each of homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.
Answer:

Types of mixture Homogeneous Heterogeneous
(1)    Solid in Solid (S in S) Bronze (Mixture of Cu. Zn, Sn) Gunpowder (Charcoal. Sulphur, Nitre)
(2)    Solid in Liquid (S in L) Sugar in water. Iodine in alcohol Sand in water; Sugar in oil
(3) Liquid in Solid (L is S) Hg-Au Amalgam Water m sponge
(4) Liquid in Liquid (L in L) Ethanol or methanol in water acetone in water Oil in water
(5) Gas in Liquid (G in L) Ammonia gas or hydrogen chloride gas in water. Helium in water.
(6)    Liquid in Gas (L in G) Moisture in Air ________
(7)    Gas in Gas (G in G) Air Industrial release of smoke

Question 9. How does boiling point depend on superincumbent pressure ?
Answer:

Dependence of boiling point on superincumbent pressure : The boiling point of a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure exerted on it. It is known that when the vapour pressure of a liquid becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure, the liquid starts to boil. The vapour pressure of a liquid is also proportional to the pressure exerted on it. At low pressure, the liquid boils and evaporates at a lower temperature.

When any components of a solution decompose at normal boiling point (at normal pressure), then separation of the components is made by distillation at reduced pressure, i.e., the components boil below boiling points.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Question 10. State the common separation techniques and their underlying working principles.
Answer:

Common separation techniques and their underlying working principles :

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Separation Of Components Of Mixture types of mixtures techniques and principles

Question 11. Explain the method of separation of the compounds of crude petroleum.
Answer:

Seperation of Components of CrudePetroleum : Crude petroleum contains various hydrocarbon ingredients of close boiling points, the boiling points of these ingredients ranging from <293K to > 573K. These ingredients are collected in 313-443K a range of boiling points using high efficiency

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Separation Of Components Of Mixture Crude Petroleum
Fractionating column, Example:
(1) Natural gas (293K)
(2)Gasolene (293K-333k)
(3) Naptha (313K-453k)
(4)Kerosene (453K-533k)
(5) Diesel (533K-613K)
(6) Lubricating oil (613K-773K).

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power And Energy

Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power And Energy Very Short Answer Type :

Question 1. State the mathematical expression of work done.
Answer: Work = Force x displacement of the point of application in the direction of the force.

W=Fxd
W = Work done;
F = Force acting on body.
d = displacement of the body from the point of application of the force.

Question 2. Define work done by a force.
Answer:

Work done by a force: If the displacement of the point of application of a force takes place in the direction of the force then the force is said to have done the work.

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Question 3. Define work done against a force.
Answer:

Work done against a force: When the displacement of the point of application of a force takes place in the direction opposite to the applied force, then work is said to be done against the force.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 4. What is the practical unit of power?
Answer:

Practical unit: The practical unit of power in both CGS and SI units is Watt.

Question 5. Define watt.
Answer:

Watt: The power of doing 1 erg of work in 1 second is known as 1 watt.

Question 6. Define horsepower.
Answer:

Horse Power (HP): The power to work at the rate of 550 ft-lb per second is called 1 horsepower.

Question 7. Define potential energy.
Answer:

Potential energy: The energy of an object because of its position or shape is called its potential energy.

Question 8. Define Gravitational potential energy.
Answer:

Gravitational Potential energy: The potential energy due to height above the earth’s surface is called gravitational potential energy.

Question 9. Define elastic potential energy.
Answer:

Elastic Potential Energy: When a spring is stretched or compressed from its natural length, it gets extra energy. It can return to its natural length by performing some work. The extra energy stored in a stretched or compressed spring is called its elastic potential energy.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 10. Define Kinetic energy.
Answer:

Kinetic energy: It is the energy by a body by virtue of its motion.

Question 11. What is mechanical energy?
Answer:

Mechanical energy: The sum of the kinetic energy and the potential energy of an object is called its mechanical energy.

Question 12. State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer:

Law of conservation of energy: Energy can not be created or destroyed. Only one form of energy is transformed to another type of energy. The total amount of energy is constant in the universe.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 13. A heavier body and a lighter body are moving with the same velocity. Which of them can do more work?
Answer: A heavier body can do more work.

Question 14. What is the SI unit of energy?
Answer: Joule.

Question 15. What is the SI unit of power?
Answer: Wait.

Question 16. Is energy a scalar or a vector quantity?
Answer: Energy is a scalar quantity.

Question 17. Give an example of a scalar quantity where three fundamental units are used.
Answer: Power.

Question 18. Is work done due to the rotation of the earth around the sun?
Answer: A force does no work in a direction perpendicular to its direction of application. Here no work is done.

Question 19. Does applied force always perform work?
Answer:

No workforce:

(1) If there is no displacement of the point of application of the force.
(2) Again, if any force acts perpendicularly to the direction of the displacement then no work is done.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 20. A man swims in a river against the current water. If he remains fixed with respect to the shore, does he do work with respect to the shore?
Answer: Here work done by the man is zero as his displacement with respect to the shore is zero.

Question 21. Give the expression of gravitational potential energy.
Answer: Gravitational potential energy = mass of the body (m) x acceleration due to gravity (g) x height of the body above the surface of the earth (h).

Question 22. What is the absolute unit of force in the SI system?
Answer: 1 joule.

Question 23. What is power?
Answer: Work done in unit time is called power.

Question 24. What is the relation between power and force?
Answer: Power = force x velocity.

Question 25. What is the energy of a body?
Answer: Energy is defined as the capacity of a body to perform work.

Question 26. Write down the absolute and gravitational SI units of work.
Answer:

The absolute SI unit of work: Joule.

The gravitational SI unit of work: kg-m.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 27. What is the relationship between work and power?
Answer: Work done (W) = Power (P) x Time (t).

Question 28. What is the gravitational SI unit of power?
Answer: The gravitational SI unit of Power: is kg-m/sec.

Question 29. How many kinds of mechanical energy are there?
Answer: Mechanical energy is of two types (1) Potential energy and (2) Kinetic energy.

Question 30. How is work measured?
Answer: Work done (W) = Force (F) x Displacement (S).

Question 31. What is the practical unit of work?
Answer: The practical unit of work is Joule.

Question 32. Give the expression of kinetic energy.
Answer: Kinetic energy = ½ x mass x\(\left(\text { velocity) }{ }^2\right.\)

Question 33. A bullet of mass 10 g travels at 400 m/s velocity. Find its kinetic energy.
Answer:

Kinetic energy = ½ x mass x \(\left(\text { velocity) }{ }^2\right.\)

= ½×10 g×\((40000 \mathrm{~cm})^2\)=800 J.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 34. The power of an engine is 5KW. Find the work done by it in 1 hour.
Answer:

5 KW = 5 x 1000 Watt = 5000 J/s    (∴ 1 watt = 1 d/s)

∴ Work done by the engine in 3600s = (5000 x 3600) J

= 18 x \({10}^6\) J.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 35. How much work is done by a force of 5 N in moving a body through a distance of 2 m in the direction of the force?
Answer:

Here, force (F) = 5 N and displacement (d) = 2 m.

∴ Work done, W = F.d = (5 x 2) J = 10 J.

Question 36. A machine does 2160 joule work in 4 minutes. What is the power of the machine?
Answer:

Here, work done (W) = 2160 J, time taken (t) = 4 minutes = 240 s.

∴ Power of the machine (P)\(=\frac{W}{t}\)=\(\frac{2160 \mathrm{~J}}{240 \mathrm{~s}}\) =  9 watt.

Question 37. A force of 20 N moves a body with a constant velocity of 4 m/s. Calculate the power of the agent.
Answer:

Here, force (F) = 20 N, velocity (v) = 4 m/s.

∴ Power = Force x velocity= (20 x 4) watt = 80 watt.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 38. A 180 kg car engine develops 400 watts for each kg. What force does it exert in moving the car at a speed of 20 m/s?
Answer:

Here, the power of the car engine = (180 x 400) watt = 72000 watts, velocity = 20 m/s.

∴ Power = Force x velocity

∴72000 = Force x 20

∴ Force\(=\frac{72000}{20}\)=3600N

Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power, And Energy 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. When is a work said to be done
(1) by a force and
(2) against a force?
Answer:

(1) When we apply a force on a body at rest and the body is displaced towards the point of application of the force, work is said to be done by the force.

(2) If a heavy body is lifted from the ground and put on the table, then work is done against the force of gravity.

Question 2. What is the relation between Joule and erg?
Answer:

We know that, 1Joule = 1 Newton x 1 metre = \({10}^5\) dynes x \({10}^2\) cm

= \({10}^7\) dynes x cm = \({10}^7\) ergs.

Question 3. Define Mechanical energy. State its different forms.
Answer:

Mechanical energy: The energy possessed by a body due to its: state of rest or motion is called mechanical energy.

It is found in two forms :

(1) The potential energy and
(2) Kinetic energy.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 4. Define potential energy. Explain with examples.
Answer:

Potential energy: The energy that a body possesses by virtue of its position or configuration is called the potential energy of the body.

Example : (1) A wound-up watch spring has potential energy because of the wound-up State of its coils. As the spring unwinds, it does work in moving the hands of the watch.

(2) The water placed at a height has the potential energy stored in it and if it is allowed to fall, the falling water can do work like turning a wheel.

Question 5. What is gravitational potential energy? How is it measured?
Answer:

The gravitational potential energy of a body at a height above the ground is measured by the amount of work done in lifting it up to that height against the force of gravity.

If a body of mass (m) is lifted from the ground to a vertical height (h), then the gravitational potential energy = Force (mg) x displacement (h). Or, Potential energy = mgh.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 6. What is the difference between Power and Energy?
Answer:

The power of a body is the work that it can perform in a unit of time. Energy is the total work that the body can do. The S.I. unit of power is 1 Watt while the S.I. unit of energy is 1 Joule. Power and energy both are scalar quantities.

Question 7. A boy weighing 300 N runs up a flight of 30 steps of a staircase each 20 cm high. Calculate the work done.
Answer:

The distance traveled by the boy = 30 x 20 cm = 600 cm=6m. Work done = Force x distance = 300 Nx 6 m= 1800 J.

Question 8. A boy of mass 50 kg runs up flights of 30 steps each 20 cm high in 10 seconds. Find
(1) The work done by the boy
(2) The power developed. (g =9.8 m/\(\sec ^2\) ).
Answer:

The force of gravity on the boy F = mg = 50 x 9.8 = 490 N.

(1) Work done by the boy in climbing = Force x distance

= 490 x 6 = 2940 J.

(2) Power developed \(=\frac{\text { Work done }}{\text { time taken }}\)=\(\frac{2940}{10}\)=294 watt.

Question 9. A man rowing a boat upstream is at rest with respect to the shore. Is he doing any work?
Answer:

The water current is acting a force on the boat opposite to the motion. The man rowing the boat applies an equal amount of force to proceed. Here there is no displacement of the point of application of force. Hence, no work is done.

Question 10. Calculate the kinetic energy of a body of mass 6 kg moving with a speed of 10 m/\(\sec ^2\).
Answer:

The mass of the body m = 6 kg, velocity v = 10 m/\(\sec ^2\)

Therefore, Kinetic energy  \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\) = ½x 6 x \((10)^2\) = 300J.

Question 11. A man is moving with a box along a horizontal plane from one place to another. Is he doing any work?
Answer:

No work is done by the man because the point of application of the force does not change by carrying the box from one place to another place. Also the vertical component of the weight in the horizontal direction is zero.

Question 12. How is the kinetic energy of a moving truck affected if
(1) Its mass is doubled
(2) Its velocity is doubled?
Answer:

The kinetic energy \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)

(1) If the mass m is doubled (keeping the velocity same), the kinetic energy is doubled.
(2) If the velocity is doubled (keeping the mass the same); the kinetic energy increases four times.

Question 13. State an unbalanced force and indicate the direction and the work it does.
Answer: Two unequal oppositely directed forces acting on a body create an unbalanced force which is equal to the difference between the forces. The unbalanced force causes displacement and work on the body in the direction of the greater force.

Question 14. Are watt and watt-hour the same physical quantities? Explain.
Answer:

Watt and watt-hour are not the same physical quantities. Watt, which means 1 Joule/s is the unit of power, i.e., work done per unit of time, but watt-hour (work/time x time) equals to work or energy. 1 watt-hour is the work performed by a machine or an agent that works at the rate of 1 Joule per second.

Question 15. If an agent does a large amount of work, does it always mean that the agent possesses large power?
Answer:

Only the magnitude of work performed does not clearly indicate the power of anybody. If the time in which the work is performed is mentioned, it gives the idea of power clearly. A large quantity of work done, but in a long time, results to a small power but a smaller quantity of work done in a very short period of time results in a greater power.

Question 16. Define energy. Why is the unit of energy the same as that of work?
Answer:

Energy is something that can produce mechanical work directly or after some intermediate transformation.

When some work is done on a system or on a body to change its position, shape, or configuration, some energy is stored in the body. If the body returns to its original shape, the same amount of work is released from it.

So, the energy possessed by a body or a system is measured by the quantity of mechanical work actually obtained or obtainable from it. Hence, the unit of energy is same as that of work.

Question 17. Establish the relation between power, force, and velocity.
Answer:

Relation between power, force, and velocity :

⇒ \(\text { Power }=\frac{\text { Work }}{\text { time }}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{\text { force } \times \text { displacement }}{\text { time }}\)

⇒ \(=\text { force } \times \frac{\text { displacement }}{\text { time }}\)

= force x velocity

∴Power = force x velocity

Question 18. A particle starting from rest acquires kinetic energy ‘E’ in time t and its momentum is p. Find its acceleration in terms of E, p, and t.
Answer: Let the acceleration be f, velocity acquired in time ‘t’ be v and the mass of the body be m.

∴ f\(=\frac{v-0}{t}\) or f\(=\frac{v}{t}\). Again, E\(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)

or 2E\(=m v^2\)=mv.v=p.v.=p.ft

( ∴The body moves from rest, its initial velocity, u = 0, hence, from the relation, v = u +ft, v =ft).

Question 19. Find the kinetic energy (K.E.) of a particle of mass ‘m’ gram and momentum ‘p’ g-cm/s in terms of ‘m’ and ‘p’.
Answer:

Let the particle move with velocity v cm/s.

KE\(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)erg

\(=\frac{1}{2} \frac{m^2}{m} v^2\)erg

\(=\frac{1}{2 m}(m v)^2\)erg

\(=\frac{p^2}{2 m}\)erg. This is the required relation.

Question 20. The momentum of a heavy body is equal to that of a light body. Which of the two possesses greater kinetic energy?
Answer:

Let the mass of the heavy body be M and its velocity be V. The corresponding quantities of the light body are m and v. So, by the given condition, MV = mv. Since M is greater than m, so v must be proportionally greater than V, to keep equality between MV and mv.

Now, if mv is multiplied with the larger quantity v and MV with the smaller quantity V, the first product, mv. v will be larger than the second product MV. V.

Hence, mv.v >MV.V, or \(\frac{1}{2} m v^2>\frac{1}{2} M v^2\)

This means the kinetic energy of the light body > kinetic energy of the heavy body.

Question 21. Can a body possess energy without momentum? Is the reverse possible?
Answer: A body remaining motionless at a certain position other than its normal position on the surface of the earth may have potential energy but it is without momentum. The body also has no kinetic energy.

In the reverse case, if the body has momentum, it must have velocity and thus kinetic energy, hence momentum without kinetic energy is not possible. Of course, the body may have momentum without potential energy if it confines its motion on the surface of the earth.

Question 22. If a constant force acts on a body, prove that the power of the body is directly proportional to its velocity.
Answer: We know, power \(=\frac{\text { Work }}{\text { time }}\)=\(\frac{\text { force } \times \text { displacement }}{\text { time }}\)

\(=\text { force } \times \frac{\text { displaceme } n t}{\text { time }}\)= force × velocity.

∴ Power = force x velocity. If force is constant, power α velocity.

Question 23. Show that the law of conservation of energy is not violated in machines.
Answer:

It must not be misunderstood that a machine violates the law of conservation of energy since it overcomes a force or resistance. The work done by the force applied to the machine is always equal to the sum of the work done by the machine and the work performed to overcome the resistive frictional forces existing at different moving parts of the machine.

Question 24. In a flat race, the competitor coming first has more power than the other coming second, though both of them have the same weight. Why?
Answer:

Since the body weights of both the competitors are equal and also since they have covered equal distances in the race, the two have done equal work. Now, the competitor coming first has done the same work in a bit shorter time than that taken by the second competitor. Hence, the power of the competitor coming first is more than that of the second competitor.

Question 25. Why is it easier to climb a hill by a sloping way than along a steep way?
Answer:

A sloping segment of a road cut on the surface of a hill may be considered as an inclined plane. Now, the effort needed to raise some weight to a certain height with the help of an inclined plane is less than that when the weight is tried to be raised to the same height vertically up. For this reason, it is easier to climb a hill by a sloping way than to do the same along a steep way.

Thus a weight is raised or someone may walk up to a certain height on a hill along a sloping path with greater ease than following a steep vertical path to do the same. In fact, the work done in some steps, when the curve path is followed, is the same as that done along a steep path for the same purpose.

Question 26. In nature, any system tends to be in a position where it possesses minimum energy. Explain with an example.
Answer:

Explanation: In nature, a system tends to be in such a position or state so that it possesses minimum potential or kinetic energy. For this reason, a body possessing some potential energy tends to shift to another position or state to minimize its energy.

Example: A lifted body seeks the ground level where the potential energy of anybody is zero with respect to that level.

Question 27. What is a kilowatt? What is the relation between Horsepower and kilowatt?
Answer:

Kilowatt is a bigger unit of power in the absolute system of power.

1 kilowatt = 1000 watt.

1 H.P. = 746 Joule/sec. = 746 watt.

Now, 746 watt \(=\frac{746}{1000}\)

= 0.746 kilowatt.

Question 28. In which of the following cases work is being done?
(1) A boy carrying a bag on his head and moving on a frictionless surface.
(2) A boy climbing up a staircase.
(3) A boy pushing a wall.
(4) A boy is standing with a load of 10 kg on his head.
Answer:

(2) A boy climbing up a staircase.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 29. What is the transformability of energy?
Answer:

Energy may transform from one form to different forms. Every form of energy ultimately transforms to heat energy, directly or after some intermediate transformation. If we rub our palms together, they are warmed. In this case, the mechanical energy expended in rubbing transforms to heat energy.

Question 30. What is the practical unit of work in SI system? Define it.
Answer:

The practical unit of work in SI system is the joule.

Definition of Joule: When 1 Newton force is applied on a body and if the displacement of the body be 1 meter in the direction of force, the work done is 1 Joule.

Question 31. What is the relation between Work and Power?
Answer:

If w work is done by a body or a system in time t, then the power P of the body or

The system is given by,P\(=\frac{W}{t}\)

Question 32. Find the mass in grams which is equivalent to 5.4 megajoules of energy. 
Answer: E = 5.4 megajoule = 5.4 x \({10}^6\) x \({10}^7\)ergs. Now, from Einstein’s equation E \(=\mathrm{mc}^2\) or,

m\(=\frac{E}{c^2}\)\(=\frac{5.4 \times 10^{13}}{\left(3 \times 10^{10}\right)^2}\)=\(\frac{5.4 \times 10^{13}}{9 \times 10^2}\)

=6×\({10}^{-8}\)

So, the required mass is 6 x\({10}^{-8}\)  grams.

Question 33. A man carrying a bag stands in an ascending lift. Explain
(1) Does the man do work on the bag
(2) Is there any change of energy occurring in the bag?
Answer:

Explanation

(1) Since the weight does not displace with respect to the man, so the man does not do any work on it.

(2) The height of the weight from the ground gradually increases, so its potential energy increases. Also, the weight moves upward with the same velocity as that of the lift, so it has kinetic energy.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 34. Is work done when the Earth moves around the sun?
Answer:

Explanation: The centripetal force (the force with which the sun attracts the earth) of the sun on the earth does no work since the direction of displacement of the earth at every point of its orbit is perpendicular to it. So, it is a no-work force.

Question 35. In a tug of war, one team wins over the other. Which team does work and how?
Answer:

Explanation: In a tug of war the winning team works against the force applied by the losing team who are displaced through some distance.

Question 36. A moving object suddenly comes to rest. Which energy converts to which energy in this case?
Answer:

In moving conditions, the body possesses kinetic energy. When it stops, the kinetic energy is expended in doing mechanical work against the opposing forces which stop the body.

Question 37. A man carrying a briefcase in hand walks on. a flat horizontal surface. Does he do work?
Answer:

Reason: The man does not do work on the briefcase. Because, as the man holds the briefcase in hand, he exerts a force on it vertically upwards but the briefcase is made to move horizontally. So, the force and its point of application are perpendicular to each other, i.e., no work is done.

Question 38. Is any work done when someone pushes against a heavy immovable object? Or, A large stone did not move in spite of pushing hard. Is any work done? Is any energy spent? Explain. 
Answer:

As there is no displacement of the object (stone), no useful work is done on the object. But the work done by our body is not zero. Energy is lost in straining our muscles and moving blood to these strained muscles.

Question 39. A boy holds a stone in his outstretched hand. Is he doing any work?
Answer:

As the boy as well as the stone is at a position of rest, no useful work is done by the boy. But to hold the stone against the force of gravity, the boy is to spend some energy. The muscles in the hand are being stretched to hold the load. So, a change in shape takes place. Then blood is pumped to the stretched muscles. As a result, energy is spent.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 40. A car is moving with uniform velocity. Is the engine or the car doing any work under this condition?
Answer:

The engine of the car is to do work to overcome the frictional force of the ground. No useful work is done.

Question 41. Two boys of the same mass climb to the top of a hill in one hour and two hours respectively. Compare :
(1) the work done by the boys against the gravitational force due to the Earth 
(2) the power of the two boys.
Answer:

(1) The work done by each of the two boys for climbing the hill will be the same because work done against the earth’s gravity is mgh. (Here m and h for the boys are the same).

(2) The power of the boy who climbs in one hour will be double of that of the boy who climbs in two hours.

Question 42. Deduce the relation between joule and erg.
Answer:

Relation between joule and erg : 1 joule = 1 Newton x 1 metre

= \({10}^5\)dyne x 100 cm

= (\({10}^5\) x \({10}^2\)) dyne-cm

=\({10}^7\)

1 joule = \({10}^7\) erg.

Question 43. What is a no-work force? Give an example.
Answer:

No-work force: When a force acts perpendicular to the direction of displacement of a particle, then the force does not do any work and is known as a no-work force.

Example: A porter while carrying luggage does no work since he moves horizontally and perpendicular to the force of gravity. The porter, of course, did work at the beginning while he lifted the luggage against gravity.

Question 44. What do you understand by ‘work done against a force’? Give one example.
Answer:

Work done against a force: When the displacement of the point of application of the force takes place in the direction opposite to the applied force, then work is said to be done against the force.

Example: When a body is lifted vertically upwards, displacement of the body is in the direction opposite to the gravitational force, and work is done against the gravitational force.

Question 45. What do you understand by ‘work done by a force’? Give one example.
Answer:

Work done by a force: If the displacement of the point of application of the force takes place in the direction of the force then the force is said to have done the work.

Example: When a body is dropped vertically the gravitational force attracts it downward. The displacement of the body takes place in the direction of the gravitational force. Her work is done by the gravitational force.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 46. Show with an example that work is done by overcoming some resistive force.
Answer:

When a body lying on a surface is pushed, it moves to overcome the opposing frictional force. Here the body when moving, does some work by overcoming the frictional force offered by the surface.

Question 47. Will work be done by the applied force in all cases?
Answer:

No, work will not be done in all cases. Some conditions are given below: No workforce:

(1) If there is no displacement of the point of application of the force, then the force is called a no workforce.

(2) Again, if any force acts perpendicularly in the direction of the displacement, then the force does not do any work. Because in this case θ= 90° and cos 90° = 0.

Question 48. Define work.
Answer:

Work: Work is said to be done when the point of application of a force moves and is measured by the product of the force and the distance moved in the direction of the force.

Question 49. How is work measured?
Answer:

Measurement of work:

(1) If the force F acts on a body and causes a displacement S, then the amount of work done (w)=FxS.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power And Energy Measure of the work

(2) If the direction of displacement makes an angle with the direction of the applied force, then the component of the force along the direction of displacement will be F cosθ. So, work done (w) = F cosθ. S = FS cosθ
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power And Energy Displacement of direction

Question 50. Express the kinetic energy of a body in terms of momentum and velocity.
Answer:

Kinetic energy: Kinetic energy is the energy that a body possesses by reason of its motion.

kinetic energy(KE)\(=\frac{1}{2} \times m \times v^2\)  (m=mass of the body)

∴ KE\(=\frac{1}{2} m v \cdot v\) ,   (v= velocity of the moving body)

⇒ \(=\frac{1}{2} p \cdot v\)    (p=mv= momentum of the body)

So, kinetic energy =½  x momentum x velocity.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 51. A particle starting from rest requires kinetic energy ‘E’ in time ‘t’ and its momentum is ‘p’. Find its acceleration in terms of E, p, and t.
Answer:

Deduction: Let acceleration be f, velocity acquired in time t be v, and mass of the body be m.

∴f\(=\frac{v-0}{t}\)   or ,\(f=\frac{V}{t}\)       or, r=ft

Again,E\(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)      or,2E=\(m v^2\)=mv.v=p.v=pft

∴ \(f\)=\(\frac{2 E}{p t}\)This is the required relation.

Question 52. What is potential energy? Write down a mathematical expression for the potential energy of a certain mass raised to a certain height above ground.
Answer:

Potential energy: Potential energy is the energy that a body possesses by virtue of its position of configuration.

Calculation: The weight of the body of mass ‘m’ is mg, where ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity at the place. To raise the body, an upward. force mg has to be applied to it. If it is raised to ‘h’ distance above,

work done = mg x h (Force x displacement)

∴ work done = mgh.

This work remains stored in the body as potential energy.

Question 53. Which energy converts to which other when the spring in a toy is compressed?
Answer:

While the spring of a toy is brought to a compressed condition, mechanical energy is expended. This energy remains stored in the spring as potential energy is created due to changes in the configuration of different parts of the spring.

Question 54. A machine does 1920 J of work in 240 s. What is the power of the machine?
Answer:

Given, W = 1920 J; time, t = 240 s.

∴ Power\(=\frac{w}{t}\)=\(\frac{1920}{240}\)=8W.

Question 55. An electric bulb consumes 3600 J of energy in one minute. Calculate its power.
Answer:

Given, Energy = 3600 J; time, t = 1 min = 60 s.

Power of the bulb \(=\frac{E}{t}\)=\(\frac{3600}{60}\)=60W.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 56. A force of 10 N moves a body with a constant velocity of 2 m\({s}^{-1}\). Calculate the power of the body.
Answer:

Given, F = 10 N; V = 2 m\({s}^{-1}\)

Now powerP\(=\frac{w}{t}\)\(=\frac{F s}{t}\)=\(f \times \frac{s}{t}\)=Fv=10×2=20w.

Question 57. A car and a truck have the same speed of 30 m\({s}^{-1}\). If their masses are in the ratio of 1 : 3, find the ratio of their kinetic energies.
Answer:

Given \(v_1\)\(=v_2\) = 30 m\({s}^{-1}\); \(m_1\)\(=m_2\) = 1: 3.

∴\(\frac{\mathrm{KE} \text { of car }}{\mathrm{KE} \text { of truck }}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{\frac{1}{2} m_1 v_1^2}{\frac{1}{2} m_2 v_2^2}\)\(=\frac{m_1}{m_2}\)=\(\frac{1}{3}\).

Question 58. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with a speed of 20 m\({s}^{-1}\). Find its kinetic energy
Answer:

Given, m=2kg;  v=20m\({s}^{-1}\).

K.E=\(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)\(=\frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times(20)^2\)=400J.

Question 59. A force is applied on a car of mass 1500 kg so that its speed increases from 54 km\({h}^{-1}\) to 72 km\({h}^{-1}\). Find the work done by the force on the car.
Answer:

Given, m = 1500 kg;  u = 54 km\({h}^{-1}\) \(=54 \times \frac{5}{18}\)  = 15 m\({s}^{-1}\)

v=72Km\({h}^{-1}\)\(=72 \times \frac{5}{18}\)=20m\({s}^{-1}\)

∴ Work done by the force,W\(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2-\frac{1}{2} m u^2\)=\(\frac{1}{2} m\left(v^2-u^2\right)\)

⇒ \(=\frac{1}{2} \times 1500\left(20^2-15^2\right)\)=1.3×\(10^{5}\)J.

Question 60. A moving body of mass 15 kg has 60 J of kinetic energy. Calculate its speed
Answer:

m=15kg;  \(E_k\)=60 J

EK\(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)or,\(v^2=\frac{2 E_K}{m}\)\(=\frac{2 \times 60}{15}\)=8

∴V=2.83 m\({s}^{-1}\)

Question 61. A rifle bullet of mass 15 g is traveling at a speed of 300 meters/sec. Find the kinetic energy of the bullet.
Answer:

Kinetic energy = ½ x mass x \((\text { velocity })^2\)

⇒ \(=\frac{1}{2} \times m \times v^2\),  m=15,g=0.015 kg

⇒ \(=\frac{1}{2} \times 0.015 \times(300)^2\), v=300 m/sec

= 675 joules KE =?

Question 62. The power of a motor car is 10 kW. What is the amount of work done by the car in 1hr?
Answer:

Power of the car = 10 kW = 10 x \(10^{3}\) J/sec.

∴ work done by the car in 1 hr

= 10 x\(10^{3}\)  x 3600 J

=3.6 x \(10^{7 }\)J , 1 hr = 60 x 60 =3600 sec

= 3.6 x \(10^{7}\)J, 1 kW = \(10^{3}\) W

Question 63. If 150-joule work is done for the displacement of 15 m of a body, calculate the amount of force applied here.
Answer:

Work is done here = 150 joule

displacement =50 m.

We know ,applied force\(=\frac{\text { Work done }}{\text { displacement }}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{150}{50}\)=30 Newton.

Question 64. If 10 Newton force is applied on a body then 5 m displacement of the body occurs towards the direction of the force. What will be the work done?
Answer:

We know, Work done = Force x displacement

= 10 x 5 Newton−meter

= 50 joules.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 65. If 100 g mass of a body is dropped from 80 cm high place then calculate the amount of potential. the energy lost during this process.
Answer:

Amount of potential energy lost =m x g xh

= 0.1 x 9.8 x 0.8 joule,  m = 100g = 0.1 kg

= 0.784 joule, g = 9.8 m/\({sec}^{2}\)

h=80cm=0.8m

Question 66. The power of a machine is 40 W. What is the amount of work done by the machine in 30 sec?
Answer:

The power of the machine = 40 W.

= 40 joule/sec.

∴Work done by the machine

= (40 x 30) joule

= 1200 joule.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 67. A man carries a bag of 20 g weight. Calculate the work he does when he moves 25 cm in
(1) Horizontal direction and
(2) Vertical upward direction.

Answer:

(1) In this case the man does not do any work since the displacement of the bag is perpendicular to the force of gravity.

(2) Work = force x displacement = 20 g-wt x 25 cm

= 500 gram-centimeter = (500 x 980) erg

= 49 x \(10^{4}\)erg. (g is taken as 980 cm/\({s}^{2}\))

Question 68. A man weighs 40 kg-wt and climbs a staircase 20 m high. If he takes 16 seconds to go to the top of the staircase find
(1) The work the man performs and
(2) His power (Given g = 9.8 m/\(\left.s^2\right)\)
Answer:

(1) Work the man performs = force x displacement

= 40 kg-wt x 20 m = 800 kg-m

= 800 x9.8N-m  or, J = 7840 J.

(2)Power of the man\(=\frac{\text { work he performed }}{\text { time taken }}\)

=\(\frac{7840 \mathrm{~J}}{16 \mathrm{~s}}\)

=490 Watt.

Question 69. A group can lift 1000 liters of water per hour to a height 10 m. Find the work done by the pump and also its power. (1 litre of water has a mass 1 kg)
Answer:

Work done by the pump = weight of water x height to which it is raised.

= 1000 kg-wt x 10m = 104 kg-m = 104 x 9.8 J.

Power\(=\frac{\text { work done }}{\text { time of work }}\)

=\(\frac{10^4 \times 9.8 \mathrm{~J}}{3600 \mathrm{~s}}\)

=27.22 J/s (approx)

=27.22 Watt.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 70. A porter lifts a box of 20 kg from the ground and puts it on his head 1.2 m above the ground. Calculate the work done by him on the box. (Take g = 9.8 m/\({s}^{2}\)).
Answer:

Mass of the box (m) = 20 kg, displacement (d) = 1.2 m.

∴ Work done, W = F.d = mg.d = 20 x 9.8 x 1.2 J = 235.2 J.

Question 71. A man weighing 60 kg runs up a staircase having 30 steps each of 0.2 m in 30 s. Calculate his power. (Given, g = 10/s)
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 60 kg,  height raised (h) = (30  0.2)m = 6 m, time taken (t) = 30s.

∴ Power\(=\frac{\text { work done }}{\text { time taken }}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{\text { Force }(\mathrm{mg}) \times \text { displacement }(\mathrm{h})}{\text { time taken }(\mathrm{t})}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{60 \times 10 \times 6 \mathrm{~J}}{30 \mathrm{~s}}\)

=120 Watt.

Question 72. Find the potential energy of a body of mass 5 kg kept at a height of 10 m if acceleration due to gravity at that place is 9.8 m/s.
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 5 kg, acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/\(s^2\) and height (h)=10m.

∴Potential energy of the body \(\left(E_p\right)\) = mgh =5 x 9.8 x 10 J = 490 J.

∴ The required potential energy = 490 J

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 73. A bag of rice weighs 100 kg. To what height should it be raised so that its essential energy becomes 4900 J ? (Given g = 9.8 m/\(s^2\))
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 100 kg,

acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m\(s^2\),

Potential energy \(\left(E_p\right)\)=4900J

because \(\left(E_p\right)\)=mgh

h\(=\frac{E_p}{m g}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{4900}{100 \times 9.8}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{4900}{980}\)  m=5m

∴The bag should be raised to a height of 5 m.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 74. A body of mass 1 kg is moving with a speed of 40 m/s. Calculate its kinetic energy.
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 1 kg, Speed (v) = 40 m/s

∴ Kinetic energy \(\left(E_K\right)\) \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)

⇒ \(=\frac{1}{2} \times 1 \times(40)^2\)

=800 J

The kinetic energy of the body = 800 J.

Question 75. A moving body of mass 50 kg has 400 J kinetic energy. Calculate its velocity
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 50 kg,   Kinetic energy\(\left(E_K\right)\) = 400 J.

because \(\left(E_K\right)\)\(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\) or,

v\(=\sqrt{\frac{2 E_k}{m}}\)

∴ velocity of the body\(=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 400}{50}}\)

=4 m/s.

Question 76. A car and a bus have equal speed. If their masses are in the ratio 2 : 3, find the ratio of their kinetic energies.
Answer:

Given, \(v_1\)=\(v_2\) and \(\frac{m_1}{m_2}\)=\(\frac{2}{3}\)

∴\(\frac{\text { Kinetic energy of the car }\left(E_1\right)}{\text { Kinetic energy of the bus }\left(E_2\right)}\)

⇒ \(=\frac{\frac{1}{2} m_1 v_1^2}{\frac{1}{2} m_2 v_2^2}\)=\(\frac{m_1}{m_2}\)

∴(\(v_1=v_2\)) \(=\frac{2}{3}\)

∴  The ratio of their kinetic energies = 2 : 3.

Question 77. A state bus of mass 8,000 kg is moving with a velocity of 54 km/h. Calculate the work done to stop this bus.
Answer:

Here, mass (m) = 8000 kg

velocity (v) = 54 Km/h \(=\left(54 \times \frac{5}{18}\right)\)m/s= 15m/s.

∴ Work done to stop the bus = Change in kinetic energy of the bus

⇒ \(=\left(\frac{1}{2} m v^2-0\right)\)

⇒  \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)

⇒  \(\frac{1}{2} \times 8000 \times(15)^2\) J

= 900000 J

= 9×\(10^5\) J.

∴ Required work done to stop the bus = 9 x \(10^5\)  J.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power And Energy 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. Define work. How is it measured?
Answer:

Work: Work is said to be done only when the force applied to a body makes the body to move. Or, If the position of a body is changed by the application of a force on it, then work is said to be done by the force.

The amount of work done depends upon :

(1) The magnitude and direction of the force
(2) The displacement of the body produced by the force.

The work done by a force is measured by

Work = Force x displacement of the point of application in the direction of the force.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power And Energy work

If a force F displaces a body from position A to position B in the direction of the force, then the displacement by the force AB = d and the work done W =F xd.

Question 2. A body is acted upon by a force. State the conditions when the work done is zero.
Answer:

If a force acts on a body and the body does not move, no work is done.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power And Energy Forces acted upon a body

Let a force F is acting on a body along AB and its displaces the body such that the point of application of the force moves from A to C. The displacement AC = d makes an angle ¢
to the direction of the force.

Then, AB=AC or, cosθ= d cosθ.

Hence, work done = F x AB =F x dcos9.

Now, we consider two cases :

(1) If θ= 90° , then cos 90° = 0. Hence, work done = 0.

That is, if ‘the displacement is normal to the direction of force, work done is zero.

(2) If θ = 0° , then cos 0° = 1. Hence, work done = F x d.

Thus, work done is positive and maximum if the displacement is in the direction of force.

(3) If the displacement is in a direction opposite to the force, i.e.,

θ = 180°, then cos 180° =−1. Work done =− F x d.

Hence, the work done is negative.

Question 3. State and define the units of work.
Answer:

Joule: One Joule of work is said to be done when a force of 1 Newton displaces a body through 1 meter in its own direction.

Hence, 1 Joule = 1 Newton x 1 meter.

The bigger units of work are Kilo Joule (KJ) and Mega Joule 2 (MJ):

Where 1 KJ = \(10^3\) J and 1 MJ = \(10^3\) J.

The C.G.S. unit of work is the erg.

Erg: One erg of work is said to be done when a force of 1 dyne a body through 1 cm in its own direction.

Hence, 1 erg = 1 dyne x 1 cm.

Question 4. Define power. How is it measured
Answer:

Power: The rate of change of doing work is called Power. Power is measured as the amount of work done in one second.

Thus, Power P \(=\frac{\text { Work done }}{\text { time taken }}\) or,P\(=\frac{W}{t}\)

Since, work done W = F x d

∴  Power\(=\frac{W}{t}\)\(=\frac{W \times d}{t}\)=F
×v (where, v=d/t)

Thus, Power = Force x average velocity

Power is a scalar quantity.

Question 5. State and define the units of power. Find the relation between them.
Answer: The S.I. unit of power is Watt.

Watt: If one joule of work is done in one second, then power is said to be 1 watt.

1 Watt \(=\frac{1 \text { Joule }}{1 \text { second }}\) 1= J/sec

The bigger units of power are Kilowatts (KJ) and Megawatts (MJ).

1 kilowatt (KW) = \(10^3\) W and 1 megawatt (MW) = \(10^6\) W.

The C.G.S. unit of power is erg per second.

Relation between S.I unit and C.G.S. units of power: 1 Watt = 1 J/sec = \(10^7\) ergs/sec.

Question 6. Define energy. State its units.
Answer:

Energy: The energy of a body is the capacity to do work.

Energy is a scalar quantity.

The units of energy are the same as that of work.

The S.1. unit of energy is Joule (J) and its C.G.S. unit is erg.

The bigger units of energy are watt-hours (Wh) and kilowatt-hours (kWh).

1 watt-hour = 1 watt x 1 hour

= 1 J/sec x 3600 sec = 3600 J.

1 Kilo watt hour = 1000 x 3600 J = 3.6 X \(10^6\) J.

Question 7. How is kinetic energy measured?
Answer:

The kinetic energy of a body:

= work done by the retarding force to stop the body

= Force (F) x displacement (s)

or, K.E.=F× s…………………..(1)

From the equation of motion,\(v^2\)=\(u^2+2 f s\)

Since, final velocity v= 0, hence   0=\(u^2+2 f s\)  (f   is retardation)

or, s\(=\frac{u^2}{2 f}\)………….(2) and

Force F= m.f ……………(3)

Now, substituting the values of s and F in relation (1), we get

KE. = Fx s

= m.f ×\(\frac{U^2}{2 f}\)=\(\frac{1}{2} m u^2\)

Hence K. E. \(=\frac{1}{2} \text { mass } \times(\text { velocity })^2\).

Question 8. Explain that potential energy changes into kinetic energy when it is put into use.
Answer:

Potential energy changes to kinetic energy which does work as is explained in the following examples:

(1) A stretched bow has potential energy because of its stretched position. On releasing the bow, the potential energy changes into kinetic energy which works on the arrow and makes it move.

(2) A hydroelectric power station converts the potential energy of falling water into kinetic energy and thus generates electricity. A hydroelectric power station uses water that is stored in a reservoir behind a dam at a certain height. The water is allowed to fall through a tunnel or pipe to the plant’s water turbine. The kinetic energy stored in the falling water spins the turbine shaft, which drives the electric generator.

Question 9. Show that the total sum of potential energy and kinetic energy of a freely falling body under gravity is constant. 
Answer:

Let a body of mass m fall freely under gravity from a height h above the ground.

At the top, kinetic energy =0 (since the body is at rest), and the potential energy = mgh.

Hence, the total energy at the top height = 0 + mgh = mgh.

After falling a height of h, let the velocity of the body at the bottom be, say, v.

Hence, by the equation of motion,

⇒ \(v^2\)=\(u^2+2 g h\)

Since u = 0   at the top, \(v^2\)=0+2 g h= 2gh……… (1)

At the bottom, potential energy = 0,

and the kinetic energy \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\)

⇒ \(=\frac{1}{2} m \times 2 g h\)= mgh.   (from ……..1)

Total energy at the bottom = 0 + mgh = mgh.

During fall, at every point, the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy remains = mgh. Thus, the total mechanical energy (sum of potential energy and kinetic energy) always remains constant at each point of motion and it is equal to mgh.

Question 10. State the differences between potential energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

(1) The Potential energy of a body is the energy that the body possesses by virtue of its position while kinetic energy is the energy it gains by virtue of its motion.

(2) Potential energy and kinetic energy are both scalar quantities and measured in the same unit.

(3) Potential energy = mgh, where m is the mass of the body and h is the height of the body.

Kinetic energy \(=\frac{1}{2} m v^2\) , where v is the velocity of the body.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 11.
(1) What is meant by work? Define work.
(2) How is it measured?
(3) Is work a vector or scalar quantity?
(4) Find out the dimension of work.
Answer:

(1) Meaning of work : The term ‘work’ is restricted to those types of activities in which a force acting on a body causes change of position, change of velocity, change of shape, etc. in the body. Thus, when a man carries luggage or a horse pulls a carriage or a laborer draws water from a well, each of them does some work.

Definition of work: Work is said to be done by a force when it succeeds in moving the body it acts upon, i.e., when there is displacement of a body by the action of a force.

(2) Measurement of work :
The amount of work done by a force when it acts on a body is measured by the product of the magnitude of the force and the displacement of its point of application.

Let a body be displaced from position A to position B in the horizontal direction by a force ‘P’. This displacement will be AB = S in the direction of the force.
Work (W) done by the force = applied force (F) x displacement (S), i.e., W = F x S.

(3) Work is a scalar quantity: Work is expressed by W = F x S. As FS is the product of two vectors quantities, (force and displacement) work is a scalar quantity. Thus, if a force of 5N acting towards the east displaces a body through a distance of s in the east, it does exactly the same amount of work as a 5 N force acting towards the north displaces a body through a distance of s in the north.

(4) Dimension of work : Work = Force x Distance’= (Mass x Acceleration) x (Distance)

⇒ \(=\left(\text { mass } \times \frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }^2}\right) \times(\text { Distance })\)

⇒ \(=\left(M \cdot \frac{L}{T^2}\right)(L)\)

⇒ \(=\left[M^1 L^2 T^{-2}\right]\)

So, the dimensions of work are 1, 2, and -2 in mass, length, and time respectively.

Question 12. (1) State and define the absolute units of power in C.G.S. and S.I. systems. Or The units of which physical quantity are erg-second and watt? Define them. Or, Define the SI unit of power.
(2) State the relationship between the S.I. and C.G.S. units of power.
Answer:

(1) Absolute unit of power in C.G.S. system: The absolute unit of power in the C.G.S. system is erg per second (erg \(s^{-1}\)). It is defined as the rate of doing one erg of work per second.

Absolute unit of power in M. K S. (or S.1.) system: The absolute unit of power in the M.K.S. (or S.I.) system is watt and is abbreviated as w. If one joule of work is done in 1 second, the power is said to be 1 watt.

(2) Relationship between the S.I. unit and C.G.S. unit :

1 watt=1 joule \(s^{-1}\),  since 1 joule =\(10^{7}\)

=\(10^{7}\) erg \(s^{-1}\).

Question 13. A piece of stone is allowed to fall from the top of a house without applying any force. What type of energy is there in the stone
(1) When it is not dropped?
(2) When it comes down but remains at some height above the ground?
(3) Just before it touches the ground?
(4) When it falls to the ground?
Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:

When a body is raised it performs some work against gravitational force. This work is stored in the body as gravitational potential energy.

(1) Now when the body is not dropped it contains only potential energy, but no kinetic energy. This is because with respect to the ground the body is at a higher position.

(2) In this position the body possesses both kinetic and potential energy, sum total of which is equal to the amount of energy when it was on the roof.

(3) Just before touching the ground, the body possesses only kinetic energy.

(4) When the body strikes the ground, its kinetic energy is lost in the form of sound energy, heat energy, etc.

Question 14. Two bodies of unequal masses have the same kinetic energy. How do their momenta compare in terms of their masses?
Answer:

Explanation: Let masses of the bodies \(m_1 \text { and } m_2\) be and their corresponding velocities be \(v_1 \text { and } v_2\)

⇒ \(\frac{1}{2} m_1 v_1^2\)=\(\frac{1}{2} m^2 v_2^2\)

or, \(\frac{m_1^2}{m_1} v_1^2\)=\(\frac{m_2^2}{m^2} v_2^2\)

or, \(\left(\frac{m_1 v_1}{m_2 v_2}\right)\)=\(\frac{m_1}{m_2}\)

or, \(\frac{p_1}{p_2}\)=\(\frac{\sqrt{m_1}}{\sqrt{m_2}}\)

Thus, the momenta of the two bodies are directly proportional to the square root of their corresponding masses.

Question 15. A heavy body and a light body have equal kinetic energy; which of them possesses greater momentum?
Answer:

Explanation: Let the mass of the heavier body be \(\mathrm{m}_1\)and that of the lighter body be \(\mathrm{m}_2\) also let the velocity of the heavier body be \(\mathrm{v}_1\) and that of the lighter body be \(\mathrm{v}_2\).

∴ \(\frac{1}{2} m_1 v_1^2\)=\(\frac{1}{2} m_2 v_2^2\)

or, \(m_1 v_1^2\)=\(m_2, v_2^2\) ………………… (1)

since \(\mathrm{m}_1\) >\(\mathrm{m}_2\) to keep equality

⇒ \(v_1^2,<v_2{ }^2 \text {, i.e., } v_2>v_1, \text { so } \frac{v_2}{v_1}>1\)…………..(2)

Again, from the relation (1) we get,  \(m_1 v_1 \cdot v_1\)=\(m_2 v_2 \cdot v_2\)  or, \(\frac{m_1 v_1}{m_2 v_2}\)=\(\frac{v_2}{v_1}\)

From the relation (2) we get,  \(\frac{m_1 v_1}{m_2 v_2}>1 \text {, i.e., } m_1 v_1>m_{22} v\).

So, the momentum of the heavier body\(\left(m-1 v_1\right)\) is greater than the momentum of the lighter body\(\left(m-2 v_2\right)\).

Question 16. Examine whether work is done in the following cases :
(1) A football is kicked.
(2) A boy picks up a brick from the ground.
(3) A piece of wood is floating on the stream.
(4) A ripe fruit falls from the tree on the ground.
(5) A jar of water is lifted from a well.
(6) A boat is sailed.
Answer:

(1) The ball has been displaced on kicking (force), so work will be done.
(2) As the piece of brick is picked up against the force of gravitation, work will be done.
(3) The piece of wood is displaced by the current of the stream (force). So work is done
(4) Work is done here because there is a displacement of the fruit by the force of gravitation.
(5) Here work is done because there is a displacement against the force of gravitation.
(6) Here wind acts as a source of force and thereby the boat moves in the direction of wind. So work is done.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 17. An apple of mass m falls freely under gravity from a height h. What is its kinetic
and potential energy.
(1) At the beginning of the fall and
(2) At a height of h/2?

Answer:

(1) At the beginning of the fall

KE. of the apple = 0

P.E. of the apple = mgh.

(2) At a height h/2

K.E. of the apple = ½ mgh

P.E. of the apple = ½ mgh.

Question 18. Distinguish between potential energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

Potential energy Kinetic energy
(1)Energy acquired by a body when it is taken to some different position from its normal position is called its potential energy. (1) Energy acquired by a body by virtue of its motion is called its kinetic energy.
(2) Gravitational potential energy increases as the body is raised from the surface of the earth. (1) Kinetic energy of a body increases with its velocity.
(3) Potential energy remains stored in a body due to its special position or configuration. (3) Kinetic energy is generated in a body due to its motion.
(4) A body can have potential energy while it is at rest, but it cannot have kinetic energy at rest because it contains the component of velocity. (4) A body has kinetic energy while in motion but it may or may not have potential energy.
(5) Gravitational potential energy of a body = mass of the body x its height from the surface of the earth x acceleration due to gravity (5) Kinetic energy of a body = x mass of the body x (velocity of the body)2.
(6) Gravitational potential energy of a body at any place depends on the acceleration due to the gravity of the place. (6) Kinetic energy of a body does not depend on the acceleration due to the gravity of a place.
(7) It is a scalar quantity. (7) It is a scalar quantity.
8) SI unit of it is Joule. (8) SI unit of it is Joule.


Question 19. Distinguish between energy and power
Answer:

Energy Power
(1)    The capacity of a body or person to do work is its energy. (1)    Power is the rate of doing work.
(2)    Energies of two persons may be the same, but their powers may be different. (2)    The quantity energy of two persons may be different, although they have the same power.
(3)    Power is a quantity dependent on time. (3)    Energy is not related to time.
(4)    It is a scalar quantity. (4)    It is a scalar quantity.

 

Question 20. A body remains at rest at a certain height. State the type or types of energy the body possesses in the following steps :
(1) When the body is at rest at the top of the height.
(2) The body falls through some distance.
(3) Just before it touches the ground.
(4) It touches the ground and becomes stationary.
Answer:

A body of mass ‘mm’ is at rest above the ground at a height ‘h’. We notice the change of its mechanical energies, i.e. kinetic and potential energies at the following stages.

(1) Just before it falls. Here, the body has the potential energy ‘mgh’, and since it is at rest, its kinetic energy is zero. So, at mgh this stage total energy of the body is mgh.

(2) The body descends through ‘a’, where, a < h. The height of the body above ground is (h − a), so its potential energy is mg (h − a). The potential energy thus decreases by mga. While the body descends, it acquires some velocity, v (say). So its

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 5 Energy In Action, Work, Power And Energyl aw of motion

kinetic energy is \(\frac{1}{2} m v^2\) which can be proved equal to mga.

Thus, a decrease of potential energy equals a gain in kinetic energy. So, the total energy ground

= mg (h− a)+mga

= mgh− mga + mga = mgh.

(3) The body is just above the ground before touching it. Here ‘f is almost zero, so the potential energy is negligible. The body possesses only kinetic energy which may be proved equal to mgh.

Thus, at all stages, the total energy of the body, before it touches au is constant and equal to mgh.

(4) When the body touches the ground, ‘h’ is zero, so potential energy is zero. Since it comes to rest, its kinetic energy is also zero. The energy of the body dissipates in the environment as heat energy and sound energy.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 21. Define and exemplify ‘work done by a force’ and ‘work done against a force’.
Answer:

Work done by a force: If the point of application moves in the direction of the applied force, work is said to be done by the force.

Example: A stone is released from a certain height. Here gravitational force acts on the stone downwards and the stone also falls in the same direction.

Work done against a force: If a body has its displacement in the opposite direction of the applied force, work is said to be done against the force.

Example: Let us suppose a body is raised from the ground to a certain height. Here gravitational force acts on the body clean Ceti but the body is displaced in the opposite direction.

Work is a scalar quantity. Work may be in the direction of force and also against the direction of force. The former is called positive work and the latter is called negative work.

For example, when a body falls from a certain height, work is done on the body in the direction of the force of gravity. So this is a positive work. When a body is lifted from the ground, work is done against the force, this may be called negative work.

Question 22. Define potential energy. How is it measured?
Answer:

Potential energy of an object placed at a height: Let an object of mass m is lifted from the surface of the earth against the force of gravity to a height h. The work done in the process remains in it as the potential energy of the body.

Force acting on the body = weight of the body = mg acting vertically downward.

The height through which the body is raised = h

Thus work done in raising the body W = force-displacement = mg x h = mgh

This work remains stored in the body as the gravitational potential energy \(E_p\)

Thus, \(E_p\)= mgh.

The gravitational potential energy depends on the difference in heights of the initial position and final position of the body but is independent of the path followed by the body while going from the initial position to the final position. For a body raised above the surface of the earth, the earth is taken as zero.

Question 23. If a pump lifts 500 liters of water per hour to a height of 30 m. Then find the work done by the pump and its power in watts. (mass of 1 liter of water = 1 kg)
Answer:

Work done by the pump

= weight of water x displacement of water

= 5000 x 1 9.8 x 30J.

=14.7 x \(10^5\) J

Power of the pump \(=\frac{\text { Work done }}{\text { Time }}\)=\(\frac{14.7 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~J}}{60 \times 60 \mathrm{sec}}\)= 408 W.

Question 24. One body has a mass of 50 g and a velocity of 10 cm/sec. The other body has a mass of 20 g and a velocity 20 cm/sec. Compare their velocities and kinetic energies.
Answer:

We know, The momentum of a body = mass of the body x velocity.

Here, the velocity of the first body: velocity of the second body

= (50 x 10): (20 x 20)=5:4

We also know, Kinetic energy \(=\frac{1}{2} \times \text { mass } \times(\text { velocity })^2\)

Here, the kinetic energy of the first body: kinetic energy of the second body

⇒ \(=\frac{1}{2} \dot{\times} 50 \times(10)^2: \frac{1}{2} \times 20 \times(20)^2\)

The ratio of the velocities of the two bodies = 5: 8

Question 25. A particle of mass ‘m’ at rest is acted upon by a force ‘p’ for a time ‘f. Show that the particle acquires the kinetic energy \(\frac{p^2 t^2}{2 m}\)   after the time ‘f.
Answer:

It is known from Newton’s second law of motion that, force (p) = mass (m) x acceleration (f).

∴ f\(=\frac{p}{m}\)     Also, \(f=\frac{\text { final velocity }(v)-\text { initial velocity }(u)}{t i m e}\)

∴\(f=\frac{v-0}{t}\)

(because   The body was initially at rest, u = 0)   or, v = ft

⇒ \(=\frac{p}{m} t\)   ( because f\(=\frac{p}{m}\))

So, Kinetic energy \(=\frac{1}{2} m \times v^2 \times \frac{1}{2} m\left(\frac{p t}{m}\right)^2\)=\(\frac{p^2 t^2}{2 m}\) 

Question 26. A body moves 80 m under the action of an applied force of 10 N on a floor having a frictional force of 2 N. Compute the
(1) work done by the applied force,
(2) work done by the force of friction and
(3) work done by the net force.
Answer:

(1) Work done by the applied force = F.d = 10 x 80 = 800 J.

(2) Work done by the force of friction = Fs.d = (2 x 80) = 160 J.

(3) Work done by the net force = (F −Fs).d = (10−2) x 80 = 640 J.

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound

Chapter 7 Sound Very Short Answer Type :

Question 1. Define wave motion.
Answer: A wave is a disturbance by which energy is transferred through vibrations.

Question 2. Define periodic motion.
Answer: The type of motion that repeats after a definite interval of time is called periodic motion.

Question 3. What sound will you hear earlier — the sound of an approaching car or the sound of its horn?
Answer: The sound of the horn will be heard earlier as the velocity of sound is higher than that of any fastest car.

Question 4. What is the safe limit of sound level in dB for our ear?
Answer: According to WHO, the safe limit of sound level is 45 dB. (Internationally accept-able safe limit of sound is 65 dB).

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 5. What is the sound level of normal conversation?
Answer: Sound level of normal conversation is 50 decibel (dB).

Question 6. About 1m long thin wire is stretched tightly between two horizontally fixed bodies, when the wire is plucked a sound is heard. Now a V-shaped paper rider is kept on the wire and the wire is again plucked when the paper rider flies away. What does the experiment prove?
Answer: The experiment proves that sound is produced by a vibrating body.

Question 7. is it possible to make any discussion by two persons on the moon?
Answer: No, as there is no material medium on the moon, any sound produced by anyone will not propagate to the other.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 8. Why does a person stationed at a higher position hear a sound better than when he is on the ground as wind blows opposite to the direction of sound?
Answer: This happens because when wind blows against the direction of sound, sound waves deviate above the ground.

Question 9. How is sound produced when we speak?
Answer: Sound is produced due to vibration of our vocal chords.

Question 10. How does intensity of sound depend on the density of a medium?
Answer: Intensity of sound increases in a denser medium than in a rarer medium.

Question 11. What is a note of sound?
Answer: It is a sound of mixed frequencies.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 12. What is Hertz?
Answer: It is the unit used at present to express frequency. Hertz (Hz) is named after the celebrated German physicist Heinrich Hertz.

Question 13. What is decibel?
Answer: Decibel (dB) is the unit of expressing the intensity of sound.

Question 14. The oscillation of a pendulum cannot be heard. Why?
Answer: The oscillation of a pendulum has a frequency less than 20/sec. So, we cannot hear the sound.

Question 15. What is the unit of frequency?
Answer: Unit of frequency is cycles/second or CPS or Hz.

Question 16. How does the velocity of sound depend on pressure ?
Answer: Velocity of sound is independent of the change in pressure.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7 

Question 17. What is musical sound ?
Answer: It is a pleasing sound produced by a periodically vibrating body.

Question 18. What are the characteristics of a musical sound ?
Answer:
Characteristics of musical sound are :
(1) Intensity
(2) Pitch
(3) Quality or Timbre.

Question 19. Which characteristic of musical sound depends on frequency?
Answer: Pitch depends on frequency.

Question 20. Find the optical analogs of note and tone.
Answer: Note is analogous to white or polychromatic light and tone is analogous to colour.

Question 21. How many frequencies are there in a tone?
Answer: A tone is a sound of a single frequency.

Question 22. What is fundamental tone?
Answer: In a note, the sound of least frequency is known as the fundamental tone.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7 

Question 23. Can sound travel through a vacuum?
Answer: Sound cannot travel through vaccum.

Question 24. What should be the frequency of audible sounds?
Answer: We can hear sound only if the number of vibrations per second, called frequency of a vibrating body, lies within the limit 20 to 20,000.

Question 25. How does pitch depend on frequency?
Answer: Greater the frequency, higher will be the pitch.

Question 26. Between a plane mirror and a wall of house, which one will reflect more sound?
Answer: A wall of house will reflect sound.

Question 27. What is responsible for the generation of sound?
Answer: Vibration is responsible for the generation of sound.

Question 28. What is the minimum distance of the reflector to produce an echo?
Answer: The minimum distance of the reflector to produce an echo is 16.6 m.

Question 29. What is the unit of wavelength in SI system?
Answer: The unit of wavelength in SI system is metre.

Question 30. What is the velocity of sound at 0°C?
Answer: 332 m/sec.

Question 31. Is medium required for propagation of sound?
Answer: Medium is required for propagation of sound.

Chapter 7 Sound 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. What is the limit of audibility of sound ?
Answer: When we hear a sound, the sensation of the sound remains in the ear for some time. This is known as persistence of heating. But all sounds are not audible to the human ear, In order that sound may be audible to the human ear, the frequency of the vibration of the source must be between 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. This is called the audible range or the limit of audibility for normal human ear.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions 

Question 2. What is ultrasonic sound ?
Answer: Sounds of frequency higher than 20,000 Hz are called ultrasonic. We cannot hear the ultrasonic sounds. The speed of ultrasonic sounds is same as that of audible sound. Some animals like dogs, bats, monkeys, deer, leopards, etc. can hear ultrasonic sounds. Dogs can hear sound of frequency 50,000 Hz and bats can hear sounds upto 100,000 Hz frequency.

Question 3. What is infrasonic or subsonic sound ? State its uses.
Answer: Sounds of frequency lower than 20 Hz are called infrasonic or subsonic. We cannot hear the infrasonic sound. The speed of such sound is same as that of audible sound.

Uses : The infrasonic sound is used in drilling deepest wells because the low frequency vibrations break up hard rock more easily than the ordinary drills.

Question 4. How is the reflection of sound different from that of light?
Answer: The main difference between the reflection of sound and that of light is that sound requires a large reflecting surface which may not be smooth, while for the reflection of light, the reflecting surface must be smooth and may be small.

Question 5. What is called an echo?
Answer: Echo : When a sound is reflected back from a reflecting surface to the source of sound in-such a way that a repetition of the original sound is heard distinctly, then. this phenomenon is called echo.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions 

Question 6. Explain why the echo of our’sound is not heard in a small room, but is heard distinctly in a big hall.
Answer: To hear the echo of a sound distinctly, the reflecting surface should be at a minimum distance of 16.6 m from the observer. In a small room the distance is less than 16.6 m, the reflected sound will reach the ear before the original dies out and, therefore, it will not be heard distinctly. In a big hall the distance is generally more than 16.6 m.

Question 7. How is the speed of sound determined by the method of echo ?
Answer: To determine the speed of sound in air, the echo method is used. For this, sound is produced from a known distance, say, d (d must be greater than 16.6), from the reflect- ing surface. The time interval, say, t, in which the echo reaches the place from where the sound was produced, is noted by a stop watch. The speed of sound, say, V is calculated by the formula

V\(=\frac{\text { Total dis tance Travelled}}{\text { Time interval }}\)\(=\frac{2 d}{t}\)

Question 8. What is echo depth sounding ?
Answer: The ships locate the position of rocks and depth of sea by the reflection of sound from it. This process is called echo depth sounding.

Question 9. What is sonar (sound navigation and ranging) ?
Answer: Sonar (sound navigation and ranging) method is used to determine the position of iceberg, enemy’s submarine, sunken ship or depth of sea with the help of ultrasonic waves. Ultrasonic waves are sent in all directions from the ship at sea and are then received on their return after reflection from an obstacle. The position of the obstacle can be measured by measuring the time interval t between the source of sound and waves after reflection. Then by using the formula d = a dis calculated. V is the speed of ultrasonic waves in water.

Question 10. The time interval between a lightning flash and the first sound of thunder was found to be 5 sec. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/sec, find the distance of the flash from the observer.
Answer: The lightning flash and thunder occur simultaneously, but light has much larger speed than sound. Hence, the time taken by the lightning flash is negligible. The speed of sound 330 m/sec and time taken = 5 sec.

Therefore, distance of flash from the observer = 330 x 5 m =1650 m.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7

Question 11. The smoke from the gun barrel is seen 2 seconds before the explosion is heard. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/sec, calculate the distance of the observer from the gun.
Answer: Since the light has a much larger speed than sound, hence we can assume that
light takes negligible time and the sound takes 2 seconds to reach the observer.

Distance = Speed x time = 330 x 2 = 660 m.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions 

Question 12. Show by an example of a natural phenomenon that the velocity of light is much greater than the velocity of sound.
Answer: In a natural phenomenon, the lightning flash and thunder occur simultaneously. We see the lightning flash and after some time hear the sound of thunder.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Natural PhenomenonQuestion 13. Find the relation between wave velocity (V), frequency (f) and time period (T).
Answer: Since the distance travelled by the wave in one time period T is equal to wave length (λ) of the wave,

wave velocity (V)\(=\frac{\lambda}{T}\), but f\(=\frac{1}{T}\)

Hence,V=f×λ

or, wave velocity = frequency x wavelength.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions 

Question 14. What do you mean by damped vibrations ?
Answer: The amplitude of free vibration of a body is seen to diminish gradually and finally die away altogether after sometime. Thus, the periodic vibrations of decreasing amplitude are called the damped vibrations.

Question 15. What are forced vibrations ?
Answer: Forced vibrations : The vibrations which take place under the influence of an external periodic force are called forced vibrations.

For example :
(1) If a vibrating tuning fork is held in air, the sound emitted by it is very feeble. When the fork is placed on the table, the intensity of sound increases. This is because the air in contact with the table begins to vibrate with the tuning fork. As greater amount of air is under vibration, the intensity of sound increases.

(2) The vibration produced in the board of a guitar when its string is made to vibrate.

(3) All stringed instruments owe their loud sound due to the forced vibrations produced in the air of the sounding box.

Question 16. What is Resonance ?
Answer: Resonance is a particular case of the forced vibrations. When the frequency of the applied periodic force is equal to the natural frequency of the body, it readily takes up the vibrations and begins to vibrate with an increased amplitude. This phenomenon is known as resonance.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Resonance
To demonstrate the phenomenon of resonance, we mount two identical tuning forks, say, A and B, of the same frequency upon two separate sound boxes with open ends; the boxes are kept to face each other. Now, a tuning fork say A is set into vibration, the other fork B also starts vibrating and a loud sound is heard. The vibrations produced in the second fork B are due to resonance.

Question 17. Explain the transverse vibrations in a stretched string.
Answer: If a string stretched between two fixed points is pulled and then released, then its transverse vibration gives rise to waves. These waves are reflected at the fixed ends of the string or wire. As a result stationary waves are formed.

The frequency of the note emitted depends on the following three factors :
(1) Length of the string
(2) The tension of string and
(3) The mass per unit length of the string.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions 

Question 18. What will be the velocity of sound wave when its wavelength and frequency are respectively 3m and 120 Hz? Establish the relation you used.
Answer: Relation between velocity (V), wavelength (λ) and frequency (n) of sound wave is.V =nλ). For the relation V= nλ

Given n = 120 cycle / sec, λ=3m.

So, V = 120/s x 3m = 360 ms.

Question 19. State three possible remedial measures that may be taken for minimising the harmful effects of noise pollution.
Answer: Measure to control noise pollution. To control noise pollution the following measures may be taken:

(1) Reduction of intensity level at the source of noise by setting up sound-absorptive arrangements between the source and receipient of noise

(2) Proper installation of sound-absorbing devices should be done in factories, generators, water pumps, etc.

(3) Enclosures of factories, hospitals, schools may be made of densely planted trees and creepers.

Question 20. Which characteristic of musical sound is a measure of shrillness of sound? How do we measure this characteristic in terms of some physical quantity?
Answer: Pitch is a measure of shrillness of sound. We measure pitch in terms of frequency. A source vibrating with higher frequency emits sound of higher pitch, i.e., the sound is sharp or shrill. If the source vibrates with less frequency, it emits a sound of lower pitch, i.e., the sound is flat. Pitch is a kind of feeling while frequency is a measurable physical quantity.

Question 21. Why is the sound of a sitar more pleasant to hear than the sound of a tuning fork, even they have same pitch and loudness?
Answer: Presence of overtones makes the sound of sitar pleasant. Sound emitted from a tuning fork does not contain any overtone. For this reason, the sound of a sitar is more pleasant to hear than the sound of tuning fork.

Question 22. The period of vibration of a body is 0.02 second. Will this produce audible sound?
Answer: In 0.02 second the body makes 1 vibration.

∴ In 1 second the body makes \(\frac{1}{0.02}\)vibrations.

∴ Frequency of the body is 50 Hz, so it will produce audible sound.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 23. How is pleasantness of a note affected by the number of overtones present in it?
Answer: It is found that a note having a fewer number of overtones, not exceeding six, along with its fundamental tone is pleasing to hear, a note that has more than six overtones is harsh to the ear.

Question 24. State how(1) Traffic and transport in cities,(2) Factory activities are responsible for causing noise pollution.
Answer:

(1) Traffic and transport in cities, large number vehicles, many of which are with defective engine, ply speedily over bumpy roads to create noise pollution.

(2) Factories undeterred running machines in factories create noise pollution to workers and peoples of adjoining areas.

Question 25. How do domestic activity and activity of neighbours stand as sources of noise pollution?
Answer: Domestic and neighbouring activities-sound of generators, water pumps, television, stereo, CD players, etc. at high level of sound create noise pollution. Blaring loud speakers and microphones used in places of worship, politicians meetings are also sources of noise pollution.

Question 26. Why doesn’t the sound of explosion occurring in the sun reach the earth?
Answer: The continuous explosive sounds occurring on the sun because of conversion of hydrogen to helium by nuclear fusion is not heard from the earth. This is due to the presence of a large space beyond the earth’s atmosphere without any material medium; the sound of explosion cannot transmit to the earth since sound cannot propagate without the help of a material medium.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 27. Tapping sound made from inside on the glass pane of a window of a closed room is audible to persons outside the room but not the voice of a person talking inside the same room. Explain.
Answer: The glass of a window is set into vibration due to tapping, this vibration sets in vibration the air layers outside, so the sound of tapping made on glass is heard from outside. On the other hand, the sound of a person’s voice inside the room is mostly reflectedfrom the walls, doors, windows of the room,

So major part of this sound remains inside the room, a very small part may go outside but that does not produce a fairly audible sound. Moreover, for a large difference of densities of air and glass, a sound made inside the room hardly travels outside.

Question 28. Why is it not advisable to regulate a watch on hearing the sound of a distantsiren?
Answer: The sound from the siren at a distance takes some time to reach a place. If the person adjusts his watch with the idea that the sound of the siren reaches him just at the time of its production, his watch will be slow by a few seconds that are taken by the sound to reach him.

Question 29. To hear a feeble sound coming from a distance clearly, we occasionally hold a palm in curved form behind the ear. Why ?
Answer: Although we do this by a reflex action, the sound waves coming from distance get reflected from the palm and concentrate at the ear, so a clearer sound of more intensity is received.

Question 30. Why is it that a speaker can deliver speech with more comfort in an auditorium than in an open space ?
Answer: This is because in an auditorium, the sound of speech gets reflected from ceilings, walls, etc. and reaches till the far end of the room. In an open space, there is no such reflector, the speaker feels discomfort, for, he has to shout louder in an attempt to make his speech reach the far end of a group of assembled listeners.

Question 31. Why are voices of females or babies more sharp but.of less intensity than the sound of that of a grown up male person ?
Answer: Vocal cords of females or babies are tender, so while they speak or sing, the cords vibrate with high frequency, that is why their voices are very sharp. Vocal cords of male persons are usually stiff, so their frequency of vibration is low and hence male voices are generally flat.

Question 32. Why is the humming sound of mosquitoes more sharp but of less loudness than the sound of roar of a tiger ?
Answer: Frequency of vibration of the wings of a flying mosquito is very high so it produces a sharp sound while they fly near our ears. Loudness of the sound is very low because of small sized vibrating wings. When a tiger roars, the frequency of vibration of its vocal cord is low so the sound produced is flat but due to large size of the tiger’s vocal cord the emitted sound is of greater loudness.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 33. If the velocity of sound in air at 0°C be 332 m/s, what is the velocity of sound in air at 27°C?
Answer: If the velocity of sound in air at 27°C be V /ms, then,

V\(=332 \sqrt{\frac{273+27}{273}}\)= 348m/s.

Question 34. A brass pot produces sound on striking but it stops on touching – Explain why.
Answer: Brass pot vibrates on striking. So it produces sound. The vibration stops when touched by hand, and hence, there will be no sound.

Question 35. What is persistence of hearing?
Answer: Time period for which the sensation of sound lasts in the ear is called persistence of hearing.

Question 36. Can sound travel through vacuum ?
Answer:

Explanation : For the propagation of sound, a material medium (solid, liquid gas) is necessary. Sound cannot travel through vacuum.

Question 37.If a person talks or even screams on the surface of the moon, the sound will not be audible. Explain why.
Answer:

Explanation : The moon has no atmosphere or gas surrounding. There is absolutely a vacuum all around the moon. That is why if a person talks or even screams on the surface of the moon, the sound will not be audible.

Question 38. What do you mean by wavelength?
Answer:

Wavelength :
(1) It is the distance a wave or an energy travels through during one complete oscillation of its source.
(2) It is the distance between two consecutive crests or two consecutive troughs in a wave. It is normally represented by λ . Its SI unit is metre (m).

Question 39. What is transverse wave?
Answer:

Transverse wave: Transverse wave motion is that wave motion in which the individual particles of the medium execute vibrations about their mean. positions in a direction perpendicular to the direction of motion of the mean wave.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 40. What is the definition of sound?
Answer:

Sound: Sound is the energy, which is generated from a vibrating body, travels through an elastic medium and finally reaches our ear to create a special sensation in the brain.

Question 41. How is sound produced?
Answer: The material bodies capable of producing sound are called the sources of the sound or sounding bodies. Sound is produced due to vibrations of the sounding bodies.

Question 42. What is longitudinal wave?
Answer:

Longitudinal wave: Longitudinal wave motion is that wave motion in which the individual particles of the medium execute vibrations about their mean positions along the direction of motion of the wave.

Question 43. What is called frequency?
Answer:

Frequency: The number of complete oscillations of a source of sound per second is known as its frequency. Unit of frequency is Hertz, its symbol is Hz.

Question 44. What is called oscillation?
Answer:

Oscillation: An oscillation of a particle is its trajectory in which the particle starting from a certain position moves through some distance, and retracing the path it returns to its starting point with the same direction of motion with which it started initially.

Question 45. What do you mean by amplitude? 
Answer:

Amplitude: The maximum displacement of a particle in a medium on either side oi its mean position is called amplitude.

Question 46. Define wave.
Answer:

Wave: It is defined as a disturbance that moves through a medium transferring energy from a point to another without any physical transportation of the material between the points.

Question 47. What is called wave velocity?
Answer:

Wave velocity: In a medium, the distance travelled by the wave in one second is defined as the velocity of propagation of the wave or wave velocity. It is normally represented by V.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 48. What is meant by reflection of sound?
Answer:

Reflection of sound : When sound waves hit on the boundary separating twe homogeneous media, a portion of sound changes it direction from the surface of sepaeration and returns to the first medium. This is known as reflection of sound.

Question 49. Extablish the relation connecting wave velocity, wavelength and frequency.
Answer:

Relation among wave velocity, wavelength and frequency : Let the frequency and wavelength of a wave be n and J respectively.

According to the definition :
‘n’ numbers of complete waves are generated in 1 sec. Since wavelength is A, so in 1 sec, wave advances by n x λ = nλ distance.

Now, the distance traversed by the wave in 1 sec is its velocity (V).

So,V=n

Wave velocity = Frequency x Wavelength.

Question 50. What do you mean by Free or Natural vibration?
Answer:

Free or Natural vibration: When a body vibrates with its own natural frequency, is said to execute natural or free vibrations. The frequency of free vibration depends on the density, shape and elasticity of the body.

Example: The frequency of a tuning fork depends on the length and cross-section of its arms as well as the density and elasticity of the material of the tuning fork.

Question 51. What is called forced vibration?
Answer:

Forced. vibration: When a body is maintained in a state of vibration by a strong periodic force, the vibrations are called forced vibrations.

Example: Intensity of sound generated from a tuning fork is not very high, and hence, can not be heard from a distance. Now, when this tuning fork is touched on a table, it causes forced vibration on the table and thereby sound is generated from the table also. Intensity of this sound is relatively higher and hence can be heard from a distant location.

Question 52. What is called resonant vibration?
Answer:

Resonant vibration: It is a particular case of forced vibration when the frequency of the driving force equals the natural frequency of the body. When such condition is fulfilled, amplitude of oscillation becomes very high.

Example: A vibration is generated in the air column when a vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mouth of a pipe filled with air. Air being forced vibrated creates this sound.

Question 53. State the laws of reflection of sound.
Answer:

Laws of reflection of sound :
(1) The incident sound, reflected sound and the normal to the surface of separation through the point of incidence like on the same plane.

(2) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

Question 54. Is pitch synonimous with frequency? Or, Mention the differences between frequency and pitch of a sound wave.
Answer: Pitch is not the same as frequency. The pitch refers to sensation as perceived by the listener, and hence, is subjective. Frequency, on the other hand, is a measurable quantity, and hence, is an objective quantity. Actually, pitch depends on frequency. If frequency is the cause, pitch is its effect.

Question 55. In what state does a body generate sound? In which of the media, solid or liquid, sound travels faster?
Answer: A body in a state of vibration generates sound. Sound travels faster in solid than in liquid.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 56. Why are two sounds heard at short intervals at one end of a fong hollow iron pipe when its other end is struck lightly with a solid body ?
Answer: When a long hollow iron pipe is struck at one end, the produced sound travels through air as well as the material medium of the pipe. Since, sound travels faster through solid than through air, two sounds are heard at the other end of the pipe.

Question 57. Deduce the minimum distance of the reflector that can produce echo of a transient sound.
Answer:

Minimum distance of the reflector for listening the echo of transient sound :

The feel of a transient sound that remains in our. brain is\(\frac{1}{10}\)see after it reaches our ear.

This period is known as persistence of hearing. If a second sound reaches our brain within

This \(\frac{1}{10}\)see of time, the latter one can not be registered by the brain separately. Obviously

A gap of at least \(\frac{1}{10}\) sec has to be there between the original sound and reflected sound so that the brain can recognize them separately.

Now, if the velocity of sound in air be 332 m/sec, in \(\frac{1}{10}\) see it travels through 33.2 m. For producing an echo, the total length of the path traversed by a sound from the source to the reflector and back should be at least 33.2 m. Hence for hearing echo of a transient sound, the minimum distance of the reflector from the source of sound is half of 33.2 m, i.e., 16.6.m.

Question 58. Give two applications of echo.
Answer:

Application of echo :
(1) Determination of velocity of sound in air with the help of a stopwatch and a pistol.
(2) Depth of sea, height of an aeroplane above ground may also be determined with the help of echo.

Question 59. What is called musical sound?
Answer: Musical sound : A continuous sound pleasing to the ear and produced by regular and periodic vibrations is known as musical sound.

Example: Sounds generated from different musical instruments like violin, piano, flute, etc. are musical sounds.

Question 60. What is noise?
Answer:

Noise: A noise is a sound which is discontinuous, unpleasant to ear and produced by irregular and non-periodic vibrations

Example: The sounds of moving cars, trains, machines, sound of explosions, etc. are the examples of noise. a

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 61. What do you mean by tone?
Answer:

Tone : A musical sound generally consists of number of components having different frequencies. Such a sound is known as note.

Question 62. What is fundamental tone and what is overtone?
Answer:

Fundamental tone: In a note the tone of the lowest frequency is known as fundamental tone.

Overtone: All tones, except fundamental tone, present in a note are known as overtones.

Question 63. What is the intensity of a musical sound?
Answer:

Intensity : It means how forcefully or how strongly the sound reaches a listenerIntensity or loudness of a sound depends on the energy contained per unit volume of themedium through which sound passes.

Question 64. What are the factors which affect the intensity of a musical sound?
Answer:

The intensity of a musical sound depends upon the following factors :
(1) Amplitude of the vibration of the source,
(2) Size of the sounding body,
(3 Distance of the observer from the source,
(4) Presence of other bodies
(5) Density of the medium.

Question 65. What is pitch?
Answer:

Pitch: The characteristic of a musical sound by which a sharp or a shrill sound is distinguished from a dull, flat sound of the same intensity is known as its pitch. Pitch of a note depends Pitch of a note depends on its frequency. Greater the frequency higher will be the pitch. Wavelength being inversely proportional to frequency, the sound of low wavelength has higher pitch and vice-versa.

Question 66. What is quality of a musical sound?
Answer:

Quality of a musical sound: It is that characteristic which enables us to distinguish one sound from another even though the two sounds may have the same intensity or pitch. Richer the quality, more pleasant is the sound.

Example: If harmonium and violin are played simultaneously, one can easily distinguish between these two even without seeing. This distinction is felt out of the property called quality of sound.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 67. What are the sources of sound pollution?
Answer:

Sources of sound pollution :
(1) The sound of vehicle causes sound pollution.
(2) The machinery used in industry creates sound of intensity more than tolerance limit and thereby causes sound pollution.
(3) Loudspeakers, amplifiers, air horn played at top volume, are major sources of sound pollution.

Question 68. What are the harmful effects of noise pollution?
Answer:

Harmful effects of noise pollution :
(1) Sound pollution may cause hindrance in the growth of nervous system of a child in the womb.
(2) One may become deaf due to sound pollution.
(3) The sound of high intensity and pitch may cause blood pressure, nervous break down, heart disease, loss of memory, loss of concentration, etc.

Question 69. Why are the voices of females or babies more sharp than that of a grown up male person?
Answer:

Explanation: Vocal cords of females or babies are tender, so, while they speak or sing the cords vibrate with high frequency, for this reason their voices are very sharp. Vocal cords of male persons are usually stiff, so their frequency of vibration is low and hence male voices are generally flat.

Question 70. Why doesn’t the sound of explosion occuring in the sun reach the earth?
Answer:

Explanation : The continuous explosive sounds occuring on the sun because of conversion of hydrogen to helium by nuclear fusion are not heard from the earth. This is due to presence of a large space beyond the earth’s atmosphere without any material
medium. The sound of explosion cannot transmit to the earth since sound cannot propa- gate without the help of a material medium.

Question 71. What are called match numbers?
Answer:

Mach number: The ratio of speed of a body to the speed of sound is called the match number of the body. If the match number of a body be greater than 1, then the velocity of the body is supersonic velocity.

Question 72. How does speaking tube operate?
Answer:

Speaking tube : If we talk at one end of a long tube, it can be heard clearly on the other end. The sound generated at one end does not get scattered. On the contrary, it undergoes several reflections within the tube and finally reaches the other end.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 73. How does stethoscope function?
Answer:

Stethoscope: Doctors use this gadget for chest examination. This is basically a reflecting tube. This gadget consists of two rubber tubes with a metallic plate at the juncture of the tube. The sound of the heart beat reaches from the metallic plate to the ears of the doctor through multiple reflection of the sound within the rubber tubes.

Question 74. What are harmonics and what is an octave?
Answer:

Harmonics: Those overtones whose frequencies are integral multiples of the frequency of the fundamental tone are called Harmonics.

Octave: The particular harmonic whose frequency is double the fundamental frequency is known as the second harmonic or octave of the fundamental tone.

Question 75. Velocity of sound in air is 350 m/sec. Frequency of a tunning fork is 700/sec. Find the wavelength of the sound generated by the tunning fork.
Answer:

We know, n = 700 sec

v=nλ ,  λ  =?

or,λ  =\(\frac{v}{n}\)      v=350m/sec

⇒ \(=\frac{350}{700}\)

=0.5m.

Question 76. The frequency of a tuning fork is 440. If the wavelength of the wave is 0.73 m then find the velocity of sound.
Answer:

We know,  n= 440

v=nλ,  λ=0.73m

or,v=440×0.73 ,  v=?

= 321.2 m/sec.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 77. A boat approaches a high vertical cliff. When the anchor is dropped, an echo is heard 2 seconds later. How far is the boat from the cliff? (velocity of sound = 332 m/sec)
Answer:

As the velocity of sound is 332 msec, so total distance travelled by sound in 2 sec = 2 x 332 = 664 m.

For an echo, the sound must go to the cliff and return through the same distance.

So the distance of the cliff \(=\frac{664}{2}\) m  =332 m.

Question 78. In measuring the depth of an ocean, it was found that the sound of an explosion and its echo by the bed had a time interval of 20 sec between them. What is the depth of the ocean? (velocity of sound in water = 1436 m/sec)
Answer:

As the velocity of sound in water = 1436 m/sec, so total distance travelled by the sound in 20 sec = 20 x 1436 m.

∴ The depth of the ocean \(=\frac{20 \times 1436}{2}\)m

=14360m.

Question 79. Find the frequency of a tuning fork whose wavelength is 1.7 m. (velocity of sound in air = 340 m/sec)
Answer:

We know,  v = 340 m/sec

v=nλ,   λ =1.7m

or,n= \(\frac{v}{λ }\)     n=?

⇒\(=\frac{340}{1.7}\)

=200 Hz.

∴ Frequency of the tuning fork = 200 Hz. 

Question 80. A radio station transmits waves of wavelength 100 m. If the speed of the waves is 3 x 108 m/s, find the frequency of the radio station.
Answer:

Here, wavelength of the wave (λ) = 100 m.

Wave velocity (v) = 3 x \(10^8\) m/s

Using v = nλ, we get   n = \(\frac{v}{λ }\) =\(=\frac{3 \times 10^8 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}}{100 \mathrm{~m}}\)

=3 x \(10^6\)

∴ Frequency of the radio station = 3 x \(10^6\)Hz = 3 MHz.

Question 81. The water ripples are produced at a frequency of 50 Hz. If the wavelength of these ripples is 2.4 cm, calculate the speed of the ripples.
Answer:

Here, frequency (n) = 50 Hz.

Wavelength (λ) = 2.4 cm = 0.024 m.

Using the relation, v= nλ, we get, v= 50 Hz x 0.024m = 1.2 m/s.

∴ The speed of the ripples = 1.2 m/s.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 82. A wave pulse on a string advances with a speed of 16 m/s. What would be the wavelength of the wave on the string if its frequency is 200 Hz ?
Answer:

Here, wave velocity (v) = 16 m/s and frequency (n) = 200 Hz.

Using the relation, v = nλ, we get, λ\(\frac{v}{n}\)\(=\frac{16 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}}{200 \mathrm{~Hz}}\)

=0.08m.

∴  Wavelength of the wave = 0.08 m.

Question 83. If the frequency of a tuning fork be 400 Hz and the velocity of sound in air be 320 ms, find how far sound travels when the fork completes 30 vibrations.
Answer:

Here, frequency (n) = 400 Hz.

Velocity of sound (v) = 320 m/s

Using the relation v = nλ, we get, Wavelength, λ =\(\frac{v}{n}\)  =\(=\frac{320}{400}\) m=0.8m.

∴ In 1 vibration of the fork sound travels 0.8 m.

Hence, in 30 complete vibrations sound travels (0.8 x 30)m = 24 m.

Question 84. The period of vibration of a body is 0.02 second. Will this Produce audible sound?
Answer:

In 0.02 second the body makes 1 vibration.

∴ In 1 second the body makes\(\frac{1}{0.02}\) or 50  vibrations.

∴  Frequency of the body is 50 Hz, producing audible sound.

Question 85. A sound wave has frequency 2 kHz and wavelength 40 cm. Calculate the speed of the wave.
Answer:

Given, n = 2kHz =2 4\(10^3\) Hz;  /= 40 cm = 0.40 m.

∴ v=nλ=2 ×\(10^3\) ×0.4.0=800m\(s^{-1}\)

Question 86. Calculate the time taken by a sound wave of frequency 100 Hz and wavelength 50 cm to travel a distance of 500 m.
Answer:

Given, n = 100 Hz;  f= 90 cm = 0.5m; S = 500 m
V=nλ= = 1000 x 0.5 = 500 m\(s^{-1}\)

∴ t\(=\frac{s}{v}\)=\(\frac{500}{500}\)=1s.

Question 87. A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate tumours in a tissue. What is the wavelength of sound in a tissue in which the speed of sound is 1.7 kms\(s^{-1}\)? The Operating frequency of the scanner is 4.2 MHz. (1 MHz = 10°)
Answer:

Given, v = 1.7 km\(s^{-1}\) = 1700 m\(s^{-1}\)    n= 4.2 MHz = 4.2 x 106 Hz.
Since, v = nλ

∴ λ\(=\frac{v}{n}\)\(=\frac{1700}{4.2 \times 10^6}\)

=4×\(10^{-4}\) m=0.4mm.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 88. Calculate the minimum distance between the listener and the reflector for hearing distinctly the echo of an inarticulate sound, if the velocity of the sound be 340 m/s.
Answer:

Let the minimum distance of the reflector from the listener be x meter. Thus sound would travel 2x metres. As the persistence of hearing is 1/10s, so it is the time required to travel 2x metres.

Now,V\(=\frac{2 x}{t}\)

or,x\(=\frac{v t}{2}\)=\(\frac{340 \times 1}{2 \times 10}\)=17m.

Question 89. In an experiment for measuring the depth of sea, sound of explosion reflected from sea bed is heard after 12 s. Find the depth of the sea at that place. Velocity of sound in water = 1500 m/s.
Answer:

Depth of sea = ½ x 1500 x 12 = 9000 m = 9km.

Chapter 7 Sound 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. Deseribe the basic mechanics of hearing.
Answer: Hearing is the process by which humans use their ears to detect and perceive sounds. Ears are important for hearing and for controlling a sense of position and balance.

Each ear is divided into three sections:
1. The outer ear
2. The middle ear and
3. The inner ear.

The middle and inner parts of the ear are located in hollow spaces on either side of the head within the temporal bones of the skull.
To hear sound, the ear has to do three basic things:
(1)Direct the sound waves into the hearing part of the ear.
(2)Sense the fluctuations in air pressure.

Translate these fluctuations into an electrical signal that the brain can understand.

Question 2. Describe the structure and functions of the ear.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Structure of the Ear

Answer:

Each human ear is divided into three sections:

The outer ear or external ear :

The external part ofthe ear consists of the pinna and ear lobe. The pinna or ear shell is the shell-like part of the external ear and it is made of cartilage and skin. The pinna directs sound waves from the outside into the external auditory canal (ear canal), which in turn channels sound waves to the tympanic membrane (known as the eardrum), causing it to vibrate.

The tympanic membrane is a thin, semi-transparent, flexible membrane that separates the outer and middle ear. The outer ear functions to collect sound (acoustic energy) and funnel it to the eardrum.

The middle ear :
The middle ear is an air-filled space that contains three tiny bones known as ossicles which transmit sound. The bones are known individually (according to their shapes) as the
1. Malleus (hammer)
2. Incus (anvil)
3. Stapes (stirrup).

Sound waves that reach the tympanic membrane cause it to vibrate. In turn, the eardrum sets into motion the first ear bone, which transmits the motion to the second bone (the incus). Finally, the third bone (the stapes) works like a piston to amplify and transform the sound energy into mechanical energy.

This mechanical energy is then transmitted from the stapes to the hearing part (cochlea) of the inner ear via the oval window (a thin membrane between the middle and inner ear). The middle ear is connected to the back of the nose (nasopharynx) by the Eustachian tube.The Eustachian tube is a narrow tube that connects the middle ear to the back of the
nose and throat.

The inner ear: The delicate membranous inner ear (labyrinth) is enclosed and protected by a bony chamber that is referred to as the bony labyrinth.

The inner ear contains two main structures :
(1)The cochlea: In the shape of a snail, which is involved in hearing. The round window (fenestra cochlea) is a membrane that connects the cochlea to the middle ear. It helps to dampen the vibrations in the cochlea.

(2)The vestibular system: (consisting of the semicircular canals, saccule and utricle), which is responsible for maintaining balance and a sense of position.

Question 3. What are the sources of Noise Pollution?
Answer:

Sources of Noise Pollution: Noise pollution like other pollutions is also a by product of industrialization, urbanizations and modern civilization.

The main sources of noise pollution are:

1. Road Traffic Noise: The main sources of traffic noise are the motors and exhaust system of autos, smaller trucks, buses and motorcycles. This type of noise can be aug mented by narrow streets and tall buildings, which produce a canyon in which traffic noise reverberates.

2. Air Craft Noise: The low flying military and other air cratts.

3. Noise from railroads: The noise from locomotive engines, horns and whistles, and switching and shunting operation in rail yards can affect neighboring communities and railroad workers.

4. Construction Noise: The noise from the construction of highways, city streets and buildings is a major contributor to the urban scene.
5. Noise in Industry
6. Noise in building
7. Noise from consumer products
8. Fire crackers.
9. Loud speakers in functions

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 4. What are the harmful effects of noise pollution?
Answer: Noise pollution makes men more irritable. The effect of noise pollution is multifaceted & interrelated.

The effects of noise pollution on human beings, animals and property are as follows :
1. It decreases the efficiency of a man: Regarding tne impact of noise on human efficiency there are a number of experiments which print out the fact that human efficiency increases with noise reduction.

2. Lack of concentration: For better quality of work there should be concentration. Noise causes lack of concentration.

3. Fatigue:  Because of noise pollution, people cannot concentrate on their work. Thus they have to give their more time for completing the work and they feel tired.

4. Abortion is caused: There should be cool and calm atmosphere during the pregnancy. Unpleasant sounds make a lady irritative in nature.

5. It causes Blood Pressure: Noise pollution causes certain diseases in human. It attacks on the persons’ peace of mind. The noises are recognized as major contributing factors in accelerating the already existing tensions of modern living. These tensions result in certain diseases like blood pressure or mental illness, etc.

6. Temporary or Permanent Deafness: The effect of nose on audition is well recognized in mechanics, locomotive drivers, telephone operators, etc. All have their hearing impairment as a result of noise at the place of work.

7. Poor quality of Crops: Now it is well known to all that plants are similar to human beings. They are also as sensitive as man. There should be cool & peaceful environment for their better growth. Noise pollution causes poor quality of crops in a pleasant atmosphere.

8. Effect on Animals: Noise pollution damages the nervous system of animal. Animals fooses the control of its mind. They become dangerous.

9. Effect on Buildings: Loud noise is very dangerous to buildings, bridges and monuments. It creates waves which struck the walls and put the building in danger condition. It weakens the edifice of buildings.

Question 5. Show that sound is produced by vibration.
Answer: Only a vibrating body can produce sound. It can be shown by the following experiment. A tuning fork fitted on a hollow rectangular box is taken. Tuning fork is a U-shaped bar with a stem in the middle. A pith ball is suspended from a stand in such a way that the ball just touches one of the arms (or prong) of the tuning fork. Now struck the tuning fork with a rubber hammer, the vibration in the arm is produced with sound fork and the pith ball jumps to and fro. The pith ball vibrates

As long as the sound is produced by the tuning fork. When the prong of tuning fork stops vibrating, no sound ‘ is heard. The pith ball also stops to vibrate. This shows that sound is produced by vibration.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Vibration Of Sound

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 6. What are mechanical waves? Explain the kinds of mechanical waves.
Answer: The waves which require material media for their transmission are the elastic waves or the mechanical waves.

For example vibration in a rope or stretched string, vibration on the surface of water, sound waves in air, etc.
Mechanical waves are of two kinds :
(1) The transverse waves and
(2) The longitudinal waves.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Mechanical Waves

(1) Represents longitudinal waves and
(2) Represents transverse waves.

Question 7. What is transverse wave? Explain with examples.
Answer:

Transverse wave : When each particle of the medium executes vibration in the direction perpendicular to the direction of the propagation of the wave, then it is called Transverse wave.

For example waves on the surface of water, vibrations in a string.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Transverse Wave

Question 8. What is longitudinal wave? Explain with example.
Answer:

Longitudinal wave: When each particle of the medium executes vibration about its mean position in the direction of propagation of the wave, then it is called transverse wave.

For example Sound wave travelling in air, souind wave inside water, etc. The vibrations of the particles in air medium due to propagation of longitudinal wave form compression and rarefaction in air. In the give figure, C represents the position of  compression and R represents the position of rarefaction by a vibrating body (or tuning fork).

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Longitudinal WaveQuestion 9. State the characteristics of wave motion.
Answer:

The characteristics of a wave motion are the following :
(1) The wave is caused due to periodic disturbance and the wave itself is periodic.
(2) When a wave is transmitted in a medium, energy is transferred without actual physical transfer of matter.
(3) The energy transfer in the medium takes place with a constant speed which depends on the nature of the medium.
(4) If more than one waves are travelling through a medium, then they move independently causing interference of waves, reflection of waves, etc.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 10. State the uses of ultrasonic sound.
Answer:

The uses of ultrasonic sound are :
(1) Ultrasonic sound is used for detecting flaws in metal casting or automobile tires.
(2) It is used in welding two pieces of metals together with help of an ultrasonic vibrator.
(3) tis used in cleaning crockery with the help of cleansing liquid and ultrasonic vibrations.
(4) It is used in controlling smoke and clearing fog.
(5) It is used in certain diseases and also to kill the bacteria in the milk.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 11. What is infrasonic or subsonic sound? State its uses.
Answer: Sounds of frequency lower than 20 Hz are called infrasonic or subsonic. We cannot hear the infrasonic sound. The speed of such sound is same as that of audible sound.

Uses : The infrasonic sound is used in drilling deepest wells because the low frequency vibrations break up hard rock more easily than the ordinary drills.

Question 12. What should be the minimum distance for the echo to be heard?
Answer: The sensation of sound persists in our ear for about 0.1 second after the exciting stimulus ceases to act. Hence the echo is heard ‘distinctly if it reaches the ear at least 0.1 second later than the original sound is heard.

If dis the distance between the observer and the obstacle and V is the speed of sound, then the distance covered by the sound to reach the obstacle and then come back is 2d. Thus the time taken is

t=2d/V   or,d=Vt/2.

By putting t = 0.1 second, V = 332 m/sec at ordinary temperature,

d= (332×0.1)/2 = 16.6 m (or nearly 17 m).

Hence, to hear the echo of a sound distinctly, the reflecting surface should be at a minimum distance of 16.6 m (or 17 m nearly) from the observer.

Question 13. A man fired a gun standing between two parallel cliffs. He bate two successive echoes after 3 seconds and 5 seconds respectively. What is the distance between the two hills ? (The velocity of sound in air = 330 m/sec).
Answer: Let the distance between the man and first hill be x m and the distance between the man and second hill be y m.

Hence, distance between two hills = (x + y) m.

Time taken to hear the echo in first case is 5 sec.

Now, v= 330

or, x= m=495m

Similarly, y = m = 825m

Therefore, distance between the hills = (x + y) m

= 495 m + 825 m = 1320 m.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 14. What do you mean by natural vibration or free vibration?
Answer: Whenever a body capable of vibration is displaced slightly from its equilibrium position and then left to itself, the body begins to vibrate freely in its own natural way called free vibration or natural vibration of the body. The amplitude and frequency remain constant.

Free or natural vibration: The vibration of a body with constant amplitude and constant frequency are called free vibrations or natural vibrations.
For example :
(1) when a tuning fork is struck against a hard rubber pad, it vibrates with natural frequency.
(2) When the bob of a simple pendulum is displaced slightly from its mean position, it starts vibrating with its natural frequency.

Question 15. Explain musical sound and noise.
Answer:
All sounds which produce sensation of hearing can be roughly divided into two kind :
(1) Musical sound and
(2) Noise.

(1) Musical sound: Musical sound is a pleasant, continuous and uniform sound produced by the periodic and regular vibrations.
For example The sound produced by Piano, Flute, Violin, etc.WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Musical Sound(2) Noise: Noise is an unpleasant sound produced by an irregular succession of disturbance and discontinuous sound.
For example, The sound produced by large crowd, the horn of a bus, the sound of a hammer on an iron sheet, etc.

Question 16. State the characteristics of a musical sound.
Answer:

There are three main characteristics of musical sound :
(1) Pitch or shrillness
(2) Loudness and
(3) Duality or timber.

(1) Pitch or Shrillness: It is that characteristic of sound by which an acute or shrill note can be distinguished from a grave or flat note. If the pitch is higher, the sound is said to be shrill and if the pitch is low, the sound is flat.

Pitch of a note depends on its wavelength or frequency.

(2) Loudness: It is the property by virtue of which a loud sound can be distinguished from a faint one, both having the same pitch.

Loudness depends on the intensity or amplitude of wave. The loudness of sound de- pends on the following factors :
(1) Loudness is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
(2) Loudness varies inversely as the square of the distance.
(3) Loudness depends on the surface area of the vibrating body.
(4) Loudness depends on the density of the medium.
(5) Loudness depends on the presence of resonant.bodies.

(3) Quality or timber: Quality or timber of a musical sound is that characteristic that distinguishes two sounds of the same loudness and same pitch but emitted by two different instruments. The quality of a musical sound depends on the wave form.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question and Answers

Question 17. Define fundamental note and overtones.
Answer:

When the stretched string of an instrument is plucked or struck, the string vibrates and the transverse waves are produced in the string. When a string is plucked at the middle, the string vibrates in one loop.

When the string is plucked at one-fourth part ns Bo ae of the string it vibrates in two loops then it is 2nd Harmonic called first overtone or first subsidiary vibration. The frequency of this vibration is greater that of fundamental note, when the string is i aeWBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Fundamental Tone
plucked at a distance \(\frac{1}{6}\) of the length from
End, it vibrates in three loops. This is called second overtone or second subsidiary vibration. The frequency of this vibration is three times that of the fundamental tone.

Question 18. Describe a sonometer.
Answer:

A sonometer is a hollow wooden tension. One end of the wire is fixed to a rigid peg, while the other end after passing over a pulley carries a pan. By placing weights on this pan desired tension can be applied to the string. The string rests on two movable wooden triangular bridges fixed with metal plates and placed on the sonometer box.

As the box is hollow when the string vibrates, the air inside the box also vibrates along with it and the intensity of sound produced increases. By changing the positions of the bridges the vibrating length of the wire can be changed.

The frequency of sound produced by the vibrations of the string depends on:
(1) The length of the wire
(2) The tension of the wire and
(3) The mass pér unit length of the wire.

By keeping tension constant of a particular string, sounds of different frequencies can be produced by changing the vibrating length of the wire. It could be seen that lesser the length of the wire (i.e., distance between the bridges), higher is the frequency of the sound produced.


West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 19. Write down Newton’s formula for velocity of sound in air and then state and explain Laplace’s correction.
Answer:

According to Newton, the formula for the velocity of sound in a gaseous medium,

V\(=\sqrt{\frac{P}{D}}\)

Where V is the velocity of sound in the gaseous medium and P and D are the pressure and density of the medium respectively. In establishing this relation Newton assumed that the process of movement of sound through a gaseous medium was a slow process and in the process there was no change in the temperature of the medium. Thus the process was under isothermal (constant temperature) condition.

Now, at N.T.P.

P= 76 cm of Hg pressure

= 76 x 13.6 x 980 dyne/\(\mathrm{cm}^2\)

D= 0.001293 g/\(\mathrm{cm}^2\)

∴ V\(=\sqrt{\frac{76 \times 13.6 \times 980}{0.001293}}\)

= 28000cm/s= 280 m/s

The calculated value of the velocity of sound in air at NTP as calculated following Newton’s formula was found to be much less than the experimentally obtained value of 332 m/s at NTP. Laplace corrected this formula and state that in gaseous medium its temperature does not remain contant. This corrected formula is

V=V\(=\sqrt{\frac{Y P}{D}}\)
where Y is a constant and its value in the case of air is 1.41. According to this formula,

velocity of sound in air at NTP is 280 x \(\sqrt{1.41}\) = 332.5 m/s. Laplace’s value for velocity of

sound in air is thus in good agreement with the experimental values.

Question 20. What is vibration or oscillation? What is a tuning fork?
Answer:

(1) Vibration: When a body moves back and forth repeatedy about a mean position, its motion is called oscillation or vibration. If a system is disturbed from its mean position and left to itself, it vibrates about its mean position.

(2)Tuning fork: The tuning fork is a U-shaped steel bar free at both the ends with a steam or hand at the middle. The two arms of the V-shaped rod are known as the prongs. If any of the prongs is struck with a hammer wrapped with cloth, the prong starts vibrating in a periodic manner. Vibrations produce longitudinal waves in air which when reach our ears, sound is heard.

Question 21. Demonstrate by a simple experiment that sound waves produced in a medium do not transfer the particles. of the medium from one place to another.
Answer:

That during propagation of sound waves there is no displacement of material medium, can be shown by the following simple experiment. One cylindrical shaped metal tube of about one metre long and 10 cm diameter and tappered at one end is filled with white smoke by burning turpentine-soaked paper or cloth.

The flame of a burning candle is placed at the open mouth of the tappered end of horizontally mounted tube. Now, a sound is produced at the other open end of the tube by striking two pices of wooden blocks. The candle flame is found to move away from the mouth of tube and no smoke comes out. This shows that sound waves during propagation transfer energy but no particles of medium.


West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 22. State the condition for resonance. How does natural vibration differ from forced vibration?
Answer:

Conditions for Resonance: When the frequency of the applied periodic force is either equal to or is an integral multiple of the natural frequency of the vibrating body, resonance occurs.

Thus, if the periodic force of frequency n is applied on a body vibrating with its natural frequency, resonance would occur only when n =f, 2f, 3f …. and the body starts vibrating with an increased amplitude.

Difference between natural vibration and forced vibration: In absence of any external force, the frequency of natural vibration of a body depends on the mass, shape and elasticity of the body. On the other hand, in forced vibration a vibrating body acauires the frequency of the applied force but the magnitude of amplitude remains constant. Natural vibration dies down after a while due to frictional force. But the forced vibration ontinues so long as the applied external external periodic force remains in force.

Question 23. Mention the differences between musical sound and noise.
Answer:

Differences between musical sound and noise : There is no sharp line of demarcation between a musical sound and a noise. The same sound which seems pleasant to one person may appear to be unpleasant to. another person under different conditions.
The following are the main differences between musical sound and noise :

Musical sound Noise
1.    It is pleasant and smooth to hear, and produces pleasant sensation in the brain. 1.    It is harsh, discordant and displeasing to hear and produces unpleasant sensation in the brain.
2.    It is produced by the vibrations which are regular, periodic and continuous. 2.    It is produced by an irregular succession of disturbances which are irregular and non-periodic.
3.    There is no sudden change in intensity and loudness of musical sound 3.    There is a sudden change in intensity and loudness of noise.

 

Question 24. What is noise pollution? Mention two of its hazardous effects on public health.
Answer: Noise pollution means creation of discomfort, disturbance and irritation which result to ill effects to mental and physical health.

Harmful effects of noise pollution:
(1) Noise level a little above 85 dB damages our physiological processes. That of 130-140 dB may deafen us and noise of 160 dB may destroy our eardrum permanently.

(2) Noise pollution causes anger, mental depression, loss of concentration that causes school-going pupils unmindful in their studies. Workers in factories and drivers of lorries working in an environment of high noise level are often found to be of rude and aggressive nature.


West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 25. Describe in brief an experiment which shows that a material medium is necessary for propagation of sound.
Answer:

Experiment to prove the necessity of a material medium for propagation of sound :

Experimental setup: A glass jar is placed in an airtight condition on a platform provided with a suction pump. An electric bell kept suspended inside the jar can be operated from outside with a battery.

Experiment: The electric bell is set into operation. Air from inside the jar is gradually drawn out.

Observation: A sound of the bell is heard when the jar is full of air but the sound gradually fades away on withdrawal of air. The sound is again heard clearly when air is reintroduced.

Inference: Since sound from the electric bell is not heard in absence of air within the jar, it proves that sound from a source cannot propagate in absence of a material medium.

Question 26. A pitcher under a tap of running water when gradually fills with water produces flat sounds at the beginning but in later stages the sound becomes sharper and sharper. Why?
Answer: lt may be remembered that the pitch of a sound increases when wavelength decreases and pitch decreases if wavelength increases. Here, at the beginning the sound wave formed due to vibration of the air contained in the pitcher spreads through almost the whole volume of the pitcher, so wavelength is sufficiently large.

Pitch of the sound is thus low, i.e., the sound is flat. As water gradually fills the pitcher, the air space in it slowly decreases, so the sound wave occupies smaller spaces for which its wavelength gradually shortens. The pitch of sound increases gradually, i.e., the sound becomes more and more sharp.


West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 27. A bat while flying makes an ultrasonic sound to detect-an obstacle in its path. The bat hears an echo when it has moved ‘d’ cm forward. If the velocity of the bat be \(V_B\)cm/s and that of the ultrasonic sound is \(V_s\) cm/s, how far is the obstacle from the bat’s initial position?
Answer: Let the initial distance of the bat from the reflector be x cm. The time in which the bat moves d cm, the sound travels the total distance (x + x – d) cm when the bat hears echo.

∴\(\frac{x+x-d}{V_S}\)=\(\frac{d}{V_B}\)  or(2x−d) \(V_B\) = \(V_s\)×d.

x=\(=\frac{d}{2 V_B}\)(\(V_s\) +\(V_B\))cm away from the reflector.

Question 28. The driver of an engine produced a whistle sound of the engine from a distance 800 m away a hill to which the engine was approaching. The driver heard the echo of the whistle after 4.5 seconds. If the velocity of sound is 340 m/s, find the speed of the engine.
Answer: Let the distance between the hill and the position of the engine where the driver received the echo be ‘y’ m. The total distance travelled by the sound for producjng echo = (800 + y) m. Since the echo was heard after 4.5 seconds, in 4.5 seconds sound travelled (340 x 4.5) m or 1530 m.

800 + y = 1530 or y = 730 m.

Now, the engine travelled through a distance (800 – 730) m or 70 before the reaching the spot of reception of echo. This distance of 70 m was covered by the engine in 4.5 s.

∴ Speed of the engine\(=\frac{70 m}{4.5}\)= 15.5 m/s = 55.8 km/hr.


West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 29. A man fired a gun standing somewhere between two hills. He heard one eaho after\(1 \frac{1}{2}\)  seconds and the other after \(2 \frac{1}{2}\)  seconds. Find the distance between the hills if the velocity of sound be 340 m/s.
Answer: The first echo was heard due to reflection of the sound of gunfire from the nearer hill. So, the distance of the man from this hill is half the distance that sound travelled in

\(1 \frac{1}{2}\) seconds and it is equal \( \frac{1}{2}\)\(\left(340 \times 1 \frac{1}{2}\right)\)m or 255 m. Similarly, the distance of the other

hill from the man that caused the second echo after \(2 \frac{1}{2}\)seconds is \( \frac{1}{2}\)\(\left(340 \times 1 \frac{1}{2}\right)\)  m or

425 m. So, the distance between the two hills = (255 + 425) m = 680 m.

Question 30. A man at a certain distance from a cliff receives the echo of a sound after ‘x’ second. He then approaches the cliff by ‘a’ metre and finds the time for echo to be ‘y’ seconds. Show that the velocity of sound is \(\frac{2 z}{x-y}\)m/s.
Answer: Let ‘V’ m/s be the velocity of sound and the initial distance between the man and the cliff be dm.

So, in ‘x’ seconds sound travels through Vx m for making echo and this is equal to 2d m.

∴ VX = 2d. or d=\(\frac{V x}{2}\)
When the man approaches ‘a’ m, the distance of the cliff from him is (d – a) m. So, for
echo the sound.travels Vy m and it is equal to 2 (d – a) m. BY

∴ 2 (d- a) = Vy. or \(2\left(\frac{V x}{2}-a\right)\) (putting the value of ‘d’ shown earlier)

Or, Vx – 2a=Vy  ∴V   \(=\frac{2 a}{x-y}\)So, velocity of sound is \(=\frac{2 a}{x-y}\) m/s.


West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 31. A body vibrating with a particular frequency generates waves of wavelength 0.2 m in a medium ‘A’ where velocity of the wave is 160 m/s. Calculate the wavelength of the wave it will generate in another medium ‘B’ in which its velocity is 240 m/s.
Answer: From the relation V = ni, where V = velocity of wave in the medium A, n =frequency , λ= wavelength,

160 =nx0.2

∴n= \(=\frac{160}{0.2}\) = 800 Hz.

Again, in the medium, B, V =n λ or 240 = 800 x  λ

∴ λ = \(\frac{240}{800}\) Hz.

∴ The required wavelength is 0.3 m. Answer:

Question 32. Why are sound waves called elastic waves?
Answer:

Reason :
(1) Waves require sometime to travel from one place to another. Same thing happens for sound waves.

(2) Vibrations of source are necessary for the production of elastic waves. Sound waves also require vibrations of the source for their production.

(3) The medium through which elastic waves pass is not bodily moved when the waves pass through it. The same thing happens for the sound waves.

(4) Like all other elastic waves, sound waves require a material medium for their propagation.

(5) Sound waves like all other elastic waves undergo reflection, refraction and interference.

Question 33. Show that a material medium is necessary for the propagation of sound.
Answer: A material medium is necessary for the propagation of sound. It cannot travel in vacuum. A material medium necessary for the propagation of sound can be demonstrated by the following experiment.

An electric bell is suspended inside an air tight glass bell-jar connected to a vacuum pump as shown in the given figure. On completing the electric bell circuit we héar the sound of electric bell. Now, air is withdrawn from the jar by starting the vacuum pump, the intensity of sound goes on decreasing. When all the air has been drawn out we do not hear any sound, while the hammer of electric bell is still seen striking repeatedly.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Propagation of soundThis means that sound is produced due to vibrations of bell, but not transmitted to us. This proves that sound requires a material medium for transmission and it cannot travel through vacuum.

Question 34. Define the following terms related to vibration :
(1) Vibration
(2) Amplitude
(3) Time Period
(4) Frequency.

Answer:

(1) Vibration: One complete to and from motion of a body about its mean position is called one vibration.

(2) Amplitude: The minimum displacement of a vibrating body from its mean position (or rest) is called its amplitude.

(3)Time period: The time (in seconds) taken by a vibrating body to complete one vibration is called its time period.

(4)Frequency: The number of complete vibrations that the vibrating body makes in one second is called its frequency. :

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7  Question 35.

Explain that sound has wave like motion.
Answer: A material medium and the vibration of a body are essential for the propagation of sound. When sound propagates through a material medium, then there is no bodily movement of that medium. Hence, it is obvious that sound has wave-like motion. That sound is wave

like in nature can be understood by the following facts :
(1) Sound wave undergoes reflection.
(2) Sound wave travels with a definite velocity in a medium.
(3) Sound waves suffer deviation from the straight path in passing through obstacles which come on the way. This phenomenon is called diffraction.
(4) The superposition of sound may take place at a particular instant. This phenomenon is called interference of sound.

Question 36. Explain the mechanism of propagation of sound through air medium.
Answer: Sound propagates in air by longitudinal waves. When the prong of a tuning fork is struck against a hard rubber pad, it starts vibrating. The vibrations form longitudinal waves in air which reach our ear and we perceive the sensation of sound. The represents the formation of longitudinal waves in air due to the vibrations of one prong P of a tuning fork.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Air MediumWhen the prong moves to the right from its mean position P to A, it compresses the layers of air close to it and thus the volume of these layers at C decreases and pressure increases. These air layers at high pressure and high density, called compression (c), have a tendency to expand.

When the prong returns from A to its mean position, the compression moves to right and reaches to another compression (c). When the prong reaches from mean position P to the other extreme B (to the left), it leaves behind a region of low pressure producing a rarefaction R. The compression shifts from next position at iC.

Thus, in one complete vibration of the prong, one compression and one rarefaction are formed. These compression and rarefaction are alternately produced and continue to travel forward to make a sound wave in air.

Question 37. On what factors does the speed of sound in air depend?
Answer:

The speed of sound is influenced by the following factors:

(1) Effect of density: The speed of sound is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the medium. For example, the density of oxygen is 16 times the density of hydrogen, therefore, the speed of sound in hydrogen is four times than in oxygen.

So, if v be the velocity of sound in a gas of.density d, then.\(v \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{d}}\)

(2) Effect of temperature: The speed of sound increases with an increase in temperature of the gas. For small change in temperature, the speed of sound in air increases by about 0.6 m/sec for each degree Celsius rise in temperature.

(3) Effect of humidity: The speed of sound increases with an increase in humidity. The sound travels faster in moist air than in dry air.

(4) Effect of wind: The speed of sound increases or decreases according to the direction of the wind.

(5) Effect of pressure: The speed of sound is independent of pressure.

(6) Effect of wavelength and amplitude: The speed of sound is independent of wave length and amplitude of sound wave.

Question 38. What are the differences between the light and sound waves?
Answer:

The distinction between the light and sound waves are :

Light Waves Sound Waves
1.    Light waves are the electromagnetic waves. 1.    Sound waves are the mechanical waves.
2.    They can travel in vacuum. 2.    The required material medium for propagation.
3.    These waves are transverse.  3.    These waves are longitudinal (through air).
4.    The speed of light waves is very high = 3x\(10^8\) m/sec.  4.    The speed of sound waves in air is very low = 300 m/sec.

Question 39. Describe the comparison between the transverse and longitudinal waves.
Answer:

The following points explain the comparison between the transverse and longitudinal waves.

Transverse Wave Longitudinal Wave
1.    The particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the propagation of wave. 1.    The particles vibrate’ in the same direction of the propagation of wave.
2.    It forms a series of crests and troughs. 2.    tt forms a series o! compression and refracting.
3.    It can propagate only in solids. 3.    It can propagate in att types of mediums.


Question 40. What is reflection of sound? Explain the reflection of sound with the help of an experiment.

Answer: Sound is reflected by an obstacle obeying the laws of reflection as of light.

The following experiment demonstrates the reflection of sound obeying the law of reflection.
Experiment: In front of a plane surface or a board (say PQ) two hollow tubes (say A and B) are arranged in such a way that they may be inclined equally with the plane surface. Place a clock near the mouth of one tube (A) and ear at the end of another tube (B) as shown in the given diagram. Place a screen (S) between the two tubesWBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Reflection of sound
After adjusting the two tubes, when the ticking of clock is clearly heard to the ear placed at B, angle AOS and angle BOS are measured. It is found that the angle of incidence AOS and angle of reflection BOS are equal.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7  Question 41.

Define the following terms related to wave motion :
(1) Wave velocity
(2) Frequency
(3) Periodic time
(4) Wavelength
(5) Amplitude
Answer: In the given wave motion of a wave WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Wave Motion(1) Wave Velocity: The distance travelled by a wave in one second is called its wave velocity. The wave velocity depends on
(1) The density of medium and
(2) The elasticity of medium.
It is denoted by the letter V. The unit of wave velocity is m/s.

(2) Frequency: The number of waves passing through a point in one second is called the frequency of the wave. It is represented by the letter f. The S.1. unit of frequency is hertz (Hz).

(3) Periodic time or time period: The time taken by a wave to pass through a point is called the time period of the wave.

It is denoted by the letter T.

The relation between time period and wave is given by T\(=\frac{1}{f}\)  or, f\(=\frac{1}{T}\) .

(4) Wavelength: The distance travelled by the wave in one time period is called the wavelength. It is denoted by the letter 4 (lambda). Its unit is metre (m).

(5) Amplitude: The maximum displacement of a vibrating particle about its mean position is called amplitude.

Question 42. What is reflection of sound? State the laws of reflection of sound.
Answer: Reflection of sound : Like light, sound also suffers reflection. When sound is incident on a hard surface like that of brick, wood, stone or a plaster wall, it bounces back.

The reflection of sound does not require a polished or shining surface like a miror. As the wavelength of sound waves are much longer than that of light waves, so sound waves require a much larger reflector for reflection.

Like light, the reflection of sound also obeys two laws; viz.—

(1) The incident sound wave, the reflected sound wave and the normal at the point of incidence on the reflector, all lie in the same plane.

(2) The angle of reflection of sound wave is always equal to the angle of incidence.

Question 43. Write a short note on reverberation.
Answer:

Reverberation: inside the domes of cathedrals or ordinary large rooms echo is not heard because the reflecting sufraces situated there are less than the minimum distance required for the formation of echo. The reflected sound reaches the ear at such a quick succession that it can not be distinguished from the original sound. So one gets the impression that original sound has been prolonged. This effect of prolonging of original sound is called reverberation.

The quality of sound can be improved by the choice of a particular amount of reverberation. In case of orchestral and choral music excessive reverberation is desirable. Again, in some cases excessive reverberation makes the speech of a person indistinct. With excessive reverberation rock music also becomes less pleasing.

For an architect, reverberation time of an auditorium is the main concern. For a good acoustic building, the ceiling of the auditorium should be made by the soft material, the windows should be covered with heavy curtains, padded seats should be arranged in the hall and some plants in pots should also be arranged in the hall to reduce the reverberation time.

Question 44.Mention some measures to control sound pollution.
Answer:

Control of sound pollution: There are three specific measures that could be taken to control sound pollution. These are :
(1) Reducing the noise at the source :
(1) Automobiles and machines should be provided with silencers.
(2) The loud sound of impact on metal surface in factories can be dampened by covering the impact surface with a rubber material.

(2) Reducing the noise on its path :
(1) By taking the source of noise to an isolated area
(2) by placing a noisy machine in a double-walled room
(3) by coating the walls of the auditorium and cinema halls with sound-absorbing materials.

(3) Protecting the receiver :
(1) Some people such as factory workers, bus and engine drivers and mechanics, who have to work in a noisy atmosphere should use ear plugs.
(2) Many devices like ear muffs, noise helmet, etc. are available in the market which prevent sound entering into the ears.

Moreover, each one of us can contribute a lot towards reducing noise by practising silence, or talking with low pitch, keeping the volumes of stereo-music and radio low. Blowing of horns by automobiles and trucks are prohibited in certain cities to reduce the noise and its adverse effects on the health of the citizens.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7 

Question 45. Explain the formation of a wave.
Answer:

Explanation of the formation of wave: The dropped piece of pebble exerts a downward mechnical force on a few nearby water particles. The particles move a bit down ward, forming a temporary depressed region there, which is called Trough. At the same time, the mutual attractive force, known as the cohesive force, acting between these particles and their neighbouring ones, offers an upward pull on them and so they move up again. They move a bit up forming an elevated region which is called Crest. Again, by inertia of motion the particles move down, cross the level and again move up and so on. !n this way an undulatory motion of the particles sets in.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Formation of wave
Thus, the portions of the medium where the surface is at a maximum distance above the normal level are called crests and those at a maximum distance below the normal level are called troughs. The upward and downward arrows, in the diagram, correspondigly indicate cohesive forces which are in opposition to the downward and upward motions of water particles. But energy does not transmit in such a wavy or zig zag manner.

Energy travels in a straight line inside an elastic continuous medium. lf the displacements of a particle in the medium about its mean position are plotted against time, the curve obtained is of a wavy pattern. This is shown in the diagram. In drawing the dia- gram, displacements of each particle in the upward directions or in the right hand directions are considered as positive, those in reverse directions are taken as negative.

The time required for one complete oscillation of a particle in the medium is called the Time period (T). T is
divided in four equal parts, T/4, T/2, 3T/ 4 and T for the respective displacements OA (+), BO (-), OC (—) and DO (+). ‘O’ is the mean position of the vibrating particle. Thus, the shape of the time-displacement curve is wavy

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Zig Zag Manner

 

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7 

Question 46. Write the conditions for the formation of echo.
Answer:

The conditions for the occurrence of echo are :
(1) Reflection of sound must occur from a distant and large body so that the reflected sound reaches the listener.

(2) The minimum distance between the reflector and a listener for hearing echo of a transient sound is 16.6 m and that for a monosyllabic articulate sound should be 33.2 m.

(3) The minimum time interval between a transient sound and its echo and that between a monosyllabic articulate sound and its echo should be respectively 1/10 second and 1/5 second.

(4) A sound and its echo should be similar to hear, only the echo will be a bit fainter than the original sound.

Question 47. Write a short note on the applications of echo.
Answer:

Applications of Echo :

(1) Echo depth sounding : To find depth of an ocean, the device SONAR is attached to a floating ship. Ultrasonic wave from the ship is sent from SONAR to sea bed. The re flected wave from the sea bed is received by an electronic receiver. The time taken by the ultrasonic wave travelling from source and coming back is noted. Knowing the velocity of sound in water, the depth of sea is calculated as

Depth of sea\(=\frac{\text { velocity of sound through water } \times \text { time }}{2}\).

(2) Determination of height of an aeroplane above ground: A sound from SONAR device in the aeroplane is sent from an aeroplane when it a sec B is at the point A on its path along which it flies high above and parallel to the ground. Echo of the sound reaches the aeroplane when it is at the position B after a time t from the instant of gunshot.

Let, velocity of the aircraft be v and that of sound in air V. In the time ‘t’ the aircraft moves. through AB and the sound through AOB.

∴Ac=CB=V.\(\frac{t}{2}\) ;   OA=OB=V.\(\frac{t}{2}\)

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Chapter 7 Sound Height of Aeroplane ∴Height of the aeroplane from the ground,

CO\(=\sqrt{A O^2-A C^2}\)\(=\sqrt{\left(\frac{V t}{2}\right)^2-\left(\frac{v t}{2}\right)^2}\)=\(\frac{t}{2} \sqrt{V^2-v^2}\)

From the knowledge of V, v and t, the height of a flying aeroplane can be determined.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7

(3) Determination of velocity of sound in air with the help of a stopwatch and a pistol: In a wide open space where a high wall stands, a person fires a pistol and simultaneously starts the stop-watch. The sound reflects from the wall and the person hears an echo when he stops the stop-watch immediately. The time interval between the initial sound of firing and its echo is noted, which is t, say.

Since the sound of pistol firing is transient, the minimum distance between the wall and the person must be half of 1/10th of the velocity of sound in air at that time there. Dividing twice the distance between the man and the wall with this time t, velocity of sound ini air at the temperature there is determined.

Question 48. What are the characteristics of progressive waves?
Answer:

The characteristics of progressive waves are :
(1) Progressive waves are produced due to periodic motion of the particles of the medium.

(2) Each particle of the medium executes exactly similar vibrations about to that of wave motion, the wave may be transverse or longitudinal.

(3) The medium, the wave moves in the medium with a particular velocity which is dependent on the density and elasticity of the medium.

(4) Wave transports energy through the medium but not the medium itself.

(5) When a wave passes through a medium, every particle of the medium passes through same changes in pressure and density.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7 

Question 49. What are the factors on which pitch depends?
Answer:

Factors on which pitch depends :
(1) Pitch increases with increase in frequency: In the musical scale, ‘Sa’ — ‘te’ — ‘ga’ — ma’, etc. the frequency gradually increases from ‘sa’ so pitch also increases gradually from ‘sa’, pitch of ‘re’ is more than that of ‘sa’, pitch of ‘ma’ is more than those of ‘sa’ and ‘re’ and so on.

Humming sound of mosquitoes is more sharp than the roar of a tiger: A mosquito Produces a sharp sound because the frequency of vibration of the wings of a flying mosquito is very high. When a tiger roars, the frequency of vibration of its vocal chords is low, so the sound produced is flat but due to large size of the tiger’s vocal chord the emitted sound is of high intensity.

The sound of a wax-coated tuning fork is flatter than that produced by it in its usual condition. The wax-coating increases its mass, so its frequency decreases, causing the flat emitted sound.

(2) Pitch increases when the distance between the source of sound and a listener decreases and vice versa: The pitch of the sound of whistle of an approaching engine gradually increases since its distance from a listener gradually decreases.

(3) Pitch increases or decreases corresponding to decrease or increase of wavelength: Since, velocity of sound in a medium = frequency x wavelength. For constant velocity, if frequency of a sound increases or decreases, its wavelength correspondingly decreases or increases proportionally. So, pitch of a sound increases when wavelength decreases and pitch decreases if wavelength increases.

Question 50. Two persons A and B standing one km apart in open air. ‘A’ fires a gun and ‘B’ receives sound after 3 second of the flash. Calculate the velocity of sound in air.
Answer:

We know,      s=1      km=1000m

V\(=\frac{s}{t}\)                 t=3 sec

or, V\(=\frac{1000}{3}\)        V=?

= 333.3 m/sec.

∴ Velocity of sound in open air = 333.3 m/sec.

Question 51. What should be the minimum distance of the reflector from the source of sound to hear the echo of the word ‘Beautiful’ ? (velocity of sound = 340 m/sec)
Answer:

The word ‘beautiful’ is a trisyllabic word. So to hear it distinctly,

one would require \(\left(3 \times \frac{1}{5}\right)\) sec \(=\frac{3}{5}\) sec to pronounce it.

In  \(=\frac{3}{5}\) sec sound travels\(\left(340 \times \frac{3}{5}\right)\)m = 204 m.

Thus, the minimum distance of the reflector  \(=\frac{204}{2}\)m= 102 m.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7 

Question 52. A vibrating body produces 24 waves in 3 seconds. The distance between a crest and a trough is 0.15 m. Find the
(1) Frequency
(2) Wavelength
(3) Velocity of the wave.
Answer:

Here,(1) Frequency (n) \(=\frac{\text { No. of complete vibrations }}{\text { time taken }}\)=\(\frac{24}{3}\)=  8Hz

(2) Wavelength (λ) = 2 x distance between two consecutive crests and troughs
= (2 x 0.15)m=0.3 m.

and(3) Wave velocity (v) = nλ= (8 x 0.3) ns = 2.4 m/s.

Question 53. The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz and sound travels to a distance of 30 m while the fork completes 24 vibrations. Find the wavelength of the sound emitted and also the velocity of sound.
Answer:

During 24 complete vibrations sound travels 30 m.

∴  During one complete vibration sound travels =\(\frac{30}{24}\)  m = 1.25 m.

∴ Wavelength of the sound (λ) = 1.25 m.

Here, Frequency (n) = 256 Hz.

∴ Velocity of sound wave (v) = nλ = 256 Hz x 1.25 m = 320 m/s.

Question 54. A tunning fork has frequency 256 Hz. Sound produced with it travels 20 m when the fork makes 16 vibrations. Find the wavelength and the velocity of the sound wave.
Answer:

Wavelength is the distance travelled by sound in the time required for one

vibration of the fork. So, wavelength, λ = \(\frac{20}{16}\) m.=1.25Now, from the relation , v = n [v

velocity of sound, nλ = frequency, λ = wavelength = 256 x 1.25 m/s = 320 m/s.

So, the required wavelength is 1.25 m and velocity of sound is 320 m/s.

Question 55. A body vibrating with a particular frequency generates waves of wavelength 0.2 m in a medium ‘A’ where the velocity of wave is 160 m/s. Calculate the wavelength it will generate in another medium ‘B’ in which its velocity is 240 m/s.
Answer:

From the relation V = nλ , where V = velocity of wave in the medium A, n = frequency, λ = wavelength,
160=n×0.2

n\(=\frac{160}{0.2}\)=800 Hz.

Again,in the medium,B,V=nλ    or, 240 × 800×λ

∴ λ\(=\frac{240}{800}\)=0.3

∴  The required wavelength is 0.3 m.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions Chapter 7 

Question 56. The velocity of sound in a certain gas is four times that in air at the same temperature. When a tuning fork is sounded in the air, a wave of frequency 480 Hz and wavelength A, m is produced. The same fork is sounded in the gas and if 1, m is the wavelength of the wave, find the ratio of the wavelengths of sound produced in the gas to that in air.
Answer:

Let \(V_{\text {gas }}\)= Velocity of the wave in the gas.

⇒ \(V_{\text {air }}\) = Velocity of the wave in the air.

⇒ \(V_{\text {gas }}\) = 480 \(\lambda_2\) and \(V_{\text {air }}\) = 480  \(\lambda_1\)

Since \(V_{\text {gas }}\) =4x\(V_{\text {air }}\),\(\frac{480 \lambda_2}{4}\) = 480 \(\lambda_1\)

or,\(\frac{\lambda_2}{\lambda_1}\)\(=\frac{480 \times 4}{480}\)=\(\frac{4}{1}\)

⇒ \(\frac{\lambda_2}{\lambda_1}\)=\(\frac{4}{1}\)

(It is seen that when velocity of a wave increases, the wavelength also increases

proportionally, because from the relation, V = nλ, \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\lambda}\)  =n, which is a constant for constant

frequency. From this argument, it can be said that, \(\lambda_2\), is 4 times \(\lambda_1\)).

Question 57. A sound is made at one end of a hollow iron pipe 950 m long when two sounds are heard at the other end at interval of 2 seconds. If the velocity of sound through air at that time be 336 m/s, find the velocity of sound through iron.
Answer:

If the velocity of sound through iron be V m/s, time required to travel

950 m\(=\frac{950}{V}\) and that required to travel through the same length of air=\(\frac{950}{336}\)s.

∴ 2=\(\frac{950}{336}\)−\(\frac{950}{V}\)

or, \(\frac{950}{V}\) =\(\frac{950}{336}\)−2

∴ V = 1148.3 m/s. So, velocity of sound through iron is 1148.3 m/s.

Question 58. Two sounds are heard at an interval of 2.5 s at one and of a hollow metallic pipe 1000 m long when the other end of it is struck gently. If the temperature of air at the time be 50°C and velocity of sound through air at 0°C be 332 m/s, find the velocity of sound through the material of the tube.
Answer:

Increase in the velocity of sound through air at 50°C over that at 0°C is 61 cm x
50 = 3050 cm = 30.5 m.

∴ Velocity of sound through air at 500C = (320 + 30.5) m/s = 362.5 m/s.

If the velocity of sound through the material of the pipe be V,

⇒  \(\frac{1000}{362.5}\)−\(\frac{1000}{V}\) =2.5

or, \(\frac{1000}{362.5}\)−2.5=\(\frac{1000}{V}\)

or,0.26=\(\frac{1000}{V}\)

∴ V = 3846 m/s (approx.)

∴ Velocity of sound through the material of the pipe is 3846 m/s (approx.)

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water

Class 9 Physical Science  Water Very Short  Answer Type :

Question 1. What is softening of water?
Answer:

The process of removing hardness from water, either temporary hardness or permanent hardness, is called softening of water.

Question 2. On which basis water is called hard and soft?
Answer:

Water is classified in hard and soft according to its ability to form lather with soap.

Question 3. What type of water is used in the boiler?
Answer:

Soft water.

Question 4. Which gas is produced when calcium reacts with water?
Answer:

Hydrogen.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 5. Which one has a greater affinity towards water  Zn or Hg?
Answer:

Zn

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 6. State two causes of the water crisis.
Answer:

Causes of water crisis :

(1) Misuse of water

(2) Water pollution.

Question 7. What are the products obtained from the reaction of sodium and water?
Answer:

Sodium hydroxide and hydrogen.

Question 8. What is the cause of black foot disease?
Answer:

Black foot disease is due to arsenic poison.

Question 9. What is the cause of fluorosis disease?
Answer:

Excess fluoride in water is responsible for fluorosis disease.

Question 10. Which metal reacts with water at ordinary temperature?
Answer:

Potassium.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 11. Give one cause of the water crisis.
Answer:

Wastage of water.

Question 12. What amount of potable water is present in the total water of the earth?
Answer:

0:3%.

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Question 13.

Which metalloid is the cause of water pollution?
Answer:

Arsenic (As).

Question 14. Whose chemical activity is greater between potassium and magnesium?
Answer:

Potassium has greater chemical activity than magnesium.

Question 15. In the activity series of the metals which one has the upper position? Al or Au.
Answer:

Al.

Question 16. What is the temporary hardness of water?
Answer:

The temporary hardness of water is caused by the presence of soluble bicarbonates of calcium, magnesium and iron in it.

Question 17. What is the cause of the hardness of water?
Answer:

This is due to dissolved bicarbonate, chloride, and sulphate salts of Ca, Mg and Fe in water.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 18. What are the types of hardness of water?
Answer:

Two types of hardness of water :

(1) Temporary hardness

(2) Permanent hardness.

Question 19. Which one is more pure deionised water or distilled water?
Answer:

Distilled water.

Question 20. What is an electrochemical series?
Answer:

The electrochemical series is the arranged position of metals according to their standard oxidation potential values.

Question 21. What is the process by which both types of hardness are removed?
Answer:

Removal of both types of hardness is done by an ion exchange process.

Question 22. What is the mass ratio of hydrogen and oxygen in water?
Answer:

The mass ratio of hydrogen and oxygen in water is 1: 8.

Question 23. Who first recognised that water is a compound of two elements (hydrogen and oxygen) in 1783?
Answer:

Lavoisier first recognised that water is a compound of two elements (hydrogen and oxygen) in 1783.

Question 24. What is the fundamental property that makes water so important?
Answer:

Density makes water so important.

Question 25. In a pressure cooker, water boils at what temperature?
Answer:

In a pressure cooker, water boils at a temperature greater than 100°C.

Question 26. At 3.98°C (nearly 4°C), water has a special property. What is this 
Answer:

At 4°C, the density of water is maximum.

Question 27. Mention one special property of water.
Answer:

Water can act as both an acid and base.

Question 28. Mention a unit of concentration equivalent to ppm.
Answer:

The required unit is m/l.

Question 29. Presence of what makes water temporarily hard?
Answer:

Temporary hardness: The hardness of water due to the presence of soluble bicarbonates of calcium, magnesium and iron is called temporary hardness.

Question 30. Presence of what makes water permanently hard?
Answer:

Permanent hardness: The hardness of water due to the presence of soluble chlorides, sulphates of calcium, magnesium and iron is called permanent hardness.

Class 9 Physical Science  Water 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. State the composition of water.
Answer:

Aris : Water is the principal constituent of earth’s surface. Of the total global water, the ocean and inland saline bodies hold 97.3 % and the freshwater amount 2.7 %. Water is made of two elements – hydrogen and oxygen.

The molecules of water consist of two hydrogen atoms bonded to one oxygen atom by covalent compound. The chemical formula of water is \(\mathrm{H}_2\). Water exists in three states solid, liquid and gaseous. At ordinary temperature waiter exists in liquid state.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 2. What do you mean by soft water and hard water?
Answer:

Natural water contains dissolved salts. Depending upon its behaviour towards soap solution, water may classified as soft water or hard water.

(1) Soft Water: Water which produces lather with soap solution readily is called soft water. For example, distilled water, rainwater and demineralized water.

(2) Hard water: Water which does not produce lather with soap solution readily is called hard water.

For example sea water, river water, tap water, etc.

Question 3. Describe the modern method of softening water (Calgon Process).
Answer:

In this modern method, the harmful \(\mathrm{Ca}^{+2}\) and \(\mathrm{Mg}^{+2}\)ions present in hard water are rendered ineffective in the form of soluble complexes by adding substance. For example, sodium poly metaphosphate \(\left(\mathrm{NaPO}_3\right)_{\mathrm{n}}\)(where is a very high number upto 1000), commonly known as calgon, is treated with hard water. Calgon combines with calcium ions and magnesium ions to form complex ions which are soluble in water.

Question 4. Water is regarded as a universal solvent. Explain it.
Answer:

Water can dissolve most of the inorganic substances. Most of the inorganic substances which are of ionic nature dissolve in water. A few organic substances such as urea, alcohol, sugar, etc. also dissolve in water. Many liquids are also miscible in water. Since water dissolves almost every common substance in it to some extent, therefore, water is considered to be a universal solvent.

Question 5. What is black foot disease?
Answer:

Black foot disease: Groundwater sometimes is contaminated with arsenic acid and arsenic acid as a deprotonated form. Consumption of this arsenic-contaminated water for a long period has some poisonous effect in the form of black spots on palms and feets, skin becomes rough. The disease caused by arsenic poison is called black foot disease.

Question 6. What is Fluorosis?
Answer:

Fluorosis: Sea-water, river water contain fluoride from natural source. Excess fluoride in water is responsible for fluorosis disease which is a cause of dental decay and bone decay.

Question 7. What is eutrophication? Explain its cause.
Answer:

Fertilizers, insecticides and pesticides pollute agricultural water. So, waters of rivers, ponds, lakes, canals are polluted as run-offs from agricultural lands flow to these water bodies. Nitrogen and phosphorus of fertilizers accumulate and help in the growth of algae in these water bodies which results in the depletion of oxygen in water, which again affects population of fish and other aquatic animals. This reduction of oxygen level in water is called eutrophication.

Question 8. What is water purification?
Answer:

Water purification is the process of removing undesirable chemicals, biological contaminants, suspended solids and gases from contaminated water. The goal is to produce water fit for a specific purpose. Most water is disinfected for human consumption(drinking water), but water purification may also be designed for a variety of other purposes, including fulfilling the requirements of medical, pharmacological, chemical and industrial applications.

The methods used include physical processes such as filtration, sedimentation, and distillation, biological processes such as slow sand filters or biologically active carbon; chemical processes such as flocculation and chlorination and the use of electromagnetic radiation such as ultraviolet light.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 9. What are dental and skeletal fluorosis?
Answer:

Moderate amounts of fluoride ingestion can cause dental fluorosis, which is characterized by staining and pitting of the teeth. In more severe cases all the enamel may be damaged.Chronic high-level exposure to fluoride can lead to skeletal fluorosis.

In skeletal fluorosis, fluoride accumulates in the bone progressively over many years. The early symptoms of skeletal fluorosis include stiffness and pain in the joints. In severe cases, the bone structure may change and ligaments may calcify, resulting | in impairment of muscles and pain.

Question 10. What is arsenic poisoning?
Answer:

Arsenic poisoning caused by the widespread boring of wells for drinking water has become a major problem, maybe on a scale equivalent to the problem of unhygienic surface water causing diarrhoea disease and other diseases. The skin defects often shown are not the worst, but instead strong cancerogenous negatively affects the immunity defence.

Question 11. What are the sources of natural water?
Answer:

Sources of natural water: Natural water is available from various sources, such as seas, as seas, rivers, lakes or ponds, wells, springs and rain.

Question 12. What is water pollution?
Answer:

Water pollution: Some soluble and insoluble matters in water which produce some harmful effect to men and aquatic animals are called water pollution.

Question 13. What is the cause of hardness of water?
Answer:

Causes of hardness of water: The hardness of water is due to the presence of dissolved salts of metals (except Na, K) particularly calcium, magnesium and iron.

Question 14. Discuss the action of water on sodium and calcium metals.
Answer:

Action of sodium and calcium on water: Sodium and calcium react promptly with water at ordinary temperature with fire and sound. At the end of the reaction metallic hydroxides and hydrogen are found

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 15. What is deionised water?
Answer:

Deionised water: The water that contains no cation other than H+ ion and anion there OH  ion, is called deionised water. Deionised water is prepared only when hard water is allowed to pass through both cation ion exchange and anion exchange resin.

Uses :

(1) In chemical laboratory for qualitative as well as quantitative analysis of presence of ions in a substance, other than OH and H+ ions.

(2) In batteries having lead electrodes.

Question 16. What is permit?
Answer:

Permutit: Permutit is a trade name for artificially prepared zeolite which is sodium aluminosilicate (Na2O, Al2O3,3SiO2,2H2O). Permutit is used to remove the hardness (both types— temporary and permanent).

Question 17. What is meant by permanent hardness of water?
Answer:

Permanent hardness of water: Permanent hardness is caused by the presence of chloride and sulphate salts of calcium, magnesium and iron in water.

Question 18. What is meant by removal of hardness of water?
Answer:
Removal of hardness of water: Hardness is due to the dissolved calcium, magnesium and iron salts. Now if these soluble salts are converted to insoluble salts by any process, then hardness of water is removed.

Question 19. What is meant by temporary hardness of water?
Answer:
Temporary hardness of water: Temporary hardness is caused by the presence of soluble bicarbonates of calcium, magnesium and iron in water.

Question 20. Write down two processes of getting arsenic-free water.
Answer:

Two processes of getting arsenic-free water :

(1) Arsenic is removed from water if water is allowed to pass through a bag made of cloth containing alumina or ferric hydroxide replacing the candle used in the filter. Arsenic or arsenic ions are absorbed in the alumina bed or ferric hydroxide bed and thus are removed.

(2) Take 20 lit. of water, \(\frac{1}{4}\)amount of tea-spoonful of bleaching powder and the same amount of ferrous sulphate in a bucket. After stirring well, arsenic is removed.

Question 21. What is a water crisis?
Answer:

Water crisis: Within 2010 A.D. we are to face a critical situation for potable water. This is because the population is gradually increasing but the supply of sweet water is fixed. This crisis can be overcome by avoiding the wastage of water and by judicious use of available water.

Collection of rainwater and its uses for certain purposes like gardening, car-washing, floor-washing and even bathing can also mitigate the water crisis. Scientists in different countries are engaged in finding a solution to how saline water in sea is desalinated.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 22. How is the harvesting of water done for agriculture?
Answer:

Harvesting of water for agriculture: In India and also in some other parts of world excessive rain water is stored in underground reservoirs. Such subsurface stores of water are freed from huge loss of water by evaporation as it happens in surface reservoirs. This stored water may be used for agricultural works.

Question 23. What is the specific heat capacity of water?
Answer:
Specific heat capacity: High specific heat (1 cal\({g}^{-1}\)) controls environmental temperature. A fixed amount of heat (4.2 J or 1 calorie) absorbed by 1 g of water, when heated through 1°C is called its specific heat capacity. For this high specific heat capacity, the large amount of water on the earth’s surface is able to modify the climate of the nearby land areas, making warmer in winter and cooler in summer. Due to this moderating property land and sea breezes are set up.

Question 24. What is the latent heat of the vaporisation of water?
Answer:

Latent heat of vaporisation: High (540 Cal\({g}^{-1}\)). The heat energy required by water to change into its vapour at its boiling point without any change in temperature is called latent heat of vaporisation of water, its specific value is 540 Cal \({g}^{-1}\). The same amount of heat is released when 1g of steam condenses to form 1g of water at 100°C. Water is a good heat sink. This is the reason why steam causes more serious burns than water at 100°C.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 25. Comment on the density of water.
Answer:

Density: In 1gm/cc, maximum at 4°C, ice has low density. Water freezes on the surface, so aquatic life can survive in the water below even in winter. The latent heat of the fusion of ice is 80 cal/g. The same amount of heat is released when 1g of water solidifies to form 1g of ice at O°C. Due to the high specific latent heat of solidification, lakes and rivers do not freeze suddenly. Ice is a good insulator, the water under the ice can support life.

Question 26. Comment on the boiling point of water.
Answer:

Boiling point: At normal pressure boiling point of water is 100°C. The boiling point of water depends on pressure. If the pressure increases, the boiling point increases, and vice versa. The pressure cooker works on this principle. The high boiling point of water helps us to cook our food. The high boiling point of water is applied to sterilize surgical instruments in boiling water at higher pressure.

Question 27. What is the importance of dissolved matter in water?
Answer:

Importance of dissolved matters in water :

(1) The dissolved salts are essential for the growth and development of plants.
(2) The dissolved matters add taste to water.
(3) These dissolved salts supply the essential minerals needed in our body.

Question 28. What is the importance of dissolved air in water?
Answer:

Importance of dissolved air in water :
(1) Aquatic life-like fishes use the dissolved O, in water for their respiration. (1 dm3 of water contains 40 cm3,O2)
(2) Aquatic plants use dissolved CO2, for photosynthesis to prepare their foods.

(1) \(\mathrm{CO}_2+6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\) \(\underset{\text { Sunlight }}{\stackrel{\text { Chlorophill }}{\rightleftharpoons}} \underset{\text { (glucose) }}{\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_{12} \mathrm{O}_6}+6 \mathrm{O}_2\)

(2) CO2, reacts with limestone in water to form soluble calcium bicarbonate. Marine organisms form shells of calcium carbonate from calcium bicarbonate.

CaCO3+CO2+H2O   →   Ca(HCO3)2
(Calcium Carbonate)     (Calcium Bicarbonate)

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 29. Mention two quality parameters of drinking water.
Answer:

Quality parameters of drinking water. The drinking water must possess the following qualities :
(1) Must be clean, i.e., free from suspended particles
(2) Should be free from soluble salts like arsenic, fluoride, chloride, nitrate, etc.

Question 30. What are the limitations of water disinfection by UV radiation?
Answer:

Limitations of water disinfection by UV radiation :

(1) This process is applicable for small-scale water purifications and power supply dependent too.
(2) For better destruction of microorganisms the contact time of UV rays with water should be sufficient, i.e., Slow flow of water through the UV rays is necessary.

Question 32. Mention two uses of deionised water.
Answer:

Uses of deionised water :

(1) It is soft water like that of distilled water.
(2) There is difference between distilled water and deionised water. Distilled water contains no organic matter and can be used for medicinal preparations.

Question 33. What are the harmful effects of pesticides?
Answer:

Harmful effects of pesticides :

(1) Some of them are carcinogenic damage reproductive system, damage liver, kidney, etc.
(2) The organic chlorine and organophosphorus pesticides, damage the central nervous system (CNS).
(3) These insecticides cannot be removed by the purification of water so at present physiological and neurological problems are increasing.
(4) The inorganic pesticides, Hg, As, Pb, etc. damage liver, blood, brain, kidney Cd, Se damage bone and teeth. Lead poisoning causes mental retardation.

Question 34. What are the harmful effects of fertilizers?
Answer:

Harmful effects: Due to increase of plant nutrients in the form of nitrogen, carbon and phosphorus in water bodies increase algal growth (aquatic weeds), this is called eutrophication. The excessive growth of algae which deoxygenates water. As a result amount of dissolved oxygen will reduce to a great extent, the aquatic animals die, the water release foul odour and becomes unfit for use.

Class 9 Physical Science Water 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. What are the causes of hardness of water?
Answer:

The hardness of water is due to the presence of the bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphate salts of calcium and magnesium metals. These salts dissolve in rainwater when it passes through the ground and rocks. Soaps are sodium salts of higher fatty acids like stearic acid (C17H35COOH), oleic acid (C17H35COOH), or palmitic acid (C17H31COOH)When soap is added to hard water, these anions combine with Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions to form calcium and magnesium salts which are insoluble in water.

MgCl2 + 2C17H35COONa= (C17H33COO)2  Mg+ 2Nacl

The magnesium chloride from hard water reacts with sodium stearate soap and precipitates insoluble magnesium stearate which is insoluble in water. Therefore, no lather is produced until all the calcium and magnesium ions are precipitated.

When soap is added to hard water, these anions combine with ions to form calcium and. magnesium salts which are insoluble in water.

MgCl2 + 2C17H35COONa= (C17H33COO)2  Mg+ 2Nacl

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 2. Describe the different types of hardness of water.
Answer :

The hardness of water is of two types :

(1) Temporary hardness and
(2) Permanent hardness.

(1) Temporary hardness: Temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium dissolved in it. The hardness is called temporary because it can be very easily removed by simply boiling the hard water for some time.

(2) Permanent hardness: This type of hardness is due to the presence of sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium dissolved in water. Since this type of hardness cannot be easily removed, therefore, it is called permanent hardness.

Question 3. State the methods of removing permanent hardness of water.
Answer:

The permanent hardness of water as well as the temporary hardiness (total hardness) of water can be removed by the following methods :

(1) By treating with washing soda
(2) By ion exchange method
(1) Inorganic cations exchanger (Permutit method)
(2) Organic ion exchanger
(3) By Calgon process (modern method).

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 4. Describe the removal of permanent hardness of water by organic ion exchanger (lon exchange resin process).
Answer:

In this method various synthetic ion exchange resins are used to remove the permanent hardness of water. Resins are organic compounds containing the sulphonate group. In this method, hard water is first passed through a bed of cation exchange resin. The cations ofCa2+and Mg2+ will exchange with H* ions of the resin (represented by R) as

Ca2++2Cl+2H+R → CaR2+2H++2Cl

Mg2++SO42-+2H+R → MgR2+2H++SO42-

The water which comes out from the bottom of the first tank contains H+ ions. This water is passed into the second tank containing a bed of anion exchange resin. It exchanges its
OH–  ions with Cr ions in water :

Cl+HOR → ClR+2OH

Now,H++OH  = H2O

Thus, the water obtained by this method is free from all types of cations as well as anions and is called Deionized water.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Organic Ion ExchangerThe exhausted resin in the first tank is regenerated by treatment with conc. hydrochloric acid or sulphuric acid.
The exhausted resin in the second tank is regenerated by treatment with conc. solution of sodium hydroxide.

Question 5. State the physical properties of water.
Answer :

(1) Pure water is a colourless, odourless and tasteless liquid at ordinary temperature.
(2) The freezing point of water to ice is 0°C.
(3) The boiling point of pure water at normal pressure is 100°C.
(4) Its molecular mass is 18.015 (approx. 18).
(5) Its maximum density (gm/cubic cm) at 4°C is 1.
(6) It can dissolve most of inorganic substances.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 6. Describe the chemical properties of water.
Answer:

Water displays a versatile chemical behaviour. It behaves as an acid, a base, an oxidant, a reductant and acts on some metals.

Few of its main chemical properties are :

(1) Alkali metal as sodium readily decomposes water at ordinary temperature. It evolves heat and liberates hydrogen gas.

2Na+2H2O=2NaOH+H2↑

(2) Calcium reacts slowly with cold water and liberates hydrogen. With hot water, calcium reacts quickly to form hydrogen gas.

Ca+2H2O=Ca(OH)2+H2

(3) Water hydrolyses oxides of non-metals forming their respective acids.

SO2+H2O=H2SO3

(4) Water reacts with carbides, nitrides, etc. and gives. organic compounds. For example, calcium carbide (CaC2 )reacts with water giving acetylene gas.

CaC2+2H2O=Ca(OH)2+C2H2

Wbbse Madhyamik Class 9 Physical Science And Environment 

Question 7. Describe the methods of removal of temporary hardness of water.
Answer :

Temporary hardness of water can be removed generally by two methods :

(1) By boiling and
(2) By Clark’s process or addition of lime.

(1) By boiling: Temporary hardness of water can be removed by boiling the hard water in large boilers. During boiling the bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium decompose into insoluble carbonates and gives carbon dioxide. The insoluble carbonates can be removed by filtration.

Ca(HCO3)2=CaCO3+H2O+CO2

Mg(HCO3)2=MgCO3+H2O+CO2

(2) By Clark’s method or addition of lime: When temporary hard water is treated with calculated amount of lime, it reacts to form insoluble carbonates of calcium and magnesium, which can be filtered out and hence water becomes soft.

Ca(HCO3)2+Ca(OH)2=2CaCO3=2H2O

Mg(HCO3)2+Ca(OH)2=MgCO3+CaCO3+2H2O

Question 8. Describe the method of removing permanent hardness of water by washing soda.
Answer:

To remove the permanent hardness of water, it is treated with a calculated amount of washing soda (Na2CO3). Washing soda converts the chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium dissolved in water into their respective carbonates which get precipitated.

CaCl2+Na2CO3=CaCO3+2NaCL

MgSO4+Na2CO3=MgCO3+Na2SO4

Hence, water becomes free from Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions, and it becomes soft.

Question 9. Describe the physical properties of water.
Answer:

The Summary Table of Physical Properties :

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Physical Properties

Question 10. What are the water quality parameters for drinking water?
Answer:

Water quality parameters provide important information about the health of a water body. These parameters are used to find out if the quality of water is good enough for drinking water, recreation, irrigation, and aquatic life.

The water quality parameters for drinking water depend on:

(1) Alkalinity
(2) Ammonia,
(3) Dissolved Oxygen (DO)
(4) Faecal Coliform Bacteri
(5)Flow
(6)Hardness
(7)Nitrate
(8) Nitrite
(9)pH
(10)Phosphorus
(11)Specific Conductance
(12) Temperature
(13) Total Organic Carbon (TOC)
(14)Total Dissolved Solids (TDS)
(15)Total Suspended Solids (TSS)
(16) Turbidity.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 11. Describe thé inorganic cation exchanger (permutit method) for removing permanent hardness of water.
Answer :

Permutit method: Inorganic cations exchanger are naturally occurring minerals or artificially synthesised substances. ‘Its chemical name is hydrated sodium aluminium ortho silicate (Na2. Al2Si2O8.XH2O) It is commonly written as Na,Z where Z stands for (Al2Si2O8.XH2O), where x is ‘the number of molecules. Zeolite is also ‘known by the name permutit.

When Zeolite comes in contact with Ca2+ or  Mg2+ions, it exchanges its sodium ions with them to form calcium Zeolite (CaZ) or magnesium zeolite.

Na2z+Ca2+ Cax+2Na+    Na2z+Mg2+ Mgz+2Na+

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Permutit Method

Procedure: The permutit softener consists of a long cylindrical tank. It contains one outlet at the bottom to remove soluble salts of calcium or Soft water magnesium. Another outlet is provided at the top for removing soft water. Two inlet pipes are ZF Permutitintroduced to bring hard water and saline solution of common salt The saline solution of common salt is introduced when zeolite gets exhausted.

Question 12. How is water treated for drinking?
Answer:

There are three acceptable ways to treat drinking water: boiling, chlorine bleach, or distilling. Distillation and treatment systems from the camping store have problems if you are trying to provide water for a household. In general, boiling and bleaching are the best.

Boiling: Water should be boiled for at least 5 minutes to sanitize it. Some agencies recommend boiling for 10 minutes just to be safe. Boiled water tends to taste flat because there is no air in it. You can add air by pouring the water back and forth between two clean containers. Doing this will also improve the taste of your stored or bottled water.

Bleach: Treating water with bleach is very effective at killing germs, and it doesn’t taste funny to most of us because ‘this is basically what most city water supplies do. You need to have a bottle of plain liquid chlorine bleach and a dropper. The bleach should be 5 to 6 percent sodium hypochlorite with no preservatives and no additional ingredients. Do not use scented
bleaches, colour safe bleaches, powdered bleaches, or bleaches with added cleaners.

Distillation: Distillation requires boiling the water and catching the vapour as it condenses back to water. Distillation has all the same problems as boiling and produces very small amounts of usable water. In addition, although distilled water is virtually free of germs, it is not necessarily free of chemicals.

Other Water Treatments: There are other ways to treat water for drinking. Camping, stores sell water treatment kits that use chemicals or filters to purify water. You can also buy filtering systems to purify water. These are not the filters you put on your faucet to make your water taste better.

They are special filters that are designed to make unsafe water pure enough to drink. Some use resins or charcoal to hold the germs and others have pores so small that bacteria can’t pass through them. Filters are not going to purify a lot of water and they quickly become used up or clogged up.

Question 13. What are the major causes of water pollution in India?
Answer:

There are several causes of water pollution in India.

The main causes are briefly described as under:

1. Urbanisation: Rapid urbanisation in India during the recent decades has given rise to a number of environmental problems such as water supply, wastewater generation and its collection, treatment and disposal.

2. Industries: Most Indian rivers and other sources of fresh water are polluted by industrial wastes or effluents. All these industrial wastes are toxic to life forms that consume this water. The total wastewater generated from all major industrial sources is 83,048 Mid which includes 66,700 Mid of cooling water generated from thermal power plants.

Use of chrome, tanning of leather, use of azo-dyes in fabrics, use of cadmium in ornaments and silver-ware, electroplating with cyanide baths, production of dye-intermediates and other refractory and toxic chemicals, etc.

3. Agricultural run-off and improper agricultural practices: Traces of fertilizers and pesticides are wasted into the nearest water-bodies at the onset of the monsoons or whenever there are heavy showers. As the point of entry of such agricultural inputs is diffused throughout the river basin, they are termed as non-point sources of pollution. Although irrigation has increased considerably in the country, little measures have been taken to tackle the problem of the high salinity return water.

4. Withdrawal of Water: Irrigation canals whisk away clean water soon after the rivers reach the plains, denying water to flow in the river downstream. The river-turned drain flow downstream with little or no fresh water unless a large river augments the depleted flows.

5. Religious and Social Practices: Religious faith and social practices also add to pollution of our river waters. Carcasses of cattle and other animals are disposed of in the rivers. Dead bodies are cremated on the river banks. Partially burnt bodies are also flung into the river. All this is done as a matter of religious faith and in keeping with ancient rituals.

These practices pollute the river water and adversely affect the water quality that offerings from a puja be immersed in a river. It is now common to see people immersing offerings in plastic bags. Plastic bags are very dangerous and further add to the pollution load of the river.

Question 14. What are the common sources of groundwater pollution?
Answer:

The following diagram explains the common sources of groundwater pollution.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Water Pollution

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 15. Explain the groundwater arsenic pollution in the Bengal basin.
Answer:

The source of arsenic in India’s groundwater continues to elude scientists more than a decade after the toxin was discovered in the water supply of the Bengal delta in India.

The environmental crisis began after large traces of the element were detected in the groundwater in the Bengal Basin – an area inhabited by more than 60 million residents. This has caused a water shortage, illness and death in the region, leaving residents unable to use the water even for ordinary tasks like washing dishes or ablution. Arsenic pollution causes skin lesions, respiratory failure and cancer when present in high concentrations in drinking water.

Arsenic in groundwater constitutes a major human health issue in many countries globally. it is particularly acute in the Bengal Delta Plains in Bangladesh and india but has also prevalent in many other parts of the world, including Argentina, Chile, Mongolia, and the United States. The problem of arsenic poisoning in the Bengali countryside has received considerable media attention since it affects a maximum number of people, 30 million in Bangladesh and 5 million in West Bengal.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Arsenic pollution in the Bengal Basin

Question 16. Explain Fluoride contamination of groundwater.
Answer:

According to the Department of Drinking Water Supply, out of 593 districts from which data is available, water in 203 districts has shown high fluoride (Susheela, A. K, 2001). As seen from the map below, almost all states in India have districts where groundwater contains excess levels of fluoride.

Question 17. How is deionised water prepared?
Answer:

Preparation of deionised water: Water is treated with some resins which contain carboxylic acid radical __COOH or __SO3H (sulphonic acid radical). The cations, Ca2+ Na+ Fe2+, etc. present in water are removed on the exchange of these with H+ ions of —COOH or ___SO3H of resin. If the resin is represented as RH, where R is the resin polymer, H is hydrogen of acid radicals present in the resin, the chemical equations are given as follows

CaCl2+2RH=R2Ca +2HCl

NaCl+RH=RNa+HCl

After the removal of cations, water contains some acid radicals like HCl. To remove the acid radicals, water is treated with another type resin of basic nature. In this way, the water is freed from all types of ions, except Ht and OH ions and this is deionised water.

Question 18.
(1) What is fluoride?

(2) Name one harmful fluoride and state some of its bad effects on hum
(3) State some injurious effects of presence of the fluoride in water.
Answer:

(1) Fluoride is meant by any binary compound of fluorine.
(2) The most harmful compound of fluoride is hydrogen fluoride (HF). It violently attacks the skin, forming sores. Due to inhalation of vapour of this fluoride, loss of voice takes place and finally death results:
(3) The presence of traces of some fluorides in water is. very dangerous. Some of the injurious effects of fluoride are given below
(1) Loss of calcium from bones causing skeletal weakness.
(2) Discolouration of teeth.
(3) Bending of the kness of sides, known as, Genu Valgum.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 19. Discuss the difference of activity of the metals with water on the basis of the position of the metals in electrochemical series.
Answer:

Difference of activity of the metals in reaction with water :

(1) The metal with highest electron-releasing ability is placed in the topmost position. Metals placed in the electrochemical series react with water according to their positions in the series.

(2) The chemical activity of metals entirely depends on their position in the electrochemical series. The metal which occupies a higher position than any other metal has greater value:

(1) Electropositive character,
(2) Reducing capacity,
(3) Chemical reactivity.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Metals react with waterQuestion 20.
(1) When may the water in a soil layer be considered arsenic-polluted?

(2) State two harmful effects of drinking water that contains arsenic beyond permissible limit.
(3) State one arrangement for supply or arsenic-free water.

Answer:

(1) According to the World Health Organisation (WHO): The permissible limit of arsenic in drinking.water is 0.05 mg/I. So, the water in a soil layer that contains more than 0:05 mg/I arsenic is polluted.

(2) Harmful effects of arsenic: On drinking water containing arsenic beyond the permissible limit, diseases like skin pigmentation, organ failure may occur.

(3) Supply of arsenic-free water :

(1) Arsenic is removed from water if water is allowed to pass through a bag made of cloth containing alumina or ferric hydroxide replacing the candle used in the filter. Arsenic or.arsenious ions are absorbed in the alumina bed or ferric hydroxide bed and thus are LES

(2) Take 20 litres of water,  ¼ amount of tea-spoonful bleaching powder and the same amount of ferrous sulphate in a bucket. After stirring well, arsenic is removed.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 21. What is Permutit process?
Answer:

Permutit process: Both types of hardness can be removed cheaply in this process. Permutit is a commercial name for artificially prepared zeolite which is sodium aluminosilicate (Na2O, Al2O3, 3SiO2, 2H2O). It is a natural hydrated large sized crystalline substance.

A bed of granules of permit is kept in porous shelves staged with stone and sand are placed above and below the shelf containing bed of permutit. When hard water kept in a tank is allowed to pass through the bed of permutit, due to exchange of ions the hardness of water is removed and soft water is obtained. Let the ion-exchange material permit be formulated as Na2Ze, where Ze is the zeolite

Radical. The chemical reactions are given as follows :

Na2Ze+Ca(HCO3)2=CaZe+2NaHCO3

Na2Ze+CaCl2=CaZe+2NaCl

NaZe+MgSO4=MgZe+Na2SO4

After the use of permutit for some time when the permutit gets exhausted and loses its activity, it is regenerated by passing an aquecus solution of sodium chloride by which permutit gets back its exchange capacity.

CaZe+2NaCl=Na2Ze+CaCl2

MgZe+2NaCl=Na2Ze+MgCl2

Permutit water-softening plants are used in private houses and factories and also for softening public water supplies of towns.

Question 22. Water is a versatile solvent. Explain.
Answer:

Solvent properties: Water is a good solvent because :

(1) It is in liquid state in wide range of temperatures (0° − 100°C) at 1 atmospheric pressure.
(2) It has a high dielectric constant (80).
(3) Water is a polar solvent and it dissolves most of the ionic compounds, acids, bases, etc.
(4) It acts as an amphoteric solvent (acts as a base by accepting H+ to dissolve acid and acts as an acid to donate H+ to dissolve base), e.g. HCl+H2O  → H3O+Cl–  NH3+H2O  → NH4OH
(5) Many covalent compounds like sugar, alcohol, and amines dissolve in water.
(6) Air and many gases dissolve in water in small amounts. Water can dissolve large class of compounds, so it is called the versatile. solvent.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 23. Discuss the process of disinfection of water by ultraviolet radiation.
Answer:

Disinfection of water by ultraviolet radiation: At present, domestic water purifiers are available, by this type of purifer water is purified in three stages.

(1) The tap water is first filtered through a al candle,
(2) the filtered water is then passed through a candle packed with activated charcoal and
(3) this filtered water is then passed through a chamber fitted with a U.V lamp. The UV-radiation destroys microorganisms like bacteria, etc. This process is an attractive option in many cases because the waier in this cases is chemical free.
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Disinfection by UV-Radiation
Limitations of this process :

(1) This process is applicable for small scale water pu- Disinfection by UV-radiation ratifications and power supply dependent too.
(2) For better destruction of micro-organisms the contact time of UV rays with water should be sufficient, i.e., slow flow of water through the UV rays is necessary.
(3) The organic matters present in water are disintegrated to radicals, these free radicals are harmful for human tissues.

Question 24. Mention the limitations of chlorination to disinfect drinking water.
Answer:

Limitations of Chlorination to disinfect drinking water :

(1) Giardia and cryptosporidium are generally resistant to chlorine unless it is used in higher doses than those generally preferred for treatment.
(2) The residual chlorine in water imparts an unpleasant taste in treated water.
(3) Presence of too much residual chlorine may produce chemical byproducts with organic matters in water, some of which are carcinogenic.

Question 25. Mention the disadvantages of using drinking water.
Answer:

Disadvantages of using hard water :

(1) Water with high hardness is not good for health.

(2) Hardwater is unsuitable for cooking many hard foodstuffs like pulses.

(3) Hard water is unfit for laundries because it

(1) consumes too much soap and

(2) leaves dirty stains of Ca, Mg, and Fe salts of fatty acids on cloth (This problem does not cause by use of detergents).

(4) Hard water does not have a pleasant taste, so it is not suitable for drinking.

(5) Hard water is not suitable for use in boilers for the production of steam in industries. During boiling hard water produces white deposits of insoluble substances called scales. The scales consist mainly of CaCO3, MgCO3, MgCO3and CaSO4 The deposit on the walls of the boiler these scales are heat insulating. This causes greater consumption of fuels, they also block the pipes which may cause accidents.

(6) Hard water cannot be used in paper and dying industries.

Question 26. Mention the uses of deionised water. 
Answer:

Use of deionised water :

(1) It is soft water like that of distilled water.

(2) There is difference between distilled water and deionised water. Distilled water contains no organic matter and can be used for medicinal preparations.

(3) Deionised water contains organic matter like pyrogen so it cannot be used for injection water.

(4) Deionised water is used in laboratories for analytical work, in wet batteries, boilers and laundries, etc.

Question 27. How did life originate in water ?
Answer:

Origin of life: The earth as a planet originated about 4600 million years ago. The atmosphere was composed of hydrogen, methane, ammonia and water vapour. There was hardly any oxygen and no life could develop because the surface was very hot. As the earth began to cool, the first steps were taken towards life about 3500 million years ago.

The water vapour condensed to form oceans and it is believed that the first living organisms appeared in the ocean. These unicellular organisms fed on the organic molecules surrounding them, bring them down to obtain their chemical energy without the help of oxygen. More than a billion years later, the green pigment chlorophyll developed and enabled certain organisms to create food using sulight and form oxygen gas.

Water evaporates from large surfaces like rivers, lakes and oceans The water vapour, on reaching the cooler upper regions of the atmosphere, condenses and falls as rain or snow. The water cycle is called this never-ending cycle of evaporation of water and condensation of water vapour.

Question 28. What is the role of water in the human body and in plants?
Answer:

Role of water in the human body :

(1) Water is a medium of transport of chemicals to and from cells.

(2) Water regulates the temperature of the body by the process of sweating and evaporation.

(3) Blood is a colloidal solution of many substances, such as salts, proteins, enzymes, glucose, etc. in water.

(4) Metabolic reactions occur in water. Role of water in plants :

(1) Water helps in the germination of seeds.

(2) Besides carbon dioxide, water is also used by plants for manufacturing food by photosynthesis.

(3) Water is the medium of transport of different minerals.

Question 29. What are the properties of water in the role of life?
Answer:

Properties of water in the role of life :

(1) Specific heat: The specific heat of water (4200 J/kg °C) is highest among the solid and liquid substances. So water is considered as a huge storehouse of heat energy. In hot water comparatively high heat is present for a long time, hence it is widely used in hot water bags or hot water bottles. In cold countries, the houses are kept hot by flowing hot water through pipes.

As it takes more health, it is also used as a coolant in different machines and engines of automobiles. Due to high specific heat, water becomes hot very slowly than the surface and again becomes cool by leaving heat. That is why both land breeze and sea breeze are formed at the sea shore and they control the rain and climate of a country.

(2) High boiling point: Pure water boils at 100°C at a pressure of 76 cm of mercury. Boiling point of water increases with increase in atmospheric pressure and decreases with decrease in atmospheric pressure. The boiling point of water increases due to the presence and concentration of dissolved impurities. Due to high boiling point and high specific heat itis used in hot water bag.

(3) Capillary action: Minerals present in the soil ‘dissolve in the water and form a solution. This solution is then absorbed by the roots and is conducted upwards through the plant tissues due to the capillary action of water.

(4) Solvent: Water is a covalent compound. It has a unique property to break the electrostatic forces holding the ionic compounds. Thus, ionic compounds rapidly dissolve in water. Covalent compounds like sugar, urea, and glucose are also dissolved in it because covalent compounds always dissolve in covalent solvents. For this reason, water is called as universal solvent.

Question 30. How does detergent pollute water?
Answer:

Pollution of water by detergent: Detergents are surfactants, i.e., surface active agents and builders. Surfactants have the following properties and hence cause water pollution.

(1) Bio-micro organisms (i.e., bacteria present in the water of lakes or rivers) are not able to bio-degrade the surfactants, i.e., surfactants are not decomposed by the bio-micro- organisms and hence large volumes of detergent foam make water polluted.

(2) Builders are generally sodium salts of phosphoric acid, sulphuric acid, etc. The builders form stable soluble complexes with Ca* and Mg?*. These complexes act as plant nutrients and cause a rapid growth of algae and weeds in the water. The growth of these plants appears as green sludge on the water surface. These plants do not generate oxygen in water and hence aquatic animals die.

Question 31. Mention the pollutants generated by some common industries.
Answer:

Pollutants generated by some common industries: Industries Pollutants
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Common Industries

Question 32. Mention the major water pollutants, their sources and effects.
Answer:

Major water pollutants, their sources and their effects :

(1) Pathogens:

Bacteria and other microorganisms: They are the agents responsible for so many of water-borne diseases.

Sources: Domestic sewage, animal excreta.

Example: Bacteria such as Escherichia coli, and streptococcus faecalis.

Effect: Diseases are caused like gastrointestinal disease, etc.

(2) Organic wastes: The wastes are biodegradable, which are decomposed by bacteria in water and thus consume dissolved oxygen in water (which is only 10 ppm or parts per million).

Sources: Domestic sewage, decaying and plant body.

Example: Leaves, grass, trash, etc.

Effect: Depletion of dissolved oxygen and thus causing a threat to the aquatic lives. It increases the BOD of water. BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) measures organic material in water, in terms of how much oxygen will be required to break down that material. Clean water should have BOD less than 5 ppm, whereas polluted water may have BOD of 15 or more.

(3) Chemical pollutants : Inorganic: They include heavy metals, sulphates, nitrate, etc. They are dangerous mostly because our body can not excrete them.

Sources: Industries and chemical factories, mine drainage, etc.

Example: Heavy metals like lead (Pb), Cadmium (Cd), mercury (Hg). Salts like fluoride (in excess), sulphated, nitrates, detergent, etc.

Effect: Heavy metals damage kidneys, central nervous system, liver, etc. Acids, salts affect in many ways that include decay of tooth and bone (F°); laxative effect (sulphate), disease like ‘blue body syndrome’ (nitrate), etc.

(4) Chemical pollutants: Organic: It includes petroleum products, pesticides, fertilizers and many other industrial chemicals.

Sources and examples: Major oil spills in oceans, DDT, PVC (polyvinyl chloride), PCB (Polychlorinated biphenyls), phosphates in fertilizers, industrial sewage, etc.

Effects: Some of them are carcinogenic (PVC, PCB). Phosphates cause unlimited growth of algae that consume large amounts of oxygen and thus destroy the natural balance of water-body and aquatic life and subsequently cause loss of biodiversity. This process of algae bloom and what follows is known as “Eutrophication”.

(5) Other pollutants: They include sediments due to erosion of soil by agriculture and strip mining, radioactive substances (nuclear power plant, uranium mining) and heat (water from industrial cooling towers).

Question 33. Write a short note on water treatment.
Answer:

Purification of water: Water treatment: As we have already seen to purify water means to make water free from solid particles, suspended or colloidal particles, bacteria, ionic impurities, and other harmful impurities.

Depending on the methods used, the source water and the usage of treated water, the “water treatment” can be broadly classified into three categories as explained in the following chart.WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Water Water Treatment

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

 

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Concept Of Mole

Concept Of Mole Very Short Answer Type :

Question 1. Which scientist gave the concept of molecules first?
Answer: Scientist Amadeo Avogadro gave the concept of molecules first.

Question 2. Define a molecule.
Answer:
Molecule: A molecule is the smallest particle of the substance (element or compound) which can exist independently.

Question 3. What is the number of molecules in 1°8 g water? (H=I, O=16)
Answer: 6023 x 10+23.

Question 4. Write the name of the scientist who gave the idea of the molecule.
Answer: Avogadro.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 5. What is the number of molecules in 22°4 liter of ammonia at STP?
Answer: 6.023 x 1023J

Question 6. If the number of molecules in V liters of hydrogen gas at STP is n, what is the number of molecules in \(\frac{v}{10}\) liters of CO2 gas at STP?
Answer: Number of molecules in \(\frac{v}{10}\) litres of CO2 gas =\(\frac{n}{10}\)

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 7. How many atoms are present in one molecule of sulphuric acid ?
Answer: 7 (H = 2, S=1, O = 4).

Question 8. What is the number of nitrogen atoms in 14 g of nitrogen gas?
Answer: \(=\frac{6^{.} 023 \times 10^{23}}{2}\) =3.115 x 1023

Question 9. What is the number of molecules of oxygen in one mole of oxygen molecule?
Answer: 6.023 x 1023. molecules.

Question 10. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are present in 11 grams of carbon dioxide?
Answer: 1.50575 x 1023.

Question 11. What would be the volume of 22 gram of carbon dioxide at standard temperature and pressure -? (C=12, O=16)
Answer: 11.2 liters.

Question 12. In 22.4 liter of ammonia and 22.4 liters of carbon dioxide at NTP will
(1) The number of molecules be the same or different
(2) The number of atoms be the same or different?
Answer:
(1) Same
(2) different.

Question 13. What is atomicity?
Answer: Atomicity is the number of atoms present in the elementary molecule of a substance.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 14. What is the number of electrons in one mole of electrons?
Answer: 6.023 x 1023 electrons. (Avogadro’s Number of electrons).

Question 15. What is the value of Avogadro’s number?
Answer: The value of Avogadro’s number is 6.023 x 1023.

Question 16. What is the mass of 1 gm mole CO2?
Answer: 1 mole CO2 = gm molecular mass of CO2 = molecular mass expressed in gram = 44 gram.

Question 17. What is the atomic mass of oxygen?
Answer:  Atomic mass of oxygen is 16 a.m.u.

Question 18. What is the number of molecules in one mole of an element?
Answer: Number of molecules in one mole of any element is 6.023 x 1023.

Question 19. What is the relation between one mole and gram molecular mass?
Answer: One mole of a molecule means its gram molecular mass.

Question 20. How many atoms of oxygen are present in one mole of it?
Answer.
As oxygen is diatomic, number of atoms in one mole = 6.023 x 1023 x 2 = 127046 x 1023.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 21. a.m.u. stands for what?
Answer: a.m.u. is the abbreviation of atomic mass unit.

Question 22. Name the element which is taken as the standard for measurement of atomic mass.
Answer: Carbon-12 isotope is taken as the standard for measurement of atomic mass.

Question 23. The unit of which physical quantity is the mole?
Answer: A mole is the unit of the amount of a substance.

Question 24. What is the mass of 1 gram H-atom?
Answer: 1 gram H-atom means gm atomic mass of hydrogen, i.e., 1 gm of hydrogen.

Question 25. What is the volume of 1 gram mole of any gas at S.T.P.?
Answer:  The volume of one gram mole of any gas at S.T.P. is 22.4 liters.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

Question 26. How many grams make 1 gram atom of nitrogen?
Answer: Atomic weight of nitrogen = 14. So, 14 grams of nitrogen is equivalent to, 1 gram atom of nitrogen.

Question 27. What is meant by 1 mole H2?
Answer: Molecular mass of Hydrogen (H2) is 2. So, 1 mole H2 is 2 gm hydrogen.

Question 28. How many H, molecules are contained in. one mole of hydrogen gas?
Answer: Number of hydrogen molecules in mole of hydrogen gas = 6.023 x 1023.

Question 29. What is the relation between molecular weight and vapour density?
Answer: Molecular weight is twice the vapour density of a gas.

Question 30. What is the number of molecules in one gram-molecular weight of a gas at N.T.P.?
Answer: 67023 x 1023

Question 31. What is the vapour density of a gas? 
Answer: The vapour density of a gaseous substance is the ratio of the weights of certain volume of that gas and the same volume of Hydrogen gas at N.T.P.

Question 32. What is meant by ‘1 mole NH3?
Answer: The molecular weight of NH3 = 14 + 3 = 17.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Solutions

17g of ammonia (NH3 ) = 1 mole.

Question 33. What is mole of a substance?
Answer: Molecular weight of a substance expressed in gram is called mole of the substance.

Question 34. What is molar volume of a substance?
Answer: Molar volume of a substance is the volume of gram molecular weight of any substance in gaseous state.

Question 35. What is vapour density of a gas?
Answer: Vapour density is the ratio of weights of some volume of a gas or vapour to the weight of same volume of hydrogen at same temperature and pressure.

Question 35. What is Avogadro’s number?
Answer: Avogadro’s number is the number of molecules present in 1 gram molecule of a substance.

Question 37. What is the atomicity of helium?
Answer: Atomicity of helium is 1.

Question 38. Who postulated the atomic theory?
Answer. John Dalton postulated the atomic theory.

Question 39. Give the name of a monoatomic gas.
Answer: Argon (Ar).

Question 40. Which element has atomicity 4?
Answer: Phosphorus.

Question 41. Which one is heavier between 2 gram-molecule ammonia and 2-gram-molecule carbon dioxide?
Answer: 2 gram-molecule ammonia = (2 17) g = 34 g NH3 .

2 gram-molecule carbon dioxide = (2 44) g = 88 g CO2 .

So, 2-gram-molecule carbon dioxide is heavier than 2-gram-molecule ammonia.

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 4.2 Question Answer

Question 42.Determine the moles of atoms for each of the following elements (1) 64 g of O (2) 23.8 g of U [M = 238]
Answer:
(1) 4.0 mole
(2) 0.1 mole.

Question 43. Determine the gram of each element in (1) 2.0 moles of K (2) 0.1 mole of U.
Answer:
(1) 78 g
(2) 23.8 g.

Question 44. A small cup of coffee contains 3.14 mol of water molecules. How many H2 O molecules are present in it 
Answer:  1.891 x 1024.

Question 45. The mass of a copper coin is 3.2 g. Suppose it was pure copper. How many moles of Cu atoms would the coin contain, given a molar mass of Cu of 63.54 g mol?
Answer. 0.0504 mol Cu.

Question 46. Determine the formula mass of the following compounds.
(1) Na3PO4 (atomic mass : Na = 23, P = 31)
(2) Cu3(PO4)2 (atomic mass : Na = 23, P = 31)
Answer:
(1) 164
(2) 382

Question 47. Determine the moles of molecules in 500 g of CaCO3.
Answer: First, determine the formula mass of CaCO3.

Formula mass =(1×40)+(2 × 14)+(6×16)=164

n=\(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)=\(\frac{500 \mathrm{~g}}{100 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)

Question 48. Determine the moles of molecules in 13.2 g (NH4)2SO4.
Answer: 0.1 mol.

Question 49. Determine the grams of the compound in 2.5 mol of Ca(NO3)2. Formula mass = (1 x 40) + (1 x 12) + (3 x 16) = 100. Apply n= 5 mc
Answer:

Formula mass = (1 x 40) + (2 x 14) + (6 x 16) = 164; n=\(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)

∴ m=n x M=2.5 mol x 164 g mol = 410 g.

Question 50. Find the molar mass of Na2SO4.
Answer:

Molar mass = (2 x molar mass of Na) + (molar mass of S) + (4 x molar mass of O)

= (2 x 22.99) + (32.06) + 4(16) g mol-1

 = 142.04g mol-1

Concept Of Mole 2 Marks Question And Answers:

Question 1. What is the molar volume of a gas at STP?
Answer: Molar Volume: The volume of a gram molecule of any gas ai STP is called its molar volume. Its value at STP is 22.4 litres.

We know, 1 gram molecule of a gas contains Avagadro’s number of molecules.

So, molar volume of a gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.

Question 2. What is Berzillius’ hypothesis ?
Answer:  Under same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain the same number of atoms.

Question 3. Two identical jars contain CO2 and NO at the same temperature and pressure. Which jar contains a greater number of oxygen atoms?
Answer: According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, both the gases contain equal number of molecules. Each molecule of CO2 contains 2 oxygen atoms whereas each molecule of NO contains 1 oxygen atom. So, the jar containing CO2 will have more oxygen atoms.

Question 4. What is the importance of Avogadro’s law in chemistry?
Answer:

(1) It is the Avogadro’s law which stated the difference between molecules and atoms for the first time.
(2) Gay-Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes can be proved with the help of this law.
(3) With the help of this law we can correlate Gay-Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes and Dalton’s atomic theory.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answer

Question 5. ‘Molecular weight of nitrogen is 28’ – what does it mean?
Answer:  The molecular weight of nitrogen is 28, i.e., one molecule of nitrogen is 28 times heavier than 1/16th of the weight of one atom of ‘16O or one molecule of nitrogen is 28 times heavier than 1/12th of the weight of one atom of 12C.

Question 6. Out of 2 g of hydrogen and 16 g of oxygen, whose volume is greater at standard temperature and pressure and why?
Answer: Molecular weight of hydrogen = 2 x 1 = 2.

Therefore, volume of 2 g of hydrogen at STP is 22.4 l.

Molecular weight of oxygen = 2 x 16 = 32.

Therefore, volume of 32 g of oxygen at STP is 22°4 |, i.e., volume of 16 g of oxygen at STP is 112 |. So, the volume of 2 g of hydrogen is greater than that of 16 g of cxygen at STP.

Question 7. Define Avogadro’s law.
Answer:  Avogadro’s law states that “under identical conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules”.

For example: If we enclose equal volumes of three gases Hydrogen (H2), Oxygen (O2) and Chlorine (Cl2) in different flasks of the same capacity (volumes) under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, we find that all the flasks have the same number of molecules. However, these molecules may differ in size and mass.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Question Answer

Question 8. What do you mean by the atomicity of a gas?
Answer:

Atomicity: The number of atoms present in one molecule of a substance is called its atomicity. Avogadro’s law helps in determining the atomicity of gaseous elements such as hydrogen, oxygen, chlorine, etc.

For example, The atomicity of oxygen (O2) is 2, the atomicity of chlorine (Cl2) is 2, etc.

Question 9. Define the atomic mass of an element in the C12 scale.
Answer:

Atomic mass: The atomic mass of an element is defined as the average relative mass of an atom of an element as compared to the mass of an atom of Carbon [C12] taken as 12.

In other words, atomic mass is a number that expresses as to how many times an atom of the element is heavier than 1/12 th of the mass of a Carbon atom [C12]. Therefore,

\(\text { Atomic mass }\)=\(\frac{\text { Mass of atom }}{\left.1 / 12 \text { Mass of Carbon}[ \mathrm{C}^{12}\right]}\)

Question 10. What is the atomic mass unit?
Answer: One atomic mass unit is defined as the quantity of mass equal to 1/12  of the mass of an atom of Carbon [C12].

The scale of relative masses of atoms is called the atomic mass unit scale. It is abbreviated as a.m.u.

Question 11. What is average atomic mass? What is the average atomic mass of chlorine?
Answer: Many elements occur in nature as mixtures of several isotopes. To define the atomic mass of these elements is to determine the atomic mass of each isotope separately and then combine them in the ratio of their proportion of occurrence. This is called average atomic mass.

Chlorine occurs in nature in the form of two isotopes with atomic masses 35 and 37 in the ratio of 3:1 respectively. Therefore,

Average atomic mass of chlorine \(=\frac{35 \times 3+37 \times 1}{3+1}\)= 35.5 a.m.u.

Question 12. Define Gram Atomic Mass or Gram Atom.
Answer:

Gram Atomic Mass: The atomic mass of an element expressed in grams is the gram atomic mass or gram atom.

For example The atomic mass of oxygen = 16 a.m.u.

Therefore, gram atomic mass of oxygen = 16 g.

Question 13. Define the molecular mass of a substance.
Answer:

Molecular mass: The molecular mass of a substance may be defined as “the average relative mass of its molecular as compared to the mass of an atom of Carbon (C12) taken as 12”.

For example, The molecular mass of CO2 is 44 a.m.u.

Question 14. Find the relation between molecular weight, molar volume and density of a gas.
Answer: The relation between molecular weight, molar volume and density of a gas is mo lecular weight = molar volume x density.

15. Which is heavier between 1 mole carbon and 1-mole sodium? Why?
Answer:  1 mole of sodium is heavier. Because atomic mass of sodium is 23 and atomic mass of carbon is 12.

16. How many grams of CO, is produced when 12 g of carbon is burnt in excess of oxygen?
Answer: C + O2= CO2 (CO2= 12 +2 x 16 = 12 + 32 = 44)

44 g CO2 is produced when 12 g carbon is burnt in excess oxygen.

Question 17. The volume of 0°44 gram of a gas at STP is 224 cm. What is its molecular mass?
Answer: Volume of gram molecular mass of the gas = 22.4 litre at STP
= 22400 cm3.

Molecular mass \(=\frac{0.44 \times 22400}{224}\)=44.

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 4.2 Question Answer

Question 18. What is the number? of molecules in each of 32 grams of oxygen and 44 grams of carbon dioxide? (C=12, O=16)
Answer:
No. of molecules of 32 gm of oxygen at N.T.P.= 6.023 x 1023 molecules.
No. of molecules of 32 gm of oxygen at N.T.P.=6.023 x 1023molecules.

Question 19. What is the volume of 4 grams of sulfur-di-oxide gas at standard temperature and pressure? (S = 32, O = 16).
Answer: Gram molecular mass of sulfur dioxide (SO2)= 32 + 32 = 64 gm.

At NTP, 64 gm of SO2 occupies a volume of 22.4 litres.

∴\(\frac{22 \cdot 4 \times 4}{64} \text { litre }\)

liter = 1.4 litres.

∴ The required volume is 1.4 liters.

Question 20. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are present in 11 grams of carbon dioxide ?
Answer: Gram molecular mass of CO2 = 12x 16 x 2

= 12 + 32 = 44 gm.

At. N.T.P. 44 gm of CO2 will have 6.023 x 1023 no. of molecules.

Question 21. What would be the volume of 22 grams of carbon dioxide at standard temperature and pressure? (C = 12, O = 16)
Answer: Gram molecular mass of CO2 = 12 x 32 = 44 gm.

At, N.T.P. 44 gm of CO2 will occupy 22.4 litre

1  gm of CO2 will occupy=\(\frac{22 \cdot 4}{44}\)

22  gm of CO2 will occupy=\(\frac{22.4 \times 22}{44_2}\)=11.2 litre.

∴The required volume = 11.2 litres.

22. What is the number of molecules in 1 g mol of hydrogen and also in 1 gm of hydrogen?
Answer: Number of molecules in 1 g mol of H2

= 6023 x 1023.

Now, 1 g mol of H2= 2 g of H2.

∴ Number of molecules in 1 gram of

hydrogen \(=\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{2}\)

= 3.0115 x 1023 

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 4.2 Question Answer

Question 23. What is the volume of 4 g of SO2 gas? at standard temperature and pressure? (S= 32, O = 16)
Answer: Mass of 1 gm mol of sulphur dioxide (SO2)

=82+2×16=64g.

Volume of 64 g of SO2 at STP = 22.4 L.

∴ Volume of 4 g of SO2 at STP =\(=\frac{22. 4}{64} \times 4\)

=1.4 L.

Question 24. What is the number of molecules present in 1.8 g of water?
Answer:

Gram-molecular weight of water = 18 g.
∴The number of molecules in 18 g of water = 6.023 x 1023 .

∴ Number of molecules in 1.8 g of water

\(=\frac{6023 \times 10^{23}}{18} \times 1.8\)

= 6.023 x 1023 

Question 25. The volume of 0.44 g of a gas at STP. is 224 cm3. What is the molecular weight of the gas?
Answer: 22.4 L = 22.4 x 1000 cm3= 22400 cm3

Here, mass of 224 cm3 of the gas = 0.44 g.

∴  Mass of 22400 cm3 of the gas

\(=\frac{0.44}{224} \times 22400\) =44g.

∴ Molecular weight of the gas = 44.

Question 26. Determine the mass of one molecule of water.
Answer: Molecular weight of water = 18; therefore, the gram-molecular weight of water = 18 g.

We know, the number of molecules in 1 g. mol of water = 6.023 x 1023

∴ The mass of 6.023 x 1023  molecules of water = 18 g.

∴ The mass of 1 molecule of water

\(=\frac{18}{6^{.023 \times 10^{23}}} \mathrm{~g}\)

=2.9885x 10-23 g

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 4.2 Question Answer

Question 27. 64 g oxygen = how many g atom of oxygen?
Answer: Gram-atomic weight of oxygen =16 g.
Now, 16 g oxygen = 1 g atom of oxygen.

∴ 64 g oxygen \(=\frac{1}{16} \times 64\)

= 4g atom of oxygen.

Question 28. 2 g atom of sulphur.= how many grams of sulfur?
Answer: Atomic weight of sulphur (S) = 32.

∴1g atom of S = 32 g of S.

∴2g atom of S = 32 x 2= 64 g of S.

Question 29. 5. g mol of water = how many grams of water?
Answer: Molecular weight of water (H2 O)

=2×1+16=18.

∴ g mol of water = 18 g of water.

∴ 5 g mol of water = 18 x 5 = 90 g of water.

Question 30. 200 g of CaCO3 = how many g mol of CaCO3?
Answer:  Molecular weight of CaCO3

= 40+12+16×3= 100.

∴100 g of CaCO3= 1 g mol of CaCO3

∴ 200 g of CaCO3 \(=\frac{200}{100}\)

= 2g mol of CaCO3.

Question 31. What is the mass of 14 | of oxygen at STP?
Answer: Molecular weight of oxygen = 32.

Mass of 22.4 l of oxygen at STP = 32 g.

∴ Mass of 14 l of oxygen at STP \(=\frac{32 \times 14}{22.4}\)

= 20g.

Question 32. If the mass of 2.24 ‘| of a gas at STP is 4.4 g, what would be the molecular weight of that gas ?
Answer: Mass of 2.24 l of the gas at STP = 4.4 g.

∴  Mass of 22.4 l of the gas at STP \(=\frac{4.4 \times 22.4}{22.4}\)=44g.

∴  The gram-molecular weight of the gas = 44 g.

∴  The molecular weight of the gas = 44.

Question 33. What is the mass of 4 g mol of oxygen in grams? What would be the volume of that quantity of oxygen at STP?
Answer: Molecular weight of oxygen (O2) = 32.

∴ 1 g mol of O2 = 32 g of O2

∴ 4g mol of O2= 32 x 4 = 128 g of O2

Again, we know, volume of 1 g mol of O, at STP = 22.4 l

∴ Volume of 4 g mol of O2 at STP

= 22.4 x 4  l = 89.6  l.

Question 34. How many grams of oxygen are there in 2 g atom of oxygen? What is the number of oxygen molecules in it?
Answer: We know, 1 g atom of oxygen = 16 g of oxygen.

∴ 2 g atom of oxygen

= 16 x 2 = 32g of oxygen.

∴ 1 g mole 32 g of oxygen contains 6.023 x 1023 molecules.

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 4.2 Question Answer

Question 35. What is the number of molecules in 1 g mol of hydrogen and also in.1 gram of hydrogen?
Answer: Number of molecules in 1 g mol of H2 = 6.023 X 1023
Now, 1 g mol of H2  = 2 g of H2

∴ Number of molecules in 4 gram of hydrogen \(=\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{2}\) = 3.0115 x 1023

Question 36. Determine the moles of atoms for each of the following elements. (1) 36g of C (2) 6.4 g of O.
Answer:

The formula is, n = uM m= mass in g given, M = g atomic mass in g mol

n = number of moles

(1)m=369,M=12g mol-1     

∴ n\(=\frac{36 \mathrm{~g}}{12 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)=3 mole

(2) m= 6.4 g, M= 16 g mol-1

∴ n \(=\frac{6.4 \mathrm{~g}}{16 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}}\)=0.4 mole

Question 37. Determine the grams of each element in (1) 3.0 moles of He; (2) 0.10 mole of C.
Answer:

m = nM

(1)n=3.0 mol, M=4g mol-1

∴ m=3.0 mol x 4.08 g mol-1= 12.0 g

(2) n= 0.1 mol, M= 12 g mol-1

∴ m=0.1 mol x 12.0g mol-1 = 1.2g

Question 38. Determine the formula mass of the following compounds (1) Fe2O3 , (2) CO2 (atomic mass: Fe = 56, O = 16).
Answer:

(1) Fe2O3 ⇒ (2 x 56 +3 x 16) = 112 + 48 = 160.

(2) CO2  ⇒ (1x 124+ 2x 16) = 12+ 32=44,

Question 39. How many moles of NH3 can be produced from 2.0 mol H, in the reaction? N2(g) + 3H,(g) 2NH3(9)
Answer:

From the balanced chemical equation, we see that 3 mol H, reacts (with 1 mol N2) to give 2 mol NH3.

2.0 mol of H2 \(=\frac{2}{3} \times 2\)=\(\frac{4}{3}\)

=1.33mol of NH3

Concept Of Mole 3 Marks Questions And Answers

Question 1. What are the corollaries obtained from Avogadro’s hypothesis?
Answer:

The following corollaries are obtained from Avogadro’s hypothesis

(1) The molecules of elementary gases are diatomic, e.g. hydrogen, oxygen, etc.

(2) The difference between a molecule and an atom is shown by this hypothesis.

(3) The molar volume of any gas at N.T.P. is 22.4 lit.

(4) The molecular weight of any gas is twice its vapour density.

(5) The molecular formula of any gas can be found out.

Question 2. What is meant by standard density and vapour density of a gas?
Answer: The mass of 1 litre of a gas at STP expressed in gram is called the standard density of the gas.
Example: Standard density of hydrogen is 0.0898 g L-1. This means that the mass of 1 L of hydrogen at STP is 0.0898 g.

Vapour density or relative density: Of a gas may be defined as the ratio of the weight of a certain volume of the gas to the weight of the same volume of hydrogen gas, measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure.

ie., vapour density of a gas, D \(=\frac{\text { mass of } V \text { volume of the gas }}{\text { mass of } V \text { volume of hydrogen }}\) (at the same temperacture and pressure).

Question 3. What is gram-molecular volume or molar volume? What is its value at STP?
Answer: At STP the volume occupied by one gram-mole of any gas is called the grammolecular volume or molar volume of that gas.

This volume depends on temperature and pressure but does not depend on the nature or properties of the gas.

The gram-molecular volume of any gas at STP is 22.4L. As,

(1) The volume of one gram-mole of O2 or 32 g of O2 i.e., molar volume of oxygen at STP = 22.4 L.

(2) The volume of one gram-mole of CO2  or 44 g of CO2 i.e., molar volume of CO2 at STP = 22.4 L.

Question 4. In 22.4L of ammonia and 22.4L carbon dioxide at STP,
(1) will the number of molecules be the same or different?
(2) will the number of atoms be the same or different?
Answer:

(1) According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain equal numbers of molecules. Therefore, in 22.4 L of ammonia and 22.4 L of carbon dioxide gases at STP, the number of molecules will be the same.

(2) One molecule of ammonia (NH3) contains 1 atom of nitrogen and 3 atoms of hydrogen, i.e., total number of atoms (1 + 3) = 4. On the other hand, one molecule of carbon dioxide (CO2) contains 1 atom of carbon and 2 atoms of oxygen, i.e., total number of atoms (1 + 2) = 3. Therefore, the number of atoms in the above two cases will be different.

Question 5. Explain the concept of a molecule.
Answer: Just as the ultimate particle of an element is an atom, the ultimate particle of a chemical compound is called a molecule. The molecules are made up of atoms of the same or different elements and are capable of independent existence. Thus, a molecule
contains two or more atoms. The properties of a substance are due to the properties of its molecules. Molecules can be classified into two types :

(1) Homoatomic molecules: These molecules are made up of the atoms of the same element. For example, molecules_as H2 , N2 , O2 , P4, etc.

(2) Hetroatomic molecules: These molecules are made up atoms of different elements. For example, molecules of HCI, CO2,  NH3, CH4 , etc.

Question 6. Explain how Avogadro’s law can be applied in different chemical reactions.
Answer: Avogadro’s taw explains any chemical reaction involving gases. For example, in case of the formation of hydrogen chloride gas, we observe that one volume of hydrogen gas combines with one volume of chlorine gas to form two volumes of hydrogen chloride
gas.

This can be explained in the following equation :
Hydrogen + Chlorine —> Hydrogen Chloride gas
1 Volume 1 Volume 2 Volume
Suppose, one volume of a gas contains n molecules. Therefore, according to Avogadro’s
law, we have
= Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen Chloride gas
n molecules + n molecules  →  2n molecules

or,  1 molecules + 1 molecule → 2 molecules

or,  ½  Molecules + ½  Molecules → 1 molecules

This implies that one molecule of hydrogen chloride gas is composed of ½ a molecule of hydrogen and ½  molecule of chlorine. This is possible because a molecule may contain
more than one atom. One molecule of hydrogen is found to contain 2 hydrogen atoms. Thus, ½ molecule of hydrogen means one atom of it. Similarly, ½ molecule of chlorine
means one atom of it. Therefore, one molecule of hydrogen chloride is formed from one atom of hydrogen and one atom of chlorine. This is in agreement with Dalton’s atomic theory.

Question 7. Explain mole concept. Define mole with examples.
Answer: It has been found experimentally that one gram atom of any substance contains as many atoms as are present in one gram atom of carbon (12C), ie., in 12 g of 12C. The Value of the number is found to be 6.023 x 1023. Hence, a mole represents 6.023 x 1023 atoms or molecules.

Mole: A mole is the amount of any substance that contains as many elementary particles (atoms, molecules or ions) as there are atoms in exactly 0.012 Kg (i.e., 12 g) of
carbon (12C).

Hence, one mole = 6.023 x 1023 particles

One mole of atoms = 6.023 x 1023 atoms.

One mole of molecules. = 6.023 x 1023   ions.

The number 6.023 x 1023  is called Avogadro’s number.

8. Give examples of atomic mass of some common elements referred to 12C= 12.
Answer:
Table : Atomic mass of a few common elements referred to  12C = 12.

Element Symbol         Atomic mass Element                                    Symbol

                            Atomic mass

Aluminium A1 27.0 Lead Pb 207.2
Antimony     Sb 121.8 Lithium Li 6.94
Arsenic AS 74.9 Manganese Mn 54.9
Argon Ar 18 Magnesium Mg 24.3
Beryllium Be 9.01 Mercury Hg 200.6
Bismuth Bi 209 Neon Ne 20.2
Boron B 10.8 Nickel Ni 58.7
Bromine Br 79.9 Nitrogen N 14.0
Calcium Ca 40.1 Oxygen O 16.0
Carbon C 12.0 Phosphorus P 31.0
Chlorine Cl 35.5 Potassium K 39.1
Copper Cu 63.5 Silicon Si 28.1
Fluorine F 19.0 Silver Ag 107.9
Helium He 4.0 Sodium Na 23.0
Hydrogen H 1.0 Sulphur S 32.1
Iodine l 126.9 Tin Sn 118.7
 Iron Fe 55.8 Zinc Zn 65.4


Question 9. How many (1) Molecules, (2) Nitrogen atoms, and (3) Hydrogen atoms are there in 11.2 liters of ammonia at STP? 

Answer: 11.2 liters of ammonia contains

(1) ½ x (6.023 x 1023 ) molecules = 3.0115 x 10% molecules.

(2) Number of nitrogen atoms = 3.0115 x 1023.

(3) Number of hydrogen atoms = 9.0345 x 1023.

Question 10. State Avogadro’s law. If there are 6.022x 1023 molecules present in V litre of nitrogen gas at STP, how many molecules are present in 2V litre of sulphur dioxide gas at STP?
Answer:
Avogadro’s law:  Equal volumes of all gases under the same condition of temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules. 6.023 x 1023 molecules of any gas at STP occupies 22.4 lit.

∴ V litre = 22.4 litre

∴ No of molecules in 2V litre of sulphur dioxide

= 6.023 x1023   x 2 = 12.046 x 1023 .

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answer

Question 11. lf the number of molecules in 22.4 l of CO, gas at STP be 6.023 x 1023 , what would be the number of molecules in 11.2 l of  O2 gas at STP?
Answer: Number of molecules in 22.4 l of CO gas at

STP = 6.023 x 1023.

According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, the number of molecules in 22.4 l of O2  gas at STP would also be 6.023 x 1023

∴The number of molecules in 11.2 lof O2 ,  gas at STP

\(=\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{22.4} \times 112\)=3.011 x 1023

Question 12. What is the volume of 7 g of nitrogen at standard temperature and pressure? (N = 14)
Answer:  Atomic weight of nitrogen = 14.
Since nitrogen is a diatomic gas, the molecular weight of nitrogen = 14 x 2= 28.

∴ 28 g of nitrogen = 1g mol of nitrogen

or, 1 g of nitrogen = \(\frac{1}{28}\) g mol of nitrogen

or, 7 g of nitrogen \(\frac{1}{28} \times 7\)= \(\frac{1}{4}\) g mol of nitrogen

We know,
volume of 1 g mol of nitrogen at STP = 22.4 l

∴ volume of g mol of nitrogen at STP \(=\frac{22 \cdot 4}{4} l\)=5.6 l.

Question 13. Calculate the gram molecular mass of sugar (C12 H22 O11)s
Answer: Since the atomic mass of C = 12, H =1 and O = 16,

molecular mass of sugar (C12 H22 O11)

= 12x 124+22×1+16x 11 = 342.

Therefore, gram molecular mass of sugar = 342 g.

Question 14. What is the gram-molecular weight of potassium chlorate? (K = 39, Cl = 35.5, O = 16)
Answer: The molecular formula of potassium chlorate is KCIO3,Therefore, molecular weight of potassium chlorate

= 39+ 355+16×3

= 39 + 35.5 + 48 = 122.5

∴ Gram-molecular weight of KCIO3 = 122.5 g.

Question 15. How many g mol of sulphuric acid are there in 49 g of sulphuric acid? (5 = 32,O=16, H=1)
Answer:  Molecular formula of sulphuric acid is H2SO4

Therefore, molecular weight of sulphuric acid

=2×1+32+4×16

=2+ 32+ 64=98

∴  98 g of  H2SO4 = 1 g. mol of H2SO4

or 1 g of  H2SO4 =\(\frac{1}{98}\) mol of H2SO4

or, 49 g of H2SO4 = \(\frac{1}{98}\) ×49  mol of H2SO4

= 0.5 g. mol of H2SO4.

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 4.2 Question Answer

Question 16. Mass of 11.2 | of a gas at STP is 22 g. What is the molecular weight of that gas?
Answer:
Mass of 11.2 l of the gas at STP = 22 g

∴  Mass of 1 of the gas at STP \(=\frac{22}{11 \cdot 2}\)

∴  Mass of 22.4 l of the gas at STP \(=\frac{22}{11.2} \times 22 \cdot 4\)=44g

Question 17. The vapour density of a gas is 16. What is the mass of one molecule of that gas?
Answer: Vapour density of the gas = 16.
Molecular weight of that gas
= 2 x vapour density
=2x 16 = 32.

Therefore, 1 g mol of that gas = 32 g.
We know, the number of molecules present in 1 g mol of the gas is 6.023 x 1023 g

∴ Mass of 6.023 x1023  molecules = 32 g

or , Mass of 1 molecule  = 32 ⁄ 6.023×1023 g

= 5.3129 x 10-23 g.

Question 18. If in 18 g of water, the number of molecules is n, what is the number of molecules in 100 g of CaCO3 and 44 g of CO2? What is the value of this number? (Ca = 40,C = 12, O = 16)
Answer:
Molecular weight of H2O = 2x 1+ 16 = 18
∴ 1 g mol of water = 18 g of water

Molecular weight of
CaCO3 = 40 + 12+ 16x 3 = 100

∴  1 g mol of CaCO3 = 100 g of CaCO3
Molecular weight of
CO2 = 12 + 16x 2 = 12 +32 = 44

∴ 1g mol of CO2 = 44 g of CO2

We know, 1 g mol of any substance contains the same number of molecules.

∴  if there be n molecules in 18 g of water, i.e., in 1 g mol of water, there would be n molecules in 100 g of CaCOi.e., in 1 g mol of CaCO and there are also n molecules in 44
g of CO2 i.e., in 1 g mol of CO2.

This number is called Avogadro’s number. Its value is 6.023 x 1023.

WBBSE Class 9 Physical Science Chapter 4.2 Question Answer

Question 19. What is the mass of 4 g mol of oxygen in grams? What is the volume of that Z quantity of oxygen at STP?
Answer:

Molecular weight of oxygen = 32.
Therefore, mass of 1 g mol of O2 = 32 g.

Or, mass of 4 g mol of O2 = 32 x 4 = 128g.
Volume of 1 g mol of O2 at STP = 22.4 l.

Volume of 4 g mol of O2 at STP = 22.4 x 4

= 89.6 l.

Question 20. What are the numbers of oxygen atoms and hydrogen atoms in 0.9 g of water?
Answer:  Molecular weight of H2O = 2x 1+ 16 = 18.

Therefore, 18 g of water = 1 g mol of water

or, 1 g of water \(=\frac{1}{18}\) g. mol of water

or, 0.9 g of water  \(=\frac{1}{18}\) × 0.9 or  ½  mol of water

Now, 1 g mol of water contains 6.023 x 1023 molecules

\(=\frac{1}{20}\) mol of water contains  \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{20}\)molecules = 3.0115 x 10 molecules.

Now, since 1 molecule of water consists of 1 atom of oxygen and 2 atoms of hydrogen.

∴ In 3.0145 x 1022 molecules of water, the number of oxygen atoms = 3.0115 x 1022  and the number of hydrogen atoms = 2 x 3.0115 x 1022= 6.023 x 1022 .

Question 21. What is the number of molecules in 8 g of oxygen?
Answer:

Molecular weight of oxygen = 32.

∴ 32 g oxygen = 1 g mol of oxygen

or, 8 g oxygen \(=\frac{8}{32}\) mol of oxygen

\(=\frac{1}{4}\) mol of oxygen

Again, we know that 1 g mol of oxygen contains 6.023 x1023  molecules.

\(=\frac{1}{4}\) g  mol of oxygen contains \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{4}\)

or, 1.506 x 1023 molecules,

ie., there are 1.506 x 1023 molecules in 8 g of oxygen.

Question 22. Explain the significance of Avogadro’s number.
Answer:

Avogadro Number (NA): Its significance in Chemistry, Biology and Physics: Atoms or molecules can’t be seen by naked eye but can be visualized or feelt the amount of something having NA number of atoms or molecules. We can feel how much water is there in 18 g of water and know that it contains 1 mole or NA , the number of water molecules.

In any chemical change, the molecules change their number, volume and amount

aA + bB →  cC + dD

We say that a mole of A reacts with b mole of B to produce c mole of C and d mole of D. Ifthe species are gaseous, then using NA we can express the volume ratio of A, B, C and D also.

In biological system, most of the important changes are nothing but chemical changes and the use of NA is equally equally applicable here. In photosynthesis reach, carbohydrate is produced according to the following reaction :

\(6 \mathrm{CO}_2+6 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O} \stackrel{\text { light }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_{12} \mathrm{O}_6+6 \mathrm{O}_2\)

The ratio of amounts or volumes of different species can be given by using mole concept. In physies, say for example, in radioactive decay, the mole concept is important by same reason.

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Book Solution

Question 23. Explain Berzilius hypothesis on the basis of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer:

Explanation of Berzilius hypothesis on the basis of Dalton’s atomic theory : Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, one volume of hydrogen and one volume of chlorine combine to form two volurnes of hydrogen chloride gas.

According to Berzilius hypothesis, suppose that under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, each volume of gas contains n-number of atoms. We can say,
n-number of hydrogen atoms + n-number of chlorine atoms
= 2n number of hydrogen chloride atoms

∴ 1 atom of hydrogen + atom of chiorine
= 2 atoms of hydrogen chloride

∴ ½  atom of hydrogen + ½ atom of chloride

= 1 atom of hydrogen chloride

Now, existence of  ½ atom of hydrogen and  ½ atom of chlorine is impossible according to

Dalton’s atomic theory, so the hypothesis clashed with the basic concept of atomic theory. Hence, it was rejected by Dalton.

Question 24. Explain Gay-Lussac’s law with the help of Avogadro’s hypothesis.
Answer:

Explanation of Gay-Lussac’s law with the help of Avogadro’s hypothesis : From experimental result it has been found that under the same conditions of temperature and Pressure, one volume of hydrogen combines with one volume of chlorine to produce two volumes of hydrogen chloride gas.

Suppose, under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, each volume of gas contains n-number of molecules.

So, n-number of hydrogen molecules + n-number of chlorine molecules.

= 2 n-number of hydrogen chloride molecules.
∴ 1 molecule of hydrogen + 1 molecule of chlorine
= 2 molecules of hydrogen chloride gas.

∴ ½  molecule of hydrogen +½   molecule of chlorine

= 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride
This is to say,

1 molecule of hydrogen chloride must contain ½  molecule of hydrogen and ½  molecule of chlorine.

This fact does not go against Dalton’s atomic theory. Later on, it is known from Avogadro’s hypothesis that each molecule of hydrogen and chlorine contains two atoms. .

So, 1 atom of hydrogen + 1 atom of chlorine
= 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride gas.

In this way Dalton’s atomic theory and Gay-Lussac’s law were harmonized with the help of Avogadro’s hypothesis.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answer

Question 25. Prove that hydrogen molecule is diatomic in nature.
Answer:

Proof of diatomic nature of hydrogen molecule: From experimental result we know that under the same conditions of temperature and pressure one volume hydrogen and one volume of chlorine combine chemically to form two volumes of hydrogen chloride gas.

Let us suppose that under the same conditions of pressure and temperature at the time of experiment one volume of hydrogen gas contains n-molecules.

So, according to Avogadro’s hypothesis under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, one volume of chlorine contains n-molecules and two volumes of hydrogen chloride gas contain 2n molecules.

This fact can be represented by the following equation :

n-molecules of hydrogen + n-molecules of chlorine

= 2n molecules of hydrogen chloride gas.

∴  1 molecule of hydrogen + 1-molecule of chlorine

= 2 molecules of hydrogen chloride gas.

So, 1 molecule of hydrogen chloride

½ molecule of hydrogen +  ½  molecule of chlorine.

Now, according to Dalton’s atomic theory an atom is indivisible.

So, one molecule of hydrogen chloride contains at least one atom of hydrogen and one atom

of chlorine. This one atom of hydrogen comes from ½ molecule of hydrogen.

So, one molecule of hydrogen must contain two atoms.

Question 26. What are the differences between molecular weight and acutal weight (mass) of a molecule ?
Answer:

Differences between molecular weight and actual weight (mass) of a molecule :

Molecular weight Actual weight (mass) of a Molecule
(1)    It is a number which represents how many times a molecule of a substance is heavier than ½ th Part of the  weight (mass) of carbon (C = 12) (1) It is the number of times one molecule of a  substance is heavier than one atomic mass unit (a.m.u.) which is 1.6603 x10-24 g.
(2)    It is the ratio of two weights, i.e., a pure number and has no unit. (2)    It represents the actual mass of a molecule and so it is not unitless.
(3)    It is a number which denotes the actual weight (mass) in gram of 6.023 x 1023or Avogadro’s number of molecules of the substance. (3) it represents the mass of a single molecule of a substance.

 

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Book Solution

Question 27. Gram-molecular volume of all gases at NTP is 22.4 litres—prove it.
Answer: If the molecular mass of a gas is M, then we know that the limiting density of the gas =0.0898× \(\frac{M}{2} g\)/litre.

From the definition of limiting density it can be written that mass of 1 litre gas at NTP =0.0898× \(\frac{M}{2} g\)

So, at NTP volume of 0.0898 x g gas = 1 litre.

∴  At NTP volume of 1 g gas \(\frac{2}{M \times 0.0898}\)litre

∴ At NTP volume of M g or 1 gram molecule gas

\(=\frac{2 \times M}{M \times 0.0898}\)=\(\frac{2}{0.0898}\)=22.27 litre

Atomic mass of hydrogen in oxygen scale is 2.016. In that case, calculating in a similar way we can obtain .

Volume of 1 gram-molecule gas at NtP=\(\frac{2.016}{0.0898}\)=22.4litre.

So, at NTP volume of 1 gram-molecule of any gas is 22.4 litre.

Question 28. Deduce the relation between density and vapour density of a gas on the basis of hydrogen.
Answer:

Relation between density and vapour density of a gas on the basis of hydrogen:
Vapour density(D)\(=\frac{\text { Weight of a gas of volume V (at NTP) }}{\text { Weight of } V \text { volume of hydrogen (at NTP) }}\)

∴ \(D\)=\(\frac{\text { Weight of } 1 \text { litre of a gas (at NTP) }}{\text { Weight of } 1 \text { litre of a hydrogen (at NTP) }}\) \(=\frac{\text { Density of gas }(\mathrm{d})}{\text { Density of hydrogen gas }}\)

∴ Density of gas (d) = D × 0.00898

(Density of hydrogen gas= 0.0898)

∴ d= D × 0.089.

Question 29. What is the actual weight of a molecule ? What is the actual weight of an atom ?
Answer: Actual weight of a molecule : Suppose, the molecular mass of any subsiance = M. So, gram-molecular weight of the substance = M g.

We know that there are present 6.023 x 1023 molecules in gram-molecular weight.

∴  Weight of 6.023 x 1023 molecules = M g.

∴  Weight of 1 molecule \(=\frac{M}{6.023 \times 10^{23}} g\)

Actual weight of an atom :

Suppose, the atomic mass of an element = A

So, gram-atomic weight of the element = A g

We know that there are 6.023x 1023 toms present in gram-atomic weight.

∴ Weight of 6.023 x 1023 atoms = A g

∴ Weight of 1 atom\(=\frac{A}{6.023 \times 10^{23}} g\).

West Bengal Board Class 9 Physical Science Book Solution

Question 30. Deduce the relation between vapour density and the molecular weight of a gas.
Answer:
Relation between vapour density and the molecular weight of a gas :
From the definition of vapour density,

D\(=\frac{\text { Weight of } V \text { volume of a gas at NTP }}{\text { Weight of } V \text { volume of hydrogen at NTP }}\)

Suppose ,V volume of the gas contains ‘n’ molecules then by Avogadro’s hypothesis, V volume of hydrogen will also contain ‘n’ molecules of hydrogen.

∴ D\(=\frac{\text { Weight of ‘ } n \text { ‘ molecules of the gas (at NTP) }}{\text { Weight of ‘ } n \text { ‘ molecules of hydrogen gas (at NTP) }}\)

\(=\frac{n \times \text { weight of one molecule of the gas }}{n \times \text { weight of one molecule of hydrogen }}\) \(=\frac{\text { weight of one molecule of the gas }}{\text { weight of one molecule of hydrogen }}\)

\(=\frac{\text { weight of one molecule of the gas }}{\text { weight of } 2 \text { atoms of hydrogen }}\)        (Hydrogen is a diatomic element)

∴ D= ½ ×\(=\frac{\text { weight of one molecule of the gas }}{\text { weight of one molecule of hydrogen }}\)

½ × M (M=molecular weight of the gas )

∴ D\(=\frac{M}{2}\)

or, M= 2D

i.e., Molecular weight=2 × its vapour density.

Question 31. Potassium superoxide, KO2 is an air purifier as it reacts with CO2 and releases O2, 4KO2(s) + 2CO2(g) —> 2K2CO3(s) + 3O2(g)
Answer:

Strategy: Find  Vat given (T, P)

Use n\(=\frac{V}{V_m}\) to find n of CO2

Use mKO2 = nKO2 .Mko2

nKO2  is obtained from stoichiometry.

Vm(CO2)\(=\frac{R T}{P}\)=0.0821 293.15/1 l=24.47 l mol-1

nCO2 \(=\frac{V}{V_m}\)\(=\frac{501}{24.47 \mid \mathrm{mol}^{-1}}\)= 2.043 mole.

From stoichimetry,2 mol CO2 reacts with 4 mol KO2 

∴ nKO2 \(=\frac{4}{2}\)×nKO2 =2 × 2.043mol=4.086 mol.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answer

Question 32. What mass of Al is needed to reduce 10.0 kg of Cr(IIl) oxide to produce chromium metal ? \(2 \mathrm{Al}(I)+\mathrm{Cr}_2 \mathrm{O}_3(\mathrm{~s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{Al}_2 \mathrm{O}_3(\mathrm{~s})+2 \mathrm{Cr}(I)\)
Answer:

M(Cr2 O3)= 152.0g mol-1 ; 1 mol Cr2 O3=2mol AI; MAI =26.98 g mol-1

Now apply the formula:

\(\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{c}_2} \mathrm{O}_3\)=\(\frac{10.0 \times 10^3 \mathrm{~g}}{152 \mathrm{gmol}^{-1}}\)

nAI =2×\(\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{c}_2} \mathrm{O}_3\)

2×65.78mol=131.58.

∴  mAI= nAI×MAI

131.58 mol ×26.98 g mol-1

= 3,550 g

=3.55Kg.

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Solution Very Short Answer Type:

Question 1. Write down the name of an inorganic and an organic solvent.
Answer:
Name of an inorganic solvent: Water.
Name of an organic solvent: Benzene.

Question 2. What is the unit of solubility?
Answer: Solubility has no unit.

Question 3. What are the sizes of the colloid particles?
Answer:
Sizes of the colloid particles:
10-5cm to 10-7 cm in diameter.

Question 4. What is occlusion?
Answer: Hydrogen gets dissolved in spongy palladium and in similar metals. This phenomenon is called occlusion.

Read and Learn all WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment

Question 5. What is TEL?
Answer: Tetra ethyl lead (TEL).

Question 6. What is the formula of Epsom salt?
Answer:
Epsome salt: MgSO4 , 7H2O.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 7. What is SPM?
Answer: Suspended particulate matter (SPM).

Question 8. What do you mean by smog?
Answer: Smog is fog-containing smoke.

Question 9. How does solubility of sodium sulphate change with temperature? Or, Give an example of a substance whose solubility first increases and then decreases with increase of temperature very slowly.
Answer: The solubility of sodium sulphate first increases up to 40°C and then it slowly decreases to a little extent up to 80°C.

Question 10. Give an example of a neutral drying agent.
Answer: Anhydrous magnesium sulphate (MgSO4).

Question 11. Give an example of an acidic drying agent.
Answer: Phosphorus pentoxide ( P2O5) is an acidic drying agent.

Question 12. Give an example of a basic drying agent.
Answer: Quick lime (CaO) is a basic drying agent.

Question 13. Give an example of aerosol.
Answer: One aerosol-fog.

Question 14. Give example of one natural colloid.
Answer: Gelatin or Glue is a natural colloid.

Question 15. What is mist? 
Answer: Aerosol formed by suspension of liquid particles (water, acid, etc.) in air.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 16. Name two diseases caused by SPM.
Answer: Asthma and lung cancer.

Question 17. Solubility of which substance does not change appreciably with increase of temperature?
Answer: Sodium chloride. (NaCl)

Question 18. What is Mother liquor?
Answer: In the process of crystallisation, the saturated solution left after the separation of crystals is called Mother liquor.

Question 19.Solubility of A at °C is x”. What does it mean?
Answer: It means x gram of A can produce a saturated solution when dissolved in 100 grams of solvent at t°C.

Question 20. Give an example of a compound whose solubility in water decreases with increase in temperature. 
Answer: The solubility of slaked lime decreases with an increase in temperature.

Question 21. What are the components of a colloidal solution?
Answer:
Components of a colloidal solution :
(1) Dispersed phase
(2) Dispersion medium.

Question 22. Write down the name of a substance whose solubility decreases with an increase in temperature.
Answer:
Solubility decreases with an increases in temperature: Calcium sulphate (CaSO4).

Question 23. Which gas is dissolved in soda water? 
Answer: Carbon dioxide (CO2).

Question 24. Write down the name of a substance whose solubility increases tremendously with an increase in temperature.
Answer:
Solubility increases tremendously with an increase in temperature:
Potassium nitrate (KNO3).

Question 25. Give one example of a salt having water of crystallisation.
Answer:
Example of a salt having water of crystallisation: Blue vitriol (CuSO4. 5H2O).

Question 26. What is the effect of increase in pressure on the solubility of a solid in water?
Answer: Increase in pressure does not cause any change of solubility of a solid in water.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 27. Name a deliquescent substance.
Answer:
Deliquescent substance :
Calcium chloride (CaCl2).

Question 28. Mention one particulate matter in air that causes its pollution.
Answer:
Particulate matter in air that causes its pollution:
Fine particles of dust.

Question 29. Is solution a mixture or compound?
Answer: Solution is a mixture.

Question 30. Why does edible salt (NaCl) become moist in the rainy season?
Answer: Edible salt (NaCl) becomes moist in the rainy season due to the presence of deli quescent MgCl2, 6H2O as impurity in it.

Question 31. Name an efflorescent substance.
Answer:
Efflorescent substance: Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O).

Question 32. What happens if a saturated solution is cooled 
Answer: The cooled solution sheds the excess solute as crystals.

Question 33. What is the effect of increase in pressure on the solubility of a gas in water ?
Answer: Increase in pressure increases solubility of a gas.

Question 34. What is solute?
Answer:
Solute: The substances which are present in smaller quantities and get dissolved are called solutes.

Question 35. What is solvent?
Answer:
Solvent: The medium in which the solutes are uniformly dispersed through dissolution is known as the solvent.

Question 36. What is a homogeneous mixture?
Answer:
Homogeneous mixture: A homogeneous mixture is one in which the constituent substances are so intimately mixed that even a very close examination cannot distinguish any surface of separation between them.

Wbbse Physical Science And Environment Class 9 Solutions

Question 37. What is a heterogeneous mixture?
Answer:
Heterogeneous mixture: A heterogenous mixture is one in which the particles of the constituent substances of a mixture are distinctly distinguishable.

Question 38. What is colloidal solution?
Answer:
Colloidal solution: A colloidal solution is a stable heterogeneous solution consisting of finely divided particles of a substance (of the size of10-5 cm to 10-7cm in diameter) uniformly dispersed in a continuous medium.

Question 39. What are dispersed phase and dispersion medium? 
Answer:
Dispersed phase and dispersion medium: The finely divided Particles are called the dispersed phase and the continuous medium is called the dispersion medium.

Question 40. What is suspension?
Answer:
Suspension: The particle in suspension state is 10-4 cm in diameter.

Question 41. What is true solution?
Answer:
True solution: The particle in true solution is 10-8 cm in diameter

Question 42. What is sol?
Answer:
Sol: It is a colloidal system in which a solid is dispersed in a liquid
Example: Paints.

Question 43. What is emulsion?
Answer:
Emulsion: It is a colloidal system in which a liquid is dispersed in another liquid .
Example: Milk

Question 44. What is Gel?
Answer:
Gel: It is a colloidal system in which a liquid is dispersed in a solid
Example:  Fruit jellies, cheese, etc.

Question 45. What is aerosol?
Answer:
Aerosol: It is a colloidal system having a solid or a liquid dispersed in a gas
Example: Fog, smoke, clouds, etc.

Question 46. Define Lyophilic colloids.
Answer:
Lyophilic colloids: These are the substances which pass readily into the colloidal state whenever mixed with a suitable solvent
 Protein, starch, etc.

Question 47. Define Lyophobic colloids.
Answer:
Lyophobic colloids: These are the substances which do not yield colloidal solutions on mere shaking with a liquid.
Example: Gold, silver, Fe (OH)3, As2 O3

Question 48. What are positive sols?
Answer:
Positive sols:
These are the sols which carry positive charge on the dispersed phase particles.
Example:  Sols of Fe(OH)3, Al(OH)3 , etc.

Question 49. What are negative sols?
Answer:
Negative sols: These are the sols which carry negative charge on their particles).
Example:  Sols of Cu, Ag, Au, As2,S3,  etc.

Question 50. What are multi-molecular colloids?
Answer:
Multi-molecular colloids:
These are the colloids in which the individual particles consist of aggregates of atoms of small molecules having molecular size less than 10-7 cm in diameter
Example: Sols of gold atoms, platinum sol.

Question 51. What are macro-molecular colloids?
Answer:
Macromolecular colloids : These are the colloids in which the size of the particles of the dispersed phase are of the order of colloidal dimensions.
Example: Sol of starch, cellulose

Question 52. What is peptisation?
Answer:
Peptisation: It is the process of converting precipitates into colloidal state by adding small amount of a suitable electrolyte.

Question 53. What is dialysis?
Answer:
Dialysis :
It is the process of separating substances in colloidal state from those present in ionic states with the help of semipermeable membrane.

Question 54. What is Tyndall effect?
Answer:
Tyndall effect: It is the scattering of light from the surface of colloidal particles and a beam of light passed through a colloidal solution becomes visible as a bright streak. The illuminated path is called tyndall effect.

Question 55. What is Brownian movement?
Answer:
Brownian movement: This is a ceaseless, erratic and random motion of colloidal particles as a result of their bombardment by the molecules of dispersion medium.

Question 56. What is electrophoresis?
Answer:
Electrophoresis: It is the movement of charged colloidal particles, under the influence of an electric field, towards the oppositely charged electrodes.

Question 57. What is coagulation?
Answer:
Coagulation: It is the phenomenon of change of colloidal state to suspended state. It can be brought about by adding an electrolyte to a colloidal solution.

Question 58. What is Hardy Schulze rule? 
Answer:
Hardy Schulze rule: It states the greater the valency of the coagulating ion added, the greater is its power to coagulate.

Question 59. What is gold number?
Answer:
Gold number: It is the weight in milligrams of a protective colloid which prevents the coagulation of 10 mi of a given gold sol on adding 1 ml of 10% solution of sodium chloride.

Question 60. What is solubility?
Answer:
Solubility: Solubility of a given solute in a solvent is defined as the weight in grams of the solute dissolved in 100 grams of the solvent so as to saturate the solution at a given temperature.

Question 61. What is Henry’s law?
Answer: At a definite temperature the solubility of a gas in a particular solvent is proportional to the pressure applied on the gas. This is Henry’s law.

Question 62. What are crystals? 
Answer:
Crystals:
Crystals are homogeneous solid particles (big or small) with definite geometric shape, and are bounded by plane surfaces meeting at sharp edges.

Question 63. What is crystallisation ?
Answer:
Crystallisation : Crystallisation is a process by which crystals of a substance are obtained from its solution.

Question 64. What is water of crystallisation ?
Answer:
Water of crystallisation : When a crystal is formed from the aqueous solution of a substance then one or more fixed number of water molecules associated with each molecules of that substance by chemical bonding are called water of crystallisation.

Question 65. What are hydrated crystals?
Answer:
Hydrated crystals: Crystals having the water molecules associated with them are called hydrated crystals.

Question 66. Which is the solvent in the following binary solutions?
(1) Sugar and water
(2) 70 ml of alcohol and 30 ml water
(3) Soda water.
Answer:
(1) Water
(2) Alcohol
(3) Water (CO2 , is solute).

Question 67. Which is the solute in the-following solutions 
(1) Hydrogen chloride and water
(2) 80 ml of nitrogen and 20 mI hydrogen.
Answer: (1) Hydrogen chloride
(2) Hydrogen.

Question 68. If 15 g of a saturated solution of sodium chloride at 20°C, leaves a solid residue of 3 g, when evaporated to dryness, calculate the solubility of NaCl at that temperature.
Answer:

Wt. of water in solution = 15 − 3 = 12 g.
So 12 g H2O dissolves 3 g of solid.

∴ 100 g H2O dissolves \( \frac{3}{12} \times 100\)g of solid = 25 g.

∴ Solubility in % (w/w) = 25.

Question 69. A 200 mi saline solution contains 1.8 g of NaCl. Find the % w − v of the solution.
Answer:

% w-v=\(\frac{w}{V} \times 100\) = 0.9% (w in ‘g’ and V in ml taken)

Question 70. 50.9 of sugar is dissolved in water to prepare 2.50 litre solution, calculate its concentration in grams per litre.
Answer:

Mass of sugar = 50 g.

Volume of solution = 2.50 litre

∴ g/l  Concentration\(=\frac{50 \mathrm{~g}}{2.5001}\)  = 20 gl-1

Question 71. 8 g of NaOH is dissolved in water to prepare 1500 mi solution. Calculation its molar concentration. (NaOH = 40)
Answer:

Weight of NaOH = 8g.
Volume of solution = 1500 ml.
8x 1000

Molarity of the solution \(=\frac{8 \times 1000}{1500 \times 40}\)=0.13 mol.L-1

Question 72. At 20°C, 5 g of a salt is dissolved in 10 g of water and the solution is saturated. What will be the solubility of salt at that temperature?
Answer:

Mass of solute = 50 g and mass‘of the solvent = 10 g.

So, solubility \(=\frac{\text { wt. of solute }}{\text { wt. of solvent }} \times 100\)

=\(\frac{5}{10} \times 100\)

=50

Solution 2 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. Why does a finely powdered solute dissolve much quicker in a liquid solvent than a lump of equal weight of the same solute?
Answer: Dissolution of a solid solute in a liquid solvent takes place from the surface of the solid exposed to the liquid solvent, so, if larger surface area of the solid be exposed to the liquid, greater rate of dissolution takes place. For this reason, a finely powered solute dissolves much quicker in a liquid solvent than a lump of equal weight of the same solute.

Question 2. What are concentrated and dilute solutions?
Answer: A solution which contains a relatively small amount of solute compared to the amount of solvent is referred to as dilute, while a solution which contains a relatively large amount of solute is referred to as a concentrated solution.

Question 3. Can there be solvents other than water? 
Answer: Liquids other that water may also act as solvents. Sulphur is insoluble in water but dissolves in carbon disuphide forming a clear solution. Water is incapable of dissolving camphor, waxes, fats, oils but chloroform, ether, alcohol, benzene, etc. are good solvents for these substances.

Question 4. What do you mean by ‘dispersed phase’ and ‘dispersion medium’ ?
Answer:

Dispersed phase: The component of colloid present in small amount and which behaves like a solute in a solution is called dispersed phase.

Dispersion medium: The component of colloid present in excess amount and which behaves like a solvent in a solution is called dispersion medium.

Question 5. Define unit of concentration of solution in percentage.
Answer: Concentration of solution in percentage

If V ml of the solution contains W g of the solute, percentage of the solution is \(\frac{W}{V} \times 100 \%\).

Question 6. Define unit of concentration of solution in grams per litre.
Answer:
Concentration of solution in grams per liter:

Its unit is g/l. When 1 litre (1000. ml).of the solution contains w grams of the solute, its strength is w g/1l.

Question 7. What happens when a saturated solution of a substance at 100°C is cooled to 60°C?
Answer: The solution becomes super-saturated and an amount of solid substance which is in excess than can be present in a saturated solution at 60° will separate out.

Question 8. What is meant by 2% NaCl solution?
Answer: 2% NaCl solution means that 100 millilitres of the given solution of sodium chloride in water contains 2 gm of dissolved NaCl.

Question 9. What is meant by a concentration of 20 gm/liter of a solution?
Answer: A concentration of 20 ml liter means that 1 liter, ie., 1000 millilitres of the given solution contains 20 gm of dissolved solute.

Question 10. What is the difference between aqueous and non-aqueous solutions?
Answer: True solution of any solute in water is called an aqueous solution, e.g. vinegar. True solution in any solvent except water is called non-aqueous solution, e.g. amino acids dissolved in acetone.

Question 11. What is an anhydrous substance or salt?
Answer: A hydrated salt which completely loses its water of crystallisation or a substance that-does not exist in hydrated state can be called anhydrous.

Question 12. What is hydrated substance or hydrated salt?
Answer: A substance (or salt) which contains certain fixed number of water molecules, bound to its one molecule, into loose chemical bond, is called hydrated substance or hydrated salt.

Question 13. Why are anhydrous calcium chloride and phosphorus pentoxide kept in air tight bottles?
Answer: Anhydrous calcium chloride and P2O5 are deliquescent substances and become liquid by absorbing moisture from air if they come in contact with air. That is why, these substances are to be stored in air tight bottles.

Question 14. Giving example, state the use of suspension in our daily life.
Answer: Many substances insoluble in dispersing medium but which form suspension temporarily are used for analytical purposes. For example, sparingly soluble barium sulphate dispersed in water is an opaque medium and is used for taking intestinal X-ray photograph.

Question 15. State the observation on the basis of which you may identify a suspension.
Answer: If the particles in a heterogenous and opaque solution can be seen by the naked eye or under an ordinary microscope and get settled on keeping, then it is a suspension.

Question 16. What do you mean by solution ? Give an example.
Answer:

A homogeneous mixture of solid substance, in liquid (usually water) having same physical properties in every part of it is called the solution.

Example: When small quantity of sugar is added in a glass full of water, then the sugar will disappear in the water on stirring. The product so obtained is called the solution of sugar in water.

Question 17. What are solvent and solute? Give example.
Answer:

Solvent: A liquid (say water) which allows a solid to dissolve in it, so as to form solution, is called solvent.

Solute: A solid which dissolves (disappears) in a liquid (say water) to form a solution is called solute.

Examples: When sugar dissolves in water to make a solution, then water is called solvent and the sugar is called solute.

Question 18. How can it be known with a single experiment whether a solution is saturated or not?
Answer: Take some waier in a beaker and dissolve some sugar into it. Stir well to make it a clear solution. Now add some more sugar into the solution and stir well the solution. If the sugar dissolves completely at the room temperature, then the solution is unsaturated. If the sugar stops dissolving at the same temperature and settles down in the bottom of the beaker, then the solution is saturated at that temperature.

Question 19. What is a colloidal solution? Give example. 
Answer: A solution in which the size of solute particles is larger than that of the molecules of true solution but less than the suspended particles, it is said to be a colloidal solution.

Example: Very finely ground sulphur when mixed with water, filtration does not remove all the sulphur particles. Some particles of sulphur are fine enough to remain permanently mixed with the water, it is called colloidal solution. When the liquid is examined by an ultramicroscope, it can be seen that sulphur particles are in rapid random motion at room temperature. This movement of colloidal particles is known as the Brownian movement.

Question 20. What are the suspended particulate matter in air ?
Answer : The finely divided solid or liquid particles suspended in air are called particulates. Some of the examples of

Particulates present in the air are Dust, smoke, fumes, mist, flyash. Particulates can be solids or liquids. For example, dust, smoke and fumes are solid particulates, whereas mist and spray are liquid particulates. Other particulates in air are pollen grains, Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses, fine sand particles, pesticides, and dust of several industrial wastes.

Some particulates are very small, fe particles and have a diameter of less than one micrometer such as smoke, fumes, aerosols, etc. Large solid particles such as dust, mist,etc. have a diameter more than-one micrometer.

Question 21. Define solubility of a solute.
Answer: The solubility of a solute in a solvent at a particular temperature is the number of grammes of the solute necessary to saturate 100 gms of the solvent at that temperature.

Thus, solubility of a solute at t°C\(=\frac{\text { mass of solute }(\mathrm{g})}{\text { mass of solvent }(\mathrm{g})} \times 100\).

For example The solubility of potassium nitrate in water at 20°C is 32. It means that at 20°C, 32 gm of potassium nitrate (maximum amount) can be dissolved in 100 gm of water to make saturated solution of it.

Question 22. On what factors does the solubility of substances depend?
Answer :

Different substances have different solubilities at different temperaturés.

The difference in solubilities of substances depends upon :

(1) Nature of solute

(2) Nature of solvent used

(3) Temperature

(4) Pressure.

Question 23. What are solubility curves? State their application.
Answer: The graph drawn for the solubility of a substance at different temperatures is called solubility curve. In the solubility curve graph, temperature is plotted on the x-axis and the solubility of the substance in 100 gm of water on the y-axis. Some uses of solubility curves are:

(1) To find the solubility of a given substance at some particular temperature.

(2) To compare the solubility of different substances at a given temperature.

Question 24. What are crystals and crystallization ?
Answer: When a saturated solution available at a particular temperature is cooled to a lower temperature, then some of the dissolved solute will separate out in the form of a definite geometrical shape called crystal. The process of forming crystals is called crystallization. Crystals are homogeneous solids bounded by a plane surface at definite angles to one another and having a definite geometric shape.

Question 25. State the physical properties of crystals with example.
Answer :

The physical properties of crystals of a substance are :

(1) Crystals are solid particles having a definite regular shape.

(2) Crystals are bounded by flat surface at definite angles to each other.

(3) Crystals are the purest form of substances. The impurities dissolved in the saturated solution will be separated.

Examples of some crystals :
WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Crystals.

Question 26. What is Water of Crystallization ?
Answer: Crystals of some substances bind certain fixed number of water molecules while separating out from their saturated solution on cooling. These fixed number of water molecules attached with the crystals of the substances determine the shape and colour of the crystals, called water of crystallization. The fixed number of water molecules form a loose chemical bond.

For example :
Copper sulphate crystals – CuSO4.5H2O

Magnesium sulphate – MgSO4.7H2O

Washing soda or hydrated sodium carbonate – NaCO3.10H2O

Question 27. What are hygroscopic substances? Give example.
Answer: A substance which when placed in open air, absorbs moisture from it, but does not change its state, is called hygroscopic substance.

Example: Anhydrous sodium carbonate (Na2 CO3).

Anhydrous quick lime (CaO).

Concentrated sulphuric acid (H2SO4).

Question 28. What are drying agents: Give some examples of drying agents.
Answer: The substances which can absorb moisture from other substances without chemically reacting with them, are called drying agents.

Examples of drying agents:

Anhydrous Calcium chloride (CaCl2),

Quick lime (CaO),

Phosphorus pentoxide (P2 O5 ),

Concentrated sulphuric acid (H2SO4).

Silica gel, etc.

Question 29. What is the cause of efflorescence? Give one example of efflorescent substance.
Answer:
Cause of efflorescence: Efflorescence happens only when the vapour pressure within the hydrated crystal at ordinary temperature is greater than the vapour pressure of the atmosphere. These hydrated crystals are called efflorescent substances.

Example: Na2CO3, 10H2O.

Question 30. What is the cause ‘of deliquescence? Give one example of deliquecent sub- stance.
Answer:

Cause of deliquescence: Deliquenscence occurs when the vapour pressure of water in the deliquescent substance is less than the vapour pressure in the atmosphere at ‘ordinary temperature.

Example: CaCl2.

Question 31. Why does the colour of sky appear to be blue?
Answer: Colour of sky appears to be blue due to the scattering of blue light by dust particles along with water suspended in air.

Question 32. What is fire foam?
Answer:

Fire foam: Carbon dioxide froth made. by mixing solution of sodium bicarbonate and alum is called fire foam. It is used in fire extinguishers. A protective gelold such as glue or dextrin is added to stabilise the foam.

Question 33. What do you understand by (1) Aqueous solution and (2) Non-aqueste solution? Give example.
Answer:
(1) Aqueous solution: A solution obtained by dissolving a solute in water is called aqueous solution.

Example: A solution prepared by dissolving 5 gm of common salt in water is an aqueous solution of salt and is written as NaCl (aq).

(2) Non-Aqueous solution: A solution in which the solvent is any liquid except water is called non-aqueous solution. Thus, a solution of sugar in alcohol is an example of non aqueous soiution.

Question 34. What are the differences between suspension, colloidal and true solution in respect of the size of their solute particles?
Answer: The particles of a solute forming a true solution of molecular size (1-10A) are invisible and do not settle on standing. The solute forming suspension are much bigger (>2000A) and visible, if not by the naked eye, at least under a microscope. The particles seitle down within a short time. But the sizes of the particles (10A-2000A) forming colloidal solution are bigger than
molecules but too small to be visible under a most powerful microscope.

Question 35. The solubility of urea is 109.04 g/100 cc in water at 20°C. A solution is formed by dissolving 500 g urea in 1 liter water. State the nature of the solution formed.
Answer: The solution formed is unsaturated since it contains lesser amount of the solute than that can be dissolved in the given volume of water at 20°C.

The solution contains\(\frac{500 \mathrm{~g}}{1000 \mathrm{c} . \mathrm{c}} \times 100\)= 50 g urea per 100 c.c. water.

Question 36. The concentration of an aqueous solution of NaCl is 2% wiv. Express the strength of the solution in g militre.
Answer: 100 millilitres of the given water solution contains 2 gm of NaCl.

∴ 1000 milliliter of the given water solution contains \(\frac{2 \times 1000}{100}\)=g

∴ The strength of the solution = 20 g/litre.

Question 37. How many grams of NaCl will be necessary to prepare 500 mi of 5% NaCl?
Answer:

5% NaCl contains 5 grams of NaCl per 100 mi of the solution.

So the number of grams of NaCl required to prepare 500 ml of 5% NaCl solution

\(=\frac{5}{100}\)= 500 = 25 gm.

Question 38. 15.20 gm of a saturated solution of cane sugar at 20°C contains 10.28 g of cane sugar. Calculate the solubility of cane sugar at 20°C.
Answer:

10.20 gm of sugar is present in 15.20 g of the solution.

Amount of water present in 15.20 g of the solution

= (15.20 -10.20) g= 5g.

Now, 5 g of water contains 10.20 g of sugar.

100 g of water contains\(\frac{10.20 \times 100}{5}\)=204 g of sugar.

Solubility of sugar in water at 20°C = 204.

Question 39. 2.5 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in water and the volume is made up to exactly 250 cm3. Determine the percentage strength of this solution.
Answer:

strength in weight by volume (w/v) is the number of solute particles presenting in
100 c.c. of the solution.

∴ Percentage strength of the sodium chloride solution

(% by w/v)\(=\frac{2.5 \times 100}{250}\)=1

Question 40. 1. 5 gm of sodium chloride is dissolved in water and the volume is made up to exact 250 cm3. Determine the percentage strength of this solution.
Answer:

5 gm of solute is present in 250 c.c. of the given solution. So the weight-volume
(w/v) The percentage strength of the given solution will be

\(\frac{5}{250}\) = 250x 100 = 2% (w/v).

Question 41. Why does effervescence occur when a soda water bottle is opened?
Answer: Soda water is a solution of carbon dioxide in water prepared. under high pressure. For this reason when a bottle of soda water is opened, i.e., pressure on the liquid content in the bottle is reduced, effervescence or rising bubbles occur. These effervescences form as a part of dissolved CO gas escapes through the liquid.

Question 42. Why does clear line water turn miiky when heated?
Answer: Since solubility of slaked lime [Ca(OH)2] decreases with increase in temperature, clear lime water, which is an aqueous solution of Ca(OH)2 or slaked lime, turns milky when heated.

Reason : Due to decrease of solubility at a higher temperature, the excess undissolved slaked ‘lime remains in suspension for which the solution appears milky.

Question 43. Give a simple experiment with which a given solution can be identified whether it is unsaturated or saturated or supersaturated.
Answer: A little quantity of solute of the given solution is added to the solution; if the solute dissolves instantly, the given solution slowly increases, the given salution is supersaturated.

Question 44. Calculate the molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 10.5 g of NaCl in 250 g of H2O.
Answer:

Molarity (m)=\(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{mol})}{\mathrm{w}(\mathrm{kg})}\)=\(\frac{\left(10.5 \mathrm{~g} / 58.44 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}\right)}{\left(250 \mathrm{~g} / 1000 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~kg}^{-1}\right)}\)

=0.719 mol Kg-1

We report this molality as 0.719 m NaCl solution.

Question 45. 36 g of saturated solution of sodium chloride at 20°C, when evaporated to dryness, leaves a solid residue of 9 g. Calculate the solubility of sodium chloride.
Answer:

Weight of water in solution = (36 − 9) = 27 g.
27 g water dissolves 9 g NaCl

∴ 100 g water dissolves\(=\frac{9}{27} \times 100\)=33.33

Solubility of Nacl in water at 20°C=33.33

Question 46. Find the weight of potassium nitrate which is to be taken to prepare 60 g pure crystals from its saturated solution at 80°C. Solubility of potassium nitrate at 80°C is 140 g. and at 25°C is 100g.
Answer:

Solubility at 80°C = 140, Solubility at 25°C = 100.

Amount of crystals obtained when the solution is cooked to 25°C = 140 −100 = 40g.

To obtain 40g KNO3 crystals potassium nitrate taken = 140 g.

To obtain 60g KNO3 crystals potassium nitrate to be taken \(=\frac{140}{40} \times 60\)=210g.

Question 47. At 20°C, in 12 g of a saturated solution of sugar, 2 g of sugar is dissolved. What will be the solubility of sugar ?
Answer:
Solution: Mass of solution = 12 g, mass of sugar (solute) = 2 g.

So, mass of solvent (water) = 12 − 2 = 10.

So, solubility \(=\frac{\text { wt. of solute }}{\text { wt. of solvent }} \times 100\)=\(\frac{2}{10} \times 100\)= 20.

Question 48. At 20°C, the solubility of NaCl is 36. At this temperature in a saturated solution of the salt 400 g water is present. What amount of salt is obtained on evaporation of the solution?
Answer:

Mass of solvent = 400 g, and solubility = 36.

So, solubility\(=\frac{\text { wt. of solute }}{\text { wt. of solvent }} \times 100\)  or, 36\(=\frac{\text { wt. of solute }}{400} \times 100\)

So, wt. of solute\(=\frac{400 \times 36}{100}\)=144g.

Question 49. At 30°C, the solubility of salt is 40. What amount of water is required to form a solution with 30 g of salt. What will be the amount of the solution?
Answer:

Mass of solute = 30, solubility = 40

So, solubility\(=\frac{\text { wt. of solute }}{\text { wt. of solvent }} \times 100\)  or, 40\(=\frac{30}{\text { wt. of solvent }} 100\)

∴  wt. of solvent \(=\frac{30 \times 100}{40}\)=75g.

Amount of water required = 75 g.

And the amount of the solution = wt. of solute + wt. of solvent = (30 + 75) = 105 g.

Question 50. A solution contains 2 g of the solute in 25 mi of the solution at 25°C. What will be the gram per liter strength of the solution? 
Answer:

25 ml contains 2 g of solute.

1 ml contains \(\frac{2}{25}\) g of solute.

1 l=100 ml contains\(\frac{2 \times 1000}{25}\)=2×40 g of solute=80

Question 51. A solution contains 5 g mole of a solute in 250 ml-of the solution at 27°C. What will be the mol I” strength of the solution?
Answer:

250 ml contains 5 g mole of solute.

1 ml contains \(\frac{5}{250}\)mole of solute.

1 l= 1000 ml contains \(\frac{5 \times 1000}{250}\) g mole of solute

=5 x 4 g mole of solute = 20 g mole of solute.

So, strength = 20 mol L-1 .

Question 52. A solution contains 8 g of NaCl in 25 g of water at 30°C. What will be the weight percentage strength of the solution?
Answer:

25 g water contains 8 g of the solute

1 g water contains\(\frac{8}{25}\)  of the solute

or, 100g water contains \(\frac{8 \times 100}{25}\) g of the solute

= 8x 4 g of the solute

= 32 g of solute.

So, the strength = 32%.

Question 53. A solution has a strength 40 mol L-1 at 30°C. What will be the amount of solute present in 250 ml of that solution at 30°C?
Answer:

1 l= 1000 ml contains 40 moles of solute

1 ml contains\(\frac{40}{1000}\) moles of solute

250 ml contains\(\frac{40\times 250}{1000}\)   moles of solute

= 10 moles of solute

So, no. of gram mole of solute present = 10.

Question 54. At 27°C a solution has a strength of 35%. What will be the amount of the solute in 50 g of water?
Answer:

In 100 g water, amount of solute present = 35 g.

1 g water, amount of solute present =\(\frac{35}{100}\)

∴ In 50 g water, amount of solute present =\(\frac{35\times 50}{100}\)

So, the amount of solute = 17.5 gram.

Question 55. At 25°C, the strength of a solution is 60 g/l. What will be the amount of solute in 250 ml of that solution?
Answer:

In 1000 mi solution amount of solute = 60 g.

1 ml solution amount of solute =\(\frac{60}{1000}\) g.

In 250 ml solution amount of solute = \(\frac{60\times 250}{1000}\) g

= 15 g.

So, the amount of solute = 60 g.

Solution 3 Marks Questions And Answers:

Question 1. Given below is a list of some colloids. Make a list selecting them on the basis of dispersing medium. Smoke, fog, cloud, milk, jelly, cheese, blood, paint, shaving cream, milk of magnesia.
Answer:

Fog, Cloud              →    Air (gas)
Smoke                     →    Air (gas)
Shaving cream        →    Liquid (water)
Blood                      →    Liquid (water)
Paint                        →    Liquid (water)
Milk of Magnesia    →    Liquid (water)
Milk                         →    Liquid(water)
Jelly, Cheese            →    Solid

Question 2. Classify the following into true solution, colloid and suspension 
(1) Lime water
(2) Aerated water
(3) Milk
(4) Sugar in water
(5) Writing ink,
(6) Blood
(7) Butter
(8) Muddy water
(9) Calcium carbonate in water
(10) Liquid
Answer:

True solutions: Lime water, aerated water, sugar in water.

Colloids: Milk, butter, blood, writing ink, liquid adhesive.

Suspension: Muddy water, calcium carbonate in water.

Question 3.State the different types of solutions by combining different states of matter.
Answer:

We can classify the different types of solution into :

(1) Solids in liquid

(2) Liquid in liquid

(3) Gases in liquid

Examples : The solution of solids in liquids are – solution of sugar and water, solution of potassium nitrate in water, etc.

The solution of liquids in liquids are   solution of milk and water, solution of water and glycerine, etc.

The solution of gases in liquids are – water and air, water and carbon dioxide (soda water or aerated water).

Question 4. State the differences between solution and colloids.
Answer :

The main differences between true solutions and colloids are given below :

Solution (or true solution) Colloid (or colloidal solution)
1.    The average size of solute particle in a true solution is 10-8 cm. 1.    The size of solute particles in a colloid is between 10-7 cm and 10-5 cm.
2.    A true solution is a homogeneous mixture. 2.    A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.
3.    A true solution is transparent. 3.    A colloid solution is translucent.
4.    The particles of a true solution cannot be seen even with a microscope. 4.    Some particles of colloids can be seen with a powerful microscope.
5.    A true solution does not scatter light. 5.    A colloid solution scatters a beam of light passing through it and renders its path visible.


Question 5. How do the suspended particulate matter in air lead to air pollution?

Answer: Suspended particulate matter in air are a kind of air pollutant.

The various ill eff of the particulate matter present in air are the following:

(1) The particulate pollutants cause various allergic reactions. in the human body. They produce diseases like asthma, and tuberculosis, effect on eyes, etc..

(2) The particulate pollutants in air contain metal particles like lead, mercury, arsenic, zine, tin, etc. which are toxic (poisonous) to most of the living organisms; men, animals and plants.

(3) The particulate matter reduce visibility by producing haze in the atmosphere, and hinder the traffic.

(4) The particulates like smoke make our clothes and buildings dusty.

(5) The particulate suspended in air disturb the thermal balance of earth.

Question 6. How are the particulate matter containing metallic particles harmful for the human beings?
Answer: The metallic particles present in air are of lead, mercury, zinc, nickel, arsenic, etc. All the metal particles are toxic in nature. The most harmful metals for the human beings are lead and mercury. The iead particles are released into air by the exhausts of motor vehicles. Lead is a cumulative poison, it keeps on accumulating in the tissues of the human body. lt damages organs like liver, kidney and intestine and causes malformation of red blood cells in the body Asbestos dust is also a major pollutant of the atmosphere. Asbestos dust also causeslung cancer.

Question 7. How do you prepare the crystals of potassium nitrate in laboratory?
Answer : First prepare the saturated solution of potassium nitrate (KNO3) by dissolving potassium nitrate in water and boiling the solution for some time. After strongly heating the solution, it is allowed to cool slowly in a beaker. After some time fine crystals will separate out from the solution in a definite shape.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Potassium Nitrate.

 

Question 8. What do you mean by hydrated substances (hydrated salt) and anhydrous substances (anhydrous salt) ? 
Answer : Hydrated Substance: A substance or salt which contains certain fixed number of water molecules, bound to its one molecule, is called hydrated substance.

Anhydrous Substance: A hydrated substance which completely loses its water of crystallization is called anhydrous substance or anhydrous salt.

Examples of crystalline hydrated salts –

Copper sulphate crystals (Blue vitriol) – CuSO4. 5H2O.

Hydrated magnesium salt (Epsom Salt) – MgSO4. 7H2O

Hydrated ferrous sulphate (Green vitriol) – FeSO4 . 10H2O

Hydrated sodium carbonate (Washing soda) – NaCO4. 10H2O

Barium chloride (Barium chloride crystals) – BaCl2. 2H2O

Question 9. Give examples of some anhydrous crystalline salts.
Answer :
Some crystalline salts having no molecule of water are:

Sodium chloride – NaCl

Ammonium chloride – NH4Cl

Potassium Nitrate – KNO3

Silver nitrate – AgNO3

Potassium Permanganate – KMnO4

Potassium Dichromate – K2Cr2O7

Question 10. Show by a simple experiment that copper sulphate (blue vitriol) contains molecules of water. 
Answer : Take some copper sulphate crystals in a hard glass test tube and strongly heat it. The crystals will slowly turn to a white powder and water drops will come out from the mouth of the test tube. Collect the water drops in a beaker. The blue crystals of copper sulphate will turn to a white powder after losing their water of crystallization.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Copper Sulphate.
Question 11. What are ‘Deliquescence’ and ‘Deliquescent substances’? Give example of some deliquescent substances.
Answer :
Deliquescences: When a certain crystalline substance is placed in open air, it absorbs moisture from air and changes to liquid state, then this phenomenon is called deliquescence The crystalline substances which absorb moisture from open air and change to liquid state are called deliquescent substances.
For example Anhydrous calcium chloride (CaCl2 ),

 

Anhydrous sodium hydroxide (NaOH),

Anhydrous potassium hydroxide (KOH),

Anhydrous ferric chloride (FeCl3) etc.

Question 12. Describe an apparatus used to dry a substance using a drying agent.
Answer: A simple apparatus used in laboratory to dry substances is a desiccator. A desiccator is an air tight glass vessel having a wire gauze. A drying agent Rage such as anhydrous calcium chloride is used to dry 2 wet solids.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Calcium Chloride.

Question 13. Discuss some different types of solutions Anhydrous calcium which do not have a liquid as a solvent.
Answer:

(1) Solution of gases in gases: According to the definition, if a gas does not interact with another, it may form a solution. Thus, a solution of oxygen (solute) in excess of nitrogen (solvent) as in air, is a solution of this type.

(2) Solution of solids in solids: Brass is a solution of a solid solute in a solid solvent. It is a homogeneous mixture of copper and zinc. Copper being present in excess is regarded as the solvent.

(3) Solution of gases in solids: The homogeneous mixture obtained by absorbing hydrogen gas in certain solid metals like palladium, nickel, etc. at a high temperature is an example of solution of gas in solids.

(4) Solution of solids in gases: The homogeneous mixture of dust particles and particles of solid fuels such as carbon, sulphur, etc. with air forms smoke and this is an example of a solution of solids in gases.

(5) Solution of liquids in gases: Minute particles of liquids suspended homogeneously in a gas medium forms mist. :

(6) Solutions of liquids in solids: Sodium-mercury amalgam, silver-mercury amalgam, etc. belong to this type of solution, where sodium and silver are the solvents and mercury is the solute.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 14. How can you prepare a super saturated solution of a solid solute (hypo) at room temperature?
Answer:

Preparation of a supersaturated solution: Supersaturated solution can be prepared by heating a few crystals of sodium thiosulphate or hypo (Na2S2 O3, 5H2 O) in a test tube. The-crystals appear to melt or they dissolve in their own water’of crystallization and a very concentrated solution. of the salt in -water is gained. The test tube is plugged with cotton wool-and alloted to-cdol to room temperature. This solution is super saturated and even after cooling no excess soliite separates out. Ifa crystal of the salt is now added into this solution, the crystal growsup in sizé and~the whole liquid’ begins to solidify with the evolution of heat.

Question 15. Briefly describe the process of crystallisation.
Answer:
Crystallization:
Crystallisation is a process from which the crystal of a substance is obtained from its solution.

Process of crystallisation for the preparation of crystal : 

(1) From saturated solution of a substance: A hot saturated solution of the substance is slowly cooled and then the crystal of that substance is obtained.

(2) From unsaturated solution: An unsaturated solution is vapourised, then a concentrated solution of it is obtained. Now if this solution is gradually cooled then crystals of the substance are obtained.

(3) Sublimation process: lodine, Camphor, etc. are sublime. If the sublimate so formed is cooled then the crystals of the substances are deposited in the pot.

(4) From molten matter: Solid sulphur taken in a pot is heated to melt it and then by slowly cooling, the crystals of B-sulphur are obtained.

Question 16. Mention the uses of hygroscopic substances. Give two differences between deliquescent substances and hygroscopic substances.
Answer:

Uses of Hygroscopic substances : These substances are generally used as dying agents for many gases and solids and air. For example, ammonia gas is dried by quick- lime.

Differences between Hygroscopic and Deliquescent substances :
(1) Deliquescent substances are crystalline solids but hygroscopic substances may be non-crystalline solids or liquids.

(2) Deliquescent substances change into solution on absorbing moisture from air but hygroscopic substances do not change their states on doing so.

Question 17. State the names and uses of a few drying agents. Name one dying agent for drying
(1) Ammonia. gas
(2) Hydrogen sulphide gas
(3) Hydrogen gas
(4) Sulphur dioxide gas.
Answer:
Examples of drying agents: A few drying agents frequently used for drying other chemicals are :

(1) Anhydrous calcium chloride (CaCl2) in the desscicator in the laboratory for drying chemicals.

(2) Anhydrous sodium sulphate (Na2SO4) for drying organic solvents.

(3) Anhydrous magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is used for drying esters, carbonyl compounds.

(4) Conc. H2SO4 is used for drying hydrogen chloride (HCI), CO2, SO2 gases.

(5) Quicklime (CaO) is used for drying ammonia gas.

(6) (1) Basic Quick lime (CaO) is used for drying basic ammonia (NH3) gas.

(2) Acidic phosphorus pentoxide (P2O5) is used for drying acidic. hydrogen sulphide gas.

(3) Cone. H2SO4 or anhydrous CaCl2 can be used for drying H, gas.

(4) Conc. H2SO4 can be used for drying SO2 gas.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 18. (1) What do you understand by the strength of a solution?
(2) Define standard solution.
(3) How can you express the strength or concentration of a solution?

Answer:

(1) Strength of a solution: The strength of a solution means the concentration of the solute in the solution, i.e., the amount of solute present in a definite volume of the solution. The amount of dissolved solute in a definite volume of the solution determines the strength of the solution.

(2) Standard solution: A solution of known strength, i.e., a solution which contains a known amount of dissolved solute in a definite volume of the solvent is called a standard solution.

(3) Units of strength of solution: The strength or concentration of a dilute solution can be expressed by

(1) Percentage strength in weight by volume (W/V x 100)

(2) Grarn per litre (g/l).

Question 19. Point cut the main differences between suspension and colloid.
Answer:

Colloidal Solution Suspension
1.    Size range of colloidal particles : 10A- 2000A. 1.    Particles forming suspension are of size greater than 2000A.
2.    Colloidal particles are invisible under powerful microscope but the scattering of light can be viewed by ultra microscope. 2.    Particles are invisible either to the naked eye or under an ordinary microscope.
3.    Colloidal particles readily pass through filter paper but slowly through parchment paper. 3.    Cannot pass through filter or parchment paper.
4.    Colloidal particles scatter light, i.e.. show Tyndal effect. 4.    Do not show Tyndal effect.


Question 20. Describe briefly the mechanism of formation of a solution where a solid dissolves in a liquid.

Answer:
Mechanism of formation of solution of a solid in a liquid: When a solid solute comes in contact with a liquid solvent, the tiny solid particles of diameter 10-8 cm or less leave the surface of the solid solute depending on temperature and as the concentration of the solution increases, some solid particles return and deposit on the surface of the lump of solute.

At the beginning, the rate of leaving the solute surface increases and it slows down when the concentration of the solution increases. If the rate of leaving the surface of the solute is greater than that of their return, the solid dissolves totally.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 21. Why does a lump of sugar candy dissolve more quickly in water when it is kept suspended in the water than when it is just left in the water of a tumbler?
Answer: & jump of sugar candy if kept suspended in water, taken in a glass tumbler, dissolves more quickly than when it is dipped at the bottom of water in the tumbler. This Happens because the layers of water near the suspended lump of candy become concentrated due to dissolution of a part of the candy and become heavier and.

So move down and less concentrated and lighter water layers move near the lump. In this way, the rate of dissolution of the candy increases, i.e., it goes into solution quickly. Same thing happens if the solution is stirred, when the concentrated layers of water are displaced due to stirring. But if the lump is left at the bottom of water, the concentrated and heavier water layers remain there and water layers of less concentration hardly come near it, so the lump takes a lot of time to get dissolved.

Question 22. Does formation of a solution always accompany heat exchange?
Answer: There is almost always heat changes accompanying formation of solutions. This means that some solutes, when go into solution, heat is evolved and for some other solutes, heat is absorbed. For example, KNO3, NH4Cl, etc. absorb heat while they go into solution, i.e., the change is endothermic, so their solubility increases with rise in temperature. In fact, solubility of most of the solid substances increases with rise in temperature, so by increasing the temperature of a solution, more solute may be dissolved in it.

Exception :

Solubility of sodium chloride (NaCl) remains almost unchanged with rise in temperature. Again, heat evolves when calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH)2], Zinc phosphate [Zn,(PO4)2] an hydrous sodium sulphate (Na2SO4), etc. go into solution, the change in such cases is exothermic, so their solubility decreases with rise in temperature. Hence, solubility of a substance of this type increases due to cooling.

Thus, in general, increase in temperature favours an endothermic change while decrease in temperature favours an exothermic change.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 23. State the properties of a true solution.
Answer :

The main properties of a true solution are :


(1) A true solution is always clear and transparent (light can easily pass through it).

(2) A true solution is homogeneous in nature.

(3) The particles of a solute break down to almost molecule size and cannot be seen under a microscope.

(4) A true solution can easily pass through filter paper as pores of filter paper are bigger than the molecules of solution.

(5) The solute can be recovered from true solution by physical methods (as evaporating the solute or crystallization of solute).

(6) In true solution, particles of the solute do mat settle down, provided the temperatures are kept constant.

Question 24. Describe the effect of temperature and pressure on the solubility of the solids and gases.
Answer :

The effect of temperature and pressure on solubility are :

(1) The solubility of solids in liquids usually increases due to increase in temperature and decreases due to decrease in temperature.

(2) The solubility of solids in liquids remain unaffected by change in pressure.

(3) The solubility of gases in liquids usually decrease on increasing the temperature and increases on decreasing the temperature.

(4) The solubility of gases in liquids increases on increasing the pressure and decreases on decreasing the pressure.

Question 25. State with examples the effect of temperature on the solubility of different solids.
Answer:

(1) Solids whose solubility remain unaffected with rise in temperatures are :

Common salt (sodium chloride)− NaCl
Potassium chloride – KCI
Lithium chloride – LiCl

(2) Solids whose solubility increases with an increase in temperature are :
Copper Sulphate – CuSO4
Potassium Nitrate – KNO3
Sodium Nitrate – NaNO3
Ammonium chloride – NH4Cl

(3) Solids whose solubility decreases with an increase in temperature are :
Slaked line (Calcium hydroxide)
Sodium Sulphate – Na2SO4
Calcium Sulphate – CaSO4

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

Question 26. Show by a simple experiment that concentrated sulphuric acid is used to dry a gas or air.
Answer: Concentrated sulphuric acid is taken in a glass  Moist gas Dry gas bottle fitted lightly with two glass tubes with the help of a cork. One end of a glass tube is dipped in the acid while the other glass tube end is kept above the acid level. Now a moist gas is passed through the first tube into the acid. The sulphuric acid will absorb the water vapour and the dry gas will be obtained from the second tube.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Sulphuric Acid.

 

Question 27. What are unsaturated solutions, saturated solution and super-saturated solutions? Explain with examples.
Answer :
Unsaturated Solution: A solution which Drying Bottle can dissolve more of the solid solute, at a given temperature, is called unsaturated solution at that temperature.

Saturated Solution: A solution which cannot dissolve more of solute, at a given temperature, is called saturated solution at that temperature.

Super-Saturated Solution: A solution is said to be Super—Saturated when it contains in solution more of the solute than it could hold at that temperature if crystals of the solute were present.

Examples :
(1) When a teaspoon of sugar is added in a beaker containing water, it dissolves completely. The solution so formed is unsaturated.

(2) Add more sugar to the unsaturated solution of sugar in water. The solute (sugar) stops dissolving at some particular temperature. The solution is saturated at that temperature. Adding some more, sugar, it will settle down in the bottom of the beaker.

(3) On heating, the undissolved solute (sugar) will dissolve with respect to room temperature. This type of solution is called Super Saturated solution. On cooling the uper—Saturated solution, the excess. solute (sugar) appears in the form of crystals. The left solution will remain saturated.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Unsaturated,Saturated and Supersaturated solutions
Question 28. Show how you prepare 1 l of 2(M) NaCl solution.
Answer:

Calculation M \(=\frac{n}{V(\text { in I })}\)M=2\(=\frac{n}{11}\)

n=2 mol = 2 x 58.5 g NaCl = 117.0 g NaCl

So, you have to dissolve 117 g NaCl in 11 water.

Step 1: Weigh out 117 g NaCl.

Step 2: Transfer that amount of NaCl to a 1! (marked) Flask:

Step 3: Add water and fill to 1l mark.

Wb Class 9 Physical Science Question Answers

29. From the following experimental results determine the solubility of KCI at 25°C. Weight of clean and dry porcelain basin = 31.75 g.
Weight of the basin with saturated solution = 157.25 g.
Weight of the basin with dry salt = 77.25 g.
Answer: (1) Weight of the saturated KC solution = (157.25 − 31.75) = 125.5 g.

(2) Weight of KCI in the saturated solution = (77.25 − 31.75) = 45.50 g.

(3) Weight of water in saturated solution = (125.50 −45.50) = 80.00 g.

So at 25°C, 80 g water dissolves a maximum 45.50 g KCI to give a saturated solution.

∴ at 25°C 100g water dissolves \(=\frac{45.50 \times 100}{80}\)

= 56.875 g KCI to give saturated solution.

∴ Solubility of KCI at 25°C = 56.875.

Question 30. Mention the different ways to express the concentration of a solution.
Answer: The concentration of a solution can be expressed in several different ways :

(1) Percentage by weight (% w/w): It is the amount of solute in grams present in 100 grams of the solution.

(2) Weight/volume percentage (% w/v): It is the amount of solute in grams present in 100 ml of the solution.

(3) Volume/volume percentage (% v/v): It is the volume in mi of the solute present in 100 ml of the solution.

(4) Strength: It is the number of grams of the solute dissolved per litre of the solution.

(5) Normality (N): It is the number of gram equivalent of the solute dissolved per litre of a solution.

(6) Molarity (M): It is the number of moles of solute dissolved per litre of the solution.

(7) Molality (m): It is the number of moles of solute dissloved in 1000 grams of the solvent.

(8) Formality (F): Formality of a Solution is the number of gram formula weight of the ionic solute (e.g. NaCl) dissolved per litre of the solution.

(9) Mole fraction: It is the ratio of the number of moles of one component to the total number of moles of substances in the solution.

(10) Parts per million (ppm) : It is defined as the number of parts of a component per million parts of the solution.

Question 31. Tabulate the features of true solutions, colloids and suspensions.
Answer:

Features True Solutions Colloids Suspensions
(1) Particles that compose the solute in solution Atoms, ions or molecules Groups of ions, atoms, or molecules Large groups of insoluble particles
(2) Size of particles Less than 1 mm (1 nm = 10-9 m) 1-100 nm Greater than 100 nm
(3) Separation of solute and solvent by filtering Will not affect separation Will not affect separation Will affect separation
(4) Separation by semipermeable membrane Will not affect separation Will affect separation Will affect separation


Question 32. Differentiate between true solution, suspension and colloids.

Answer:
Differences between true solution, suspension and colloids :

Suspension Colloids True Solution
(1) Diameter of the particle is equal to or more than 10-4cm. The diameter of the particle is in between 10-5to l0-7 cm Diameter of the particle is less than 10-8cm.
(2) Particles are visible by naked eye or by microscope. Particles are not visible by naked eye or by microscope but can be observed by ultramicroscope. Not visible even by ultramicroscope.
(3)    Heterogeneous-two phase system. Heterogeneous-two phase system Homogeneous-one phase system.
(4)    Cannot pass through filter paper or parchment paper. May pass through filter paper but cannot pass through parchment paper. Can easily pass through filter paper or parchment paper.
(5)    The whole system looks opaque. The who»e system looks opaque The system is totally transparent.


Question 33. How can saturated, unsaturated and supersaturated solutions be identified?

Answer:

Identification of saturated, unsaturated and supersaturated solutions: Excess solute must be added for identification.

(1) If on addition of the solute to a solution, the solute dissolves and the density of the solution increases, then the given solution is unsaturated.

(2) If the excess solute is left undissolved at the bottom of the container and the density of the solution decreases by the addition of a piece of solute to a solution, then the solution is super saturated.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science

Question 34. Write a note on different concentration units of solubility.
Answer:

Different concentration units :

(1) Percent strength: It is the number of grams of the solute present in 100 ml of the solution. Thus 10% Na2CO3 means that 10 g of Na2CO3 are present in.100 ml of the solution. 15% HNO, solution’ means 15 g of HNO3 are present in 100 ml of the solution.

(2) Gram of solute per litre : This is the number of gram of solute in 1 litre of the solution.

(3) Molarity (M) : The molarity of a solution is the number of gram moles of the solute present in one litre of the solution.

Thus if 1 mole of solute is dissolved in 1 litre of solution, the solution is said to be 1 M.

Similarly, if , \(\frac{1}{10}\)th of a mole of a solute in dissolved in 1 lit of solution, it is said to be decimolar\(\left(\frac{M}{10}\right)\)

Thus, if 1 | HC! solution contains 36.5 g HCl, the molarity is 1;

if 1 l HCI solution contains 71 g HCI, the molarity is 2.

Let a gram of solute of molecular weight m be dissolved in v lit of solution.

∴ Number of moles of solute \(=\frac{a}{m}\)

Thus v | solution contains\(\frac{a}{m}\)  moles of solute.

Or, 1 | solution   contains \(\frac{a}{mv}\)moles of solute.

Or, the molaritty of the solution (M)\(=\frac{a}{m v}\)=\(\frac{a / v}{m}\) .

\(\text { Or, Molarity of the solution }(\mathrm{M})=\frac{\text { Weight of the solute in gram per litre }}{\text { Gram-Molecular weight of the solute }}\) .

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science

Question 35. write a note on the conversion of concentration of a solution from one unit to another
Answer:

Coversion of concentration of solution from one unit to another :

(1) From percent strength to molarity: If the strength of a solution be x% and the molecular weight of the solute be m, then 100 ml solution contains x of solute.

∴ 1000 ml solution contains 10x g of solute.

∴ Molarity \(=\frac{\text { Gram of solute per litre }}{\text { Gram Molecular weight }}\) (M)=\(\frac{10 x}{m} \text { (M) }\)

(2) From molarity to percent strength: If the strength of a solution is x (M), then %

Strength\(=\frac{\text { Molarity } \times \text { Gram }-\text { molecular weight of the solute }}{10}\)

(3) From molarity to gram per liter: Gram of salute per litre of the solution

= Molarity x Mol-wt.

To note that w does not depend on temperature but volume (V) depends. ae all these concentration units (which involve volume) are temperature dependent.

Question 36. What are the properties of suspension?
Answer:

Properties of suspension :
(1) Nature: Hetergeneous in nature.
(2) Visibility: Can be seen with naked eyes
(3) Size of the particle: Size of the suspended particles is nearly 10-4 cm (10-6 m).
(4) Sedimentation: Particles of suspension have a tendency to settle down when left undisturbed.
(5) Separation: Particles can be separated by filtration.

Question 37. Classify colloids with examples.
Answer:

Common Examples of Colloids :

SI. No. Dispersion medium Dispersed phase Common name of the system Examples
1 Liquid Gas Foam Soap lather, shaving cream foam, Lemonade froth, etc.
2 Solid Gas Solid foam Pumice stone, foam rubber, sponge.
3 Gas Liquid Aerosol of liquid Fog, mist, clouds, liquid sprays, etc.
4 Solid Liquid Gel Jellies, cheese, butter, Tooth paste, etc.
5 Solid Solid Solid sol Colored gemstone, colored glass, etc.
6 Liquid Solid Sol Gold sol, sulphur sol, ink, paints, starch solution, muddy water, etc.
7 Gas Solid Aerosol of solid Smoke, dust, etc.
8 Liquid Liquid Emulsion Milk, face cream, etc. hair cream,  emulsified medicine, etc.


Question 38. What are the properties of colloids ?

Answer:

Properties of colloids :

(1) Heterogeneous nature: Colloidal solution is heterogeneous in nature having dispersed phase and dispersion medium.

(2) Visibility: Particle size being very small cannot be seen by naked eyes.

(3) Filterability: Cannot filter with ordinary filter paper, but can be separated by ultrafilters.

(4) Stability: Quite stable, the dispersed particles do not settle down on keeping for a long time.

(5) Colloidal particles show Brownian movement: The colloidal particles in dispersion medium move continuously in zig-zag path, this movement of the particles is called Brownian movement.

(6) Tyndal effect: Colloidal particles are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path vissible. This phenomenon is called Tyndal effect. With the help of this effect distinction between true solution and colloidal solution is made.

Question 39. Write a short note on emulsion.
Answer:

Emulsion: Emulsion is a liquid-liquid colloidal system, of which one is water and the other is an oil. Two types of emulsions are formed with two types of liquids.

(1) Oils dispersed in water (O/W type): In the system water acts as dispersion medium e.g. milk, here tiny droplets of liquid fat are dispersed in water and casein acts as an emulsifier.

(2) Water dispersed in oil (W/O type): Oil acts as dispersion medium, e.g. stiff greases, here water is dispersed in lubricating oil, butter, cod-liver oil, cold cream. Perparation of emulsion using water, oil and soap Dispersion of a liquid in the form of an emulsion is called emulsification. Emulsions are prepared by agitating a small proportion of one liquid with the bulk of the other, by passing a mixture of two liquids through a colloidal milk called homogenizer.

The emulsions prepared by shaking the two liquids are not stable and to make them stable a third substance is added in small amount during the preparation of emulsion, which is called emulsifer or emulsifying agent. The common emulsifying agents are soap, detergents, gum, gelatin, etc.

Question 40. Mention the uses of emulsifiers in daily life.
Answer:

Use of emulsifiers in everyday life : Some hydrophilic colloids are added in small quantities to the colloidal system or emulsion to stabilise and protect their colloidal nature.

Example: (1) In the commercial preparation of ice cream a little gelatin is added to protect the colloid to give a smooth taste. This little amount of gelatin prevents ice cream from forming gritty crystals of ice and lactose (sugar).

(2) Gum arabic is added to certain inks to stabilize it.

(3) The colloidal dispersion of silver bromide used in the preparation of photographic films, is stabilised by addition of gelatin.

(4) Emulsion paints are stabilised by adding the emulsifier tetrasodium pyrophosphate, sodium lauryl sulphate, etc.

Question 41. Write the effect of pressure and temperature on the solubility of gases in liquids.
Answer:

The effect of pressure and temperature on the solubility of gases in liquids (water)

(1) Effect of pressure: An increase of pressure on the surface of water causes increase in solubility of gas in water. In soda water bottle (or in cold drinks bottles}  CO2 is dissolved at a higher pressure than normal pressure. Solubility of CO2 increases with increase in pressure in the solution. On opening the lid of soda water bottle, the dissolved excess gas at higher pressure rapidly bubbles out because on opening the lid the pressure on the solution suddenly decreases. There is a very little effect of pressure on the dissolution of solids.

(2) Effect of temperature: An increase in temperature of water causes decrease of solubility of gas in water. Gases are more soluble in cold water than in at higher temperature. Boiling water loses its taste because the taste of water due to the dissolved gases in it, on boiling these gases, escape out of water. Generally, solubility of solids increases with increase in temperature.

Question 42. What are the factors affecting solubility?
Answer:

Factors affecting solubility: The rate of solubility of a ‘solid in water (liquid) depends on the following factors :

(1) The particle size of the solute: Smaller is the particle size of the solute, greater is the rate of solubility. It is due to smaller particle size; greater its total surface area in contact with the solvent and greater the rate of solubility.

(2) Stirring the mixture of solute and solvent: Brings more solvent in contact with the solute and increases the rate of solution formation.

(3) Temperature: Solubility of gas in liquid decreases with rise in temperature. But the solubility of most of the solids in water usually increases with rise in temperature.

Question 43. Write a short note on solubility curves.
Answer:

Solubility curves: If the solubility of a solute in a given 10 solvent is plotted against respective temperatures, a line graph a is obtained showing the effect of temperature on the solubility of a solute. This graph is called solubility curve.

Graphical representation of temperature dependence of, solubility of following compounds in water are given. Here the solubility of substances are plotted along the ordinate (Y-axis) and the temperature along the abscissa (x-axis).

(1) Substances like KNO3 show a considerable increase in Lae solubility with increase in temperature.

(2) The solubility of NaCl increases a little with increase in temperature.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Solubility Curve.

 

(3) Solubility of Glauber’s salt (Na2SO4,10H2O) : Its solubility rises till it reaches 32.8°C; it is the solubility of hydrated Na2SO4, 10H2O and above 32.8°C it is the solubility of anhydrous Na2SO4 salt.

WBBSE Solutions For Class 9 Physical Science And Environment Solution Solubility Curve of Glauber's salt.(4) The solubility curve of Ca(OH)2 shows there is a decrease of solubility after attaining certain temperature.

Wbbse Class 9 Physical Science

Question 44. Write about the dissolution of micromolecules and macromolecules in water.
Answer:

Dissolution of micromolecules and macromolecules in water: Macromolecules are so small that during dissolution they enter into the intermolecular space between the water molecule and get easily dissolved and form solution. But the micromolecules which are in very fine state are generally present in the form of colloid or suspension in the water.

In case of macromolecules, their size is so large that during dissolution they do not enter into the intermolecular space of water molecules, rather they displace many water molecules and go into that space and get dissolved in water. For example, bigger molecules like protein, DNA, starch, which are generally polymeric material, are always dissolved in this form.

Question 45. Write briefly various non-aqueous solvents with their uses.
Answer:

Non-aqueous solvents and their use :

Non-aqueous solvents Use of dissolve Use in our everyday life
1. Benzene, Toluene, Xylene chloroform Rubber, plastics, varnishes 1. Petrol, Kerosene, and ammonia are used in laundries for dry cleaning, for removing grease adhering on clothes.
2. Turpentine od, castor oil Paints, paraffin wax 2. Turpentine oil is used for removing paint stain.
3. Carbon disulphide Sulphur, Phosphorus 3. Borax solution for removing coffee and tea stain from clothes.
4. Petrol Grease, rubber, Chlorophyll 4. Iodine solution in alcohol is called a tincture of iodine used for dressing wounds.
5. Acetone Nail Polish (Cellulose acetate) 5. Manufacture of perfumes: Aroma substances are dissoved in alcohol.
6. Alcohol Iodine, naphthalene, chlorophyll Resin, chlorophyll. 6. Extraction Of ChlorophyifIt is extracted by plant materials. with alcohol, petrol, etc.

 

WBBSE Solutions for Class 9 Physical Science And Environment