Ameerun

Short Answer Questions

Discreptions: Give answer in 2-3 sentences.

Question 1. How does a subspecies differ from a species?
Answer:

A species consists of a population (or populations) that cannot interbreed successfully with another species. A subspecies consists of a group within a species that is usually geographically isolated from other subspecies. If ranges of different subspecies do overlap, successful interbreeding can occur.

Read And Learn More: NEET Class 9 Biology Short Question And Answers

Question 2. Describe the evolution of specialized cells, tissues, and organs in the Animalia, including the name of the animal group that first showed each evolutionary innovation.
Answer:

Sponges are the group in which the first specialized cells appeared. However, sponges are merely loose collections of such cells. The cnidaria were among the first animals to evolve true, differentiated tissues. Flatworms were among the first animals to evolve true organs.

Question 3. Why do we classify organisms?
Answer:

We classify organisms because of classification:

• Makes the study of diverse forms of life easy i.e. by
  studying one member of the group we can know about
  the whole group.
• Helps us to understand the interrelation among different
  living organisms and trace the order of evolution.
• Provides the basis for developments in other branches
  of biology e.g. crop improvement and animal breeding.

Question 4. What are the kingdoms of life?
Answer:

A five-kingdom classification system consisting of the kingdoms Monera, Protista, Animalia, Fungi and Plantae is widely used, but a new and increasingly accepted three domain system will require revisions at the kingdom level of classification. The three domains, representing the three main branches of life, are Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya.

Question 5. The biological field of taxonomy classifies organisms based on their evolutionary relationships. Indicate the correct order for these levels of taxa Class, family, species, genus, kingdom, phylum, order

1. What are the three domains of life?
2. What is the binomial name for humans”

Answer:

1. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
2. Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya
3. Homo sapiens.

Question 6. Give the difference between Thallophyta and Bryophyta.
Answer:

Question 7. Give the characteristics of Monera.
Answer:

1. Organisms are unicellular, do not have a defined nucleus.
2. Organisms may have cell wall or may not have cell wall.
3. Mode of nutrition is either autotrophic or heterotrophic

Question 8. Give the difference between the two types of symmetry that animals show.
Answer:

Question 9. Differentiate between Vertebrates and Invertebrates.
Answer:

Question 10. How are pores or holes all over the body of porifera important?
Answer: The pores or holes present all over the body of the organisms lead to a canal system that helps in circulating water throughout the body to bring in food and oxygen.

Question 11. State the features of all chordates.
Answer:

All chordates possess the following features:

• Have A Notochord
• Have A Dorsal Nerve Cord
• Are Triploblastic
• Have paired gill pouches

Question 12. Name the phylum of the following animals.

1. Tapeworm
2. Starfish
3. Jellyfish
4. Octopus

Answer:

1. Tapeworm – Phylum Platyhelminthes
2. Starfish – Phylum Echinodermata
3. Jelly fish – Phylum Coelenterata
4. Octopus – Phylum Mollusca

Question 13. Give general characteristics of Platyhelminthus’?
Answer:

1. These are flatworms.
2. Most of them are parasites.
3. Animals are triploblastic.
4. No true internal body cavity.

Examples: Tapeworm, Planaria, Liver fluke

Question 14. Give the characteristics of Arthropoda with two examples.
Answer:

1. Arthropoda means ‘Jointed legs’.
2. Animals are bilaterally symmetrical and segmented.
3. It has an open circulatory system.
4. They have open circulatory system.

Example: Spider, scorpions, crabs house flies.

Question 15. Give specific characteristics of coelenterata.
Answer:

1. Water-living animals.
2. Body is made of two layers of cells.
3. Some of them live in colonies corals, while others have solitary life-span (Hydra).
4. Body cavity present.

Question 16. Give the characteristics of mammals.
Answer:

1. Mammals are warm-blooded animals.
2. Four chambered heart
3. Mammary glands for production of milk to nourish their younger one.
4. Skin has hairs and sweat and oil glands.
5. Most of them produce their young ones (viviparous)

Question 17. Differentiate between algae and fungi.
Answer:

Question 18. Give the characteristics ofAves.
Answer:

Characteristics of Aves are :

1. Streamlined body
2. Hollow and light bones
3. Forelimbs are modified into wings, which help in fling.
4. Warm blooded animals. Heart with four chambers.
5. Egg laying animals
6. Beak present, teeth are absent.

Question 19. Birds should feed more often than lizards. Give reasons.
Answer:

Birds are warm-blooded animals and are more active. Some of them often fl continuously for hours. So their energy requirement is more. On the other hand, lizards are coldblooded, sluggish animals and often go for hibernation. So their energy demand is relatively less. Energy is produced by the oxidation offood materials. So, to fulfi the higher energy demand, birds should feed more often than lizards.

Question 20. A, B and C are living organisms. Identify the group to which they belong to on the basis of the following features:

1. A is unicellular, microscopic, eukaryotic, and shows locomotion with the help of pseudopodia.
Answer: Organism A belongs to kingdom Protista.

2. B is unicellular, microscopic, prokaryotic, and has cell wall.
Answer: Organism B belongs to kingdom Monera.

3. C is multicellular, fiamentous, eukaryotic, autotrophic and aquatic.
Answer: Organism C belongs to kingdom Plantae; division Thallophyta and class Algae.

Question 21.What is haemocoel? Which groups of animals have it?
Answer: The coelomic cavity meant for blood circulation is termed as haemocoel. In haemocoel, the blood flws freely, so this type of blood circulation is known as open type circulation. Haemocoel is found in the animals of phylum Arthropoda.

Question 22.What is the fate of notochord in higher chordates?
Answer: In higher chordates, the notochord is transformed into vertebral column, which lies mid dorsally extending from skull to tail.

Question 23. How can we consider that green algae are similar to higher plants?
Answer: On the basis of the following points, green algae can be considered to be similar to higher plants :

1. Their cell wall is made up of cellulose and pectin.
2. They contain pigments like chlorophyll and carotenoid
3. They contain pigments like chlorophyll and carotenoid
4. They store food in the form of starch.

Question 24. Why are bryophytes called ‘amphibians of the plant world’?
Answer: Like amphibians, bryophytes, also need water for fertilisation and development. Hence, they are called amphibians of the plant world.

Question 25. Give the characteristics of Protista.
Answer:

1. Organisms are unicellular, eukaryotic organisms
2. Use appendages for locomotion like cilia, flagella.
3. Nutrition is either autotrophic or heterotrophic, e.g. algae, protozoa.

Question 26.What are hermaphrodites? Give two examples.
Answer: When an organism has both the sexes, i.e., it can produce both sperms and eggs.

Example: sponges, earthworms.

Question 27. Give the characteristics features of Echinodermata.
Answer:

1. Spikes present on skin.
2. Free-living marine animals.
3. Triploblastic and have a coelomic cavity.
4. Have peculiar water-driven tube system called water vascular system that they use for making movement around.
5. Have hard calcium carbonate structure that is used as a skeleton.

Example: Starfish, sea-urchin.

Question 28. What are the conventions followed for writing the scientific names?
Answer:

The conventions followed while writing the scientific names are:

1. The name of the genus begins with a capital letter.
2. The name of the species begins with a small letter.
3. When printed, the scientific name is given in italics.
4. When written by hand, the genus name and the species name have to be underlined separately.

Question 29. Why are vertebrates also called craniates?
Answer: All vertebrates possess skull or cranium, inside which brain ramains protected. Since cranium is always present in vertebrates they are also referred to as craniates.

Question 30. In which kingdom are viruses placed?
Answer:

Viruses are classified as living organisms because they have very simple, noncellular structure and cannot exist independently. They are on the boundary between what we regard as living and non living, and hence, are not included in any kingdom under modern classification.

Question 31. Why is Euglena called a plant-animal?
Answer:

Euglena is claimed to be a plant by botanists because it contains chloroplats and obtains its food through photosynthesis. On the other hand, zoologists consider it to be an animal as its body is covered by pellicle, it bears myonemes and reproduces by binary fision. Since Euglena possesses the features of both plants and animals, it is often called as a plant-animal.

Question 32. Identify the animal group having:

1. Spiny body and radial symmetry
Answer: Echinodermata

2. Bones are light and hollow
Answer: Aves

3. External ear or pinna present
Answer: Mammal

4. Soft-bodied animals supported by calcareous shell.
Answer: Mollusca

Question 33. What conventions are followed while writing the scientific names?
Answer:

• The scientific name should be written in italicized letters.
• Every organism must have two Latin names – the first name representing genus and the second name representing the species.
• The genus name must start with a capital letter and the species name with a small letter

Tissues Short Answer Questions

Directions: Give an answer in 2-3 sentences.

Question 1. Fill in the following table relating to muscle tissue.

Read And Learn More: NEET Class 9 Biology Short Question And Answers

Answer:

1. Single
2. No
3. Many
4. Yes
5. Single
6. Yes

Question 2. Where are the intercalary meristem located?
Answer:

Intercalary meristem is located in between the regions of permanent tissues, usually at the base of node, base of internode or at the base of the leaf.

Question 3. What are the main function of nervous tissue?
Answer:

The cells of nervous tissue are highly specialized for being stimulated. They transmit the stimulus from one place to another.

Question 4. Select the examples of

1. Complex permanent tissue,
Answer: Complex permanent tissue – Phloem

2. Simple permanent tissues,
Answer: Simple permanent tissue – Sclerenchyma, Chlorenchyma

3. Connective tissue,
Answer: Connective tissue – Blood, bone, cartilage

4. Muscular tissue
Answer: Muscular tissue – Muscle

5. Nervous tissue, from the given
Answer: Nervous tissue – Neuron

Blood, Phloem, Muscle, Bones, Sclerenchyma, Neuron, Cartilage, Chlorenchyma

Question 5. Give different components of phloem tissue.
Answer:

Sieve tubes, Companion cells, Phloem parenchyma and Phloem fires.

Question 6. Which animal epithelial tissue is called pavement epithelium? Where is it located?
Answer:

Simple squamous epithelium: It lines the blood vessels, coelom, urinary tubules and alveoli of lungs.

Question 7. Name two components of blood and give functions of blood plasma.
Answer:

• Blood has two components-Plasma and Blood cells.
• Blood plasma serves the function of transport of nutrients, carbon dioxide, waste products, hormones and metabolites intermediates. It also regulates water balance, pH and body temperature.

Question 8. What is lymph? Give its components.
Answer:

Lymph is a colorless flown tissue that acts as a middle man for transport of materials between blood and tissue cells.

It consists of two parts:

• Plasma
• White blood corpuscles.

Question 9. Name the tissues that show the following features:

1. Cells are living; cells show thickening; provide mechanical support to plants
Answer: Collenchyma

2. Cells are dead; cells show thickening; provides mechanical support to plants; made up of one type of cells
Answer: Sclerenchyma

3. Cell are living; cells contain green coloured chloroplasts; possess intercellular spaces.
Answer: Chlorenchyma

Question 10. Distinguish between the following:

1. Cartilage and bone on the basis of matrix.
Answer: Matrix of cartilage may or may not have calcium salts whereas calcium salts, mainly calcium phosphates, are always present in the matrix of bone.

2. Blood and lymph on the basis of components.
Answer: Blood consists of plasma, erythrocytes, leucocytes and platelets whereas lymph consists of plasma and leucocytes.

3. Simple tissues and complex tissues on the basis of constitution of cells.
Answer: Simple tissue is made up of similar cells whereas complex tissue is made up of two or more than two types of cells.

Question 11. Answer the following:

1. Which skeletal tissue does show unidirectional growth?
Answer: Cartilage

2. Which animal tissue is responsible for movement of body parts and locomotion?
Answer: Muscular tissue

3. Which animal tissue is protective in function?
Answer: Epithelial tissue.

Question 12. Give three features of cardiac muscles.
Answer:

Cells/Fibres: They are small, cylindrical, uninucleate striated with short lateral branches.

Intercalated Discs: In the area of union between the two adjacent cardiac muscle fires, zig-zag junctions called intercalated discs develop. The intercalated discs function as impulse boosters.

Rhythmic Contractions: The muscles are involuntary and nonfatigued which continue to contract and relax tirelessly throughout life.

Question 13. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary muscles.
Answer:

Give one example of each type.

Question 14. Give four differences between the Bone and Cartilage.
Answer:

Question 15. Name the functions of cartilage.
Answer:

1. It provides support and flexibility to body parts.
2. It smoothens the surface at joints.

Question 16. Difference between xylem and phloem.
Answer:

Question 17. Name the tissues for the following:
Answer:

1. Stores fat in the animal body
2. Adipose tissue
3. Divides and redivides to grow in plants
4. Meristematic tissue

Question 18. Why does epidermal tissue have no intercellular space?
Answer:

The epidermal (layer) tissue forms a protective outer covering for the plants and it protects the internal parts of the plant. It aids in the protection against loss of water, mechanical injury and invasion by parasitic fungi.

For this protective role to play the continuation of cells is necessary, hence it does not have intercellular space.

Question 19. Give the difference between ligament and tendon.
Answer:

Question 20. Give the difference between striated muscles and unstriated muscles.
Answer:

Question 21. Name different types of meristematic tissue and draw a diagram to show their location.
Answer:

The 3 different types of meristematic tissue are:

1. Apical meristem – Function; growth in length.
2. Lateral meristem – Function; growth in thickness.
3. Intercalary meristem – Function; growth in internodes

Question 22. State the difference between Bone and Blood.
Answer:

Question 23. Name three types of muscle tissues and give the function of each.
Answer:

Three types of muscle tissues are:

1. Striated Muscle
2. Smooth Muscle
3. Cardiac muscle.

1. Striated muscle: These muscles show alternate light and dark bands or striations. They are involuntarily present in skeletal tissues, help in the movement of body and bones.

2. Smooth muscle: These are involuntary muscles, that control the movement of food in the alimentary canal, contraction and relaxation of blood vessels. Present in iris, uterus etc.

3. Cardiac muscles: These muscles are present in heart, help in the rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout the life.

Question 24. Explain the structure, function and location of nervous tissue.
Answer:

Structure: Nervous tissue consists of cells called nerve cells joined end to end cytoplasm, from this cells body long thin hair-like parts arise called dendrites. One of this part is long, branched and is called axon.

Location: Nervous tissues are present in brain, spinal cord and nerves.

Function: Nervous tissue receives the stimuli and transmit the stimulus rapidly from one place to another within the body. The nerve impulse allows us to move our muscles and respond to any stimuli.

Question 25. What is the function and location of stratified squamous epithelium?
Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium is present in the skin. The layers of cells are arranged to prevent wear and tear.

Question 26. State the differences between simple tissues of plants.
Answer:

The simple tissues of plants are:

1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Sclerenchyma

Question 27. What is the utility of tissues in multicellular organisms?
Answer:

• Division of Labour: Tissues bring about the division of labor in multicellular organisms. It increases efficiency.
• Higher Organisation: Tissues become organized to form organs and organ systems.
• Individual Cells: Work-load of individual cells is decreased.

The Fundamental Unit of Life Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Explain why it is not enough just to say that a Answer: is “hypertonic.”
Answer:

Hypertonic and hypotonic are relative terms: A Answer: that is hypertonic to tap water could be hypotonic to seawater. In using these terms, you must provide a comparison, as in “The Answer: is hypertonic to the cell.

Read And Learn More: NEET Class 9 Biology Short Question And Answers

Question 2. As a cell increases in size, its surface-to-volume ratio decreases which causes the cell to function less effiiently. Discuss ways in which variations in cell structure can help overcome this problem.
Answer:

Cells with spines or extensions help to overcome the surface area-to-volume ratio problem by increasing their surface area. Elongated or non-spherical cells also have a more favourable ratio.

Question 3. Why is the presence of organelles within eukaryotes signifiant? In otherwords, why are eukaryotes so complex and diverse as compared with prokaryotes?
Answer:

Eukaryotes have organelles that each contain different enzymes, so the enzymes do not mix and interact within the cytoplasm of the cell. This arrangement allows for greater diversity in types of enzymes and reactions and greater diversity in eukaryotes. Prokaryotes do not have such organelles.

Question 4. Distinguish between rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum, both structurally and functionally.
Answer:

Rough ER consists of cisternae with numerous polysomes on their outer surface, whereas smooth ER lacks ribosomes and is mostly tubular. Rough ER is involved in protein synthesis, but smooth ER is involved in the synthesis of lipids.

Question 5. How is osmosis a special type of diffusion?
Answer:

Osmosis is a special type of diffusion because both involve movement of molecules of substance from the region of its higher concentration to the region of its lower concentration. In osmosis water moves across a semi-permeable membrane.

Question 6. What are the functions of vacuoles in plant cells and unicellular organisms?
Answer:

In plant cells vacuoles:

1. Provide rigidity to the cell.
2. Store waste products, and useful substances like amino acids, sugars, organic acids, proteins, minerals and pigments.

In unicellular organisms like Amoeba:

1. Food material is enclosed in vacuoles, called the food vacuole.
2. Contractile vacuoles expel water and waste products from the cell.

Question 7. Proteins embedded in the plasma membrane have several important functions in the life of the cell. Describe two of these functions. Explain why they are important to the cell?
Answer:

One function of proteins embedded in the plasma membrane is to form gateways that allow selective passage of ions and molecules in and out of the cell. This allows wastes to be removed and needed substances to enter. Another function is to recognize changes in the outside environment and to communicate with other cells for the quick response to change occurred.

Question 8. Organelles are the functional subunits of the cell. Each organelle has a specifi function which makes it easier to master the names, structure, and function of each component. In the following table, indicate the functions associated with each structure.

Organelles:

1. Nucleus
Answer:

Control centre of cell ; houses DNA

2. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Answer:

Site of protein synthesis.

3. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
Answer:

Lipid Synthesis

4. Golgi body
Answer:

Center For Packaging And Secretion

5. Lysosomes
Answer:

Degrade Debris, Recycle Cell Contents

6. Mitochondrion
Answer:

Organelle In Which Energy Transformation Occur.

7. Chloroplast
Answer:

Site Of Photosynthesis

8. Peroxisomes
Answer:

Contain enzymes that help the cell use oxygen

Question 9. Why do plant cells have more in number and big sized vacuoles as compared to the animal cell?
Answer:

Plant cells attain turgidity and rigidity due to the more number of vacoules as well as large sized vacuoles help the plant cells to withstand the wear and tear, external environment conditions. They also help in the storage of essential material required by plants for their growth like amino acids, sugar and various organic substances.

Question 10. We eat food composed of all the nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals and water. After digestion, these are absorbed in the form of glucose aminoacids, fatty acids, glycerol etc. What mechanisms are involved in absorption of digested food and water?
Answer:

Water is absorbed by osmosis; fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed by diffusion (passive transport) and glucose, amino acids and some ions are absorbed by active transport.

Question 11. Write the name of different plant parts in which chromoplast, chloroplast and leucoplast are present.
Answer:

• Chromoplasts – Flowers and fruits.
• Chloroplasts – Green leaves and green parts of young stems.
• Leucoplasts – Root and underground stem

Question 12. Give two major differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Answer:

Question 13. What is the main function of each of the following cell organelles?

1. Ribosome
Answer:

Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis.

2. Cell wall
Answer:

The cell wall provides shape, rigidity and protection to the cell.

Question 14. State two types of plastids. Write one function of each.
Answer:

Two types of plastids in plant cells are:

• Leucoplasts (colourless plastids). These store carbohydrates, proteins and lipids in the cells.
• Chromoplasts (coloured plastids). Green plastids e.g. chloroplasts synthesize food in the presence of sunlight by the process called photosynthesis.

Question 15. What are chromosomes? List their two functions.
Answer:

Chromosomes are thread-like structures usually present in the nucleus and become visible only during cell division.

They are composed of DNA and proteins:

• Chromosomes contain hereditary information of the cell.
• DNA of chromosomes also controls all the activities of the cell

Question 16. Name the nucleic acids that are present in an animal cell.
Answer:

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

Question 17. Cell wall is composed of which chief material. How many molecules of glucose contributes o prepare cellulose?
Answer:

Cellulose (carbohydrate). A cellulose molecule is a long, unbranched chain of about 6000 glucose molecules.

Question 18.

1. Is the cell wall in a plant cell living or non-living?
Answer:

The plant cell wall is non-living.

2. Is the cell wall in a plant cell permeable or selectively permeable?
Answer:

It is permeable.

Question 3. What is its chemical composition?
Answer:

Plant cell wall is chiefl composed ofinsoluble fibous polysaccharide, cellulose (carbohydrate). Certain other compounds (hemicellulose, pectins and proteins) also occur in the cell wall.

Question 19.

1. Who coined the term ‘cell’?
Answer:

Robert Hooke coined the term cell

2. Name three major differences between light microscope and electron microscope.
Answer:

Question 20.

1. Name any two cell organelles which are bounded by double membranes.
Answer:

Mitochondria and chloroplast.

2. Why are mitochondria called semiautonomous organelles?
Answer:

Mitochondria are capable of self duplication. They are also able to synthesize some of their own proteins. Hence, they are regarded as semiautonomous organelles

3. Where one would fid green chlorophyll pigment in a plant cell?
Answer:

Chlorophyll pigments are found in thylakoids of chloroplasts in a plant cell.

Question 21.

1. Name any two cell organelles that are bounded by double membranes.
Answer:

Nuclear envelope, nuclear sap, chromatin material, nucleolus and nuclear matrix.

2. What are chromosomes? Give their chemical composition.
Answer:

Chromosomes are thread-like structures usually present in the nucleus and become visible only during cell division. Each chromosome is made up of DNA and proteins.

3. List the type of chromosome if it has the following position of the centromere.

1. In the middle.
Answer:

Metacentric chromosome

2. At the tip of chromosome.
Answer:

Telocentric chromosome.

Question 22. What is a nucleoid?
Answer:

The nuclear region in some cells are poorly defied due to the absence of a nuclear membrane, it contains only nucleic acid. This undefined nuclear region with nucleic acid in it is called nucleoid.

Why Do We Fall Ill Very Short Answer Questions

Directions: Give an answer in one word or one sentence.

Question 1. Mention when the following days are celebrated in India:

1. Leprosy Day
2. World AIDS Day
3. World Tuberculosis Day
4. World Health Day

Answer:

1. Leprosy Day – 30 January
2. World AIDS Day – 1 December
3. World Tuberculosis Day – 24 March
4. World Health Day – 7 April

Question 2. Why do babies develop AIDS?
Answer: They are infected by their infected mothers during pregnancy, though placenta or birth, or nursing.

Question 3. What are congenital diseases? Give one example.
Answer: There are anatomical or physiological abnormalities present since birth. Example: Haemophilia.

Read And Learn More: NEET Class 9 Biology Very Short Answer Question And Answers

Question 4. Name atleast two diseases caused by viruses.
Answer: Common cold, measles.

Question 5. Name the bacterium responsible for causing peptic ulcers.
Answer: Helicobacter pylori.

Question 6. Name the disease that occurs due to deficiency of vitamin B1.
Answer: Beriberi

Question 7. Name the insect vector who transmits dengue in human beings.
Answer: Aedes mosquito.

Question 8. Name the scientist who first discovered antibiotics.
Answer: Sir Alexander Flemming.

Question 9. Expand the term ‘ORS’.
Answer: Oral Rehydration Solution

Question 10. Female Anopheles mosquito feeds on human blood. What is the food of male Anopheles mosquito?
Answer: Male Anopheles mosquito feed on plant juices.

Question 11. What is the safety level of the polio vaccine in infants?
Answer: Nearly 100%.

Question 12. Who first conceived the idea of vaccination?
Answer: Edward Jenner

Question 13. Which vaccine is commonly given to children to induce immunity in them against tuberculosis?
Answer: BCG.

Question 14. When was the Pulse Polio Immunisation Programme launched in India?
Answer: 1995-1996.

Question 15. Name the disease that occurs due to deficiency of vitamin C.
Answer: Scurvy.

Question 16. Name any one disease that spreads through sexual contact.
Answer: AIDS

Question 17. Knowledge of which disease helped Dr. Edward Jenner to develop idea of vaccination to prevent small pox?
Answer: Cowpox disease.

Question 18. Name the diseases showing respective symptoms:

1. Yellowness in the sclera of eyes and skin.
2. Patient fears from water.

Answer:

1. Hepatitis
2. Rabies.

Question 19. Define health.
Answer: According to WHO, health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well being, and not merely an absence ofdisease, or infimity.

Question 20. What is meant by ‘symptoms’ of a disease? What do they indicate?
Answer: These are the manifestations or evidence of the presence of disease(s). These indicate that there is some abnormality in the body.

Question 21. Name the scientist who first discovered penicillin antibiotic. Can you name any other known antibiotic?
Answer: Sir Alexander Flemming. Other known antibiotic is streptomycin.

Question 22. What are pathogens? Give examples.
Answer: Disease causing microorganisms are called pathogens. These include viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoans and worms.

Question 23. Name any one general way of prevention of infectious diseases.
Answer: Eradication of vectors.

Question 24. What is the mode of transmission of diarrhoeal diseases?
Answer: Generally through contaminated food, water, drinks etc.

Question 25. Name any one larvivorous fish which is a natural predator of mosquito larvae.
Answer: Gambusia fish.

Question 26. Name the toxin released by bacterium which causes tuberculosis.
Answer: Tuberculin

Question 27. Name the causative organism and vector of malaria
Answer: Causative organism is Plasmodium and vector is female Anopheles mosquito

Question 28. What are the first-level causes of the disease?
Answer: These are immediate or primary cause of the disease. For infectious diseases, pathogens are the first level causes of the disease.

Question 29. Name any one causative organism of diarrhoeal diseases.
Answer: Staphylococcus.

Question 30. What is good health?
Answer: Good health is disease free energetic state of body, free from anxiety, psychological and social tensions with happy cheerful and purposeful living.

Question 31. How has WHO Defined health?
Answer: “A state of complete physical, mental and social well being and not merely the absence ofdisease or infimity that enables one to lead a socially and economically productive life”.

Question 32. What is poor health?
Answer: Poor health is a condition of inability to perform physically, mentally or socially of what is required from a person.

Question 33. Whom will you call disease-free?
Answer: A person is called “disease free” if there is no discomfort or derangement in the functioning of the body.

Question 34. Who were awarded Nobel Prize for discovery of treatment for peptic ulcers?
Answer: Marshall and Warren (Nobel Prize for physiology and medicine, 2005)

Question 35. Highlight the way through which infectious disease generally spread in human communities.
Answer: Infectious diseases may spread through air (e.g. , tuberculosis), contaminated food and water (e.g., cholera, Hepatitis A), vectors (e.g. , trypanosomiasis, rabies) or through direct contact with the patient (e.g., chickenpox).

Question 36. Define acquired diseases.
Answer: Acquired diseases are those diseases which one pick up after birth.

Question 37. Define chronic diseases.
Answer: Chronic disease is a long duration, slow developing, disabling disease.

Question 38. What are contributing causes of disease?
Answer: Contributing causes are factors which make an individual prone to catch a disease, e.g. , undernourishment, poor heredity, poor public health services.

Question 39. Expand HIV.
Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus.

Question 40. Name two diseases transmitted by contaminated food and water.
Answer: Cholera and Hepatitis A.

Question 41. Name the target organ of Japanese encephalitis and AIDS virus respectively.
Answer: Brain and lymph nodes respectively.

Question 42. Name any two habits, which should be avoided to keep good health.
Answer: Drinking alcohol and smoking.

Question 43. Why we should not eat uncovered food?
Answer: It may contain microbes and other harmful substances.

Question 44. Name the target organ of Plasmodium.
Answer: Red blood cells.

Question 45. Name the causal organism of measles and anthrax respectively.
Answer: Virus and bacterium respectively.

Question 46. Name any two sources of diseases caused to an individual by his negligence.

1. Contaminated water
2. Uncovered food

Answer:

The two main sources of diseases caused to an individual by his negligence:

1. Contaminated water
2. Uncovered food

Question 47. What may be the symptoms of a disease if brain is infected?
Answer: Severe headache and vomiting.

Question 48. Name two barriers, which prevent the entry of microbes in the body?
Answer: Intact skin and sweat

Question 49. Mention the two principles of treatment.
Answer: By reducing the effect of the disease and by killing microbes.

Question 50. Expand DPT.
Answer: DPT – Diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough) and tetanus.

Question 51. How does proper nourishment help us to prevent infection?
Answer: It helps to develop a strong immunity.

Question 52. Name the microbe against which antibiotics are nearly ineffective.
Answer: Viruses

Question 53. Name the disease in which

1. Patient fears from water
2. Yellowing of skin takes place

Answer:

1. Rabies
2. Hepatitis.

Question 54. Name two animals, which transmit rabies to human beings.
Answer: Rabid dog and cat.

Question 55. Name the causal organism of diarrhoea.
Answer: Bacteria like Salmonella, Shigella.

Question 56. Name the disease in which legs become paralysed.
Answer: Polio.

Question 57. Mention two preventive measures against rabies.
Answer: Rabid animal should be killed and compulsory immunisation of cats and dogs.

Question 58. Give the full forms of these abbreviations:

1. ATS
2. ARS
3. ADS

Answer:

1. ATS – Anti-Tetanus Serum
2. ARS – Anti-Rabies Serum
3. ADS – Anti-Diphtheria Serum

Question 59. What kills bacteria in our food in the mouth and stomach?
Answer: The acidic pH of the oral cavity (mouth) and stomach kills the bacteria present and brought in through food.

Question 60. Who discovered that Anopheles mosquito is the vector of malaria, and how was he awarded?
Answer: Sir Ronald Ross, in 1897, discovered Anopheles as the vector of malaria. He was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1902 for his discovery.

Question 61. “Health is wealth”. What does this proverb mean?
Answer: This proverb means that health is the greatest asset for a human being and as such, it is not worth-living without good health.

Question 62. Differentiate between etiology and epidemiology.
Answer: Etiology is the study of the cause of disease while epidemiology deals with the cause as well as the spread of disease.

Question 63. Name the vaccine which saves that life of babies from three diseases.
Answer: DPT (Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus) vaccine is used to prevent three diseases, namely diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus in babies.

Diversity in Living Organism Very Short Answer Questions

Directions: Give an answer in one word or one sentence.

Question 1. What does hierarchy in the systems of classification mean?
Answer: Hierarchy is the frame-work of classification in which these groups are arranged in the order of increasing or decreasing levels of similarities.

Question 2. What is the criterion for the classification of organisms belonging to kingdom Monera or Protista?
Answer: Absence and presence of a well-defined nucleus and organelles in the kingdom Monera and Protista.

Question 3. Define diploblastic animal.
Answer: Animals in which cells are arranged in two germ or embryonic layers, ectoderm and endoderm, are called diploblastic animals, e.g., Coelenterates.

Read And Learn More: NEET Class 9 Biology Very Short Answer Question And Answers

Question 4. Name a marine annelid?
Answer: Nereis.

Question 5. Name two phyla, which have radial symmetry.
Answer:

1. Echinodermata.
2. Coelenterate.

Question 6. Which type of circulatory system is present in annelids?
Answer: Annelids have closed circulatory system.

Question 7. Give the scientific name of
Answer:

1. Frog-Rana tigrina.
2. Tree frog-Hyla.

Question 8. If plants produce no seeds, then how do they reproduce?
Answer: They produce spores that germinate and develop into gametophytes that produce gametes.

Question 9. What kind of symmetry you have?
Answer: Humans have bilateral symmetry.

Question 10. What are elements of the biological hierarchy and how are they arranged in their proper relationship with respect to one another, from smallest to largest order?
Answer: The elements of the biological hierarchy are: molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, individual organisms, populations species, communities, ecosystems, biomes, biosphere.

Question 11. List five characteristics by which biologists classify protozoan.
Answer:

• Mode of locomotion
• Nutrition
• Reproduction
• Type and number of nuclei
• Symbiotic or free-living

Question 12. State the basic characteristics of bryophytes.
Answer: Bryophytes are small, compact plants that lack vascular tissue. They absorb nutrients and water directly from the ground, rainwater and dust.

Question 13. What is an animal?
Answer: A animal is heterotrophic, unicellular or multicellular organism with eukaryotic cells that lack cell walls.

Question 14. Name the fresh water sponge.
Answer: Spongilla

Question 15. What is the space between epidermis and gastrodermis in coelenterates known as?
Answer: Mesogloea

Question 16. Name the organism in which asexual reproduction takes place by budding.
Answer: Hydra

Question 17.What is alternation ofgenerations?
Answer: When asexual and sexual generations alternate in the life cycle, it is called alternation of generations or metagenesis, e.g., coelenterates.

Question 18. What is the body symmetry of coelenterates?
Answer: Radial symmetry

Question 19. What is the skeleton of sponges made up of?
Answer: Skeleton of sponges is made up of spicules. Spicules are formed of calcium carbonate, silica or spongin fires.

Question 20. What is enterocoelom?
Answer: Enterocoelom is a true coelom which develops as lateral pouches from embryonic gut, e.g., echinodermata, chordata.

Question 21. What do you mean by diploblastic animals?
Answer: They are animals having two germinal layers in the embryo, outer ectoderm and inner endoderm, e.g., porifera, coelenterata.

Question 22. Define choanocytes.
Answer: Choanocytes or collar cells are biflagellate oval sponge cells that have a transparent contractile collar.

Question 23. What are parazoa?
Answer: Parazoa includes animals whose body consists of loosely aggregated cells, e.g., Porifera.

Question 24. What are non-chordates?
Answer: Non-chordates are those animals in which notochord is totally absent.

Question 25. What is cell level organization?
Answer: It is a type of organization based on cells which are not organised into tissues.

Question 26. Which type of body organization is present in platyhelminthes?
Answer: Organ system level of organization.

Question 27. Give the scientific name of the following:
Answer:

1. Round-worm
2. Ascaris lumbricoides
3. Filarial worm
4. Wuchereria bancrofti

Question 28. Give the scientific name of the following:
Answer:

• Earthworm
• Pheretima Posthuma
• Leech
• Hirudinaria

Question 29. What is the body symmetry of echinoderms?
Answer: Radial symmetry (in adults).

Question 30. Which type of eyes are present in insects?
Answer: Compound eyes

Question 31. Give two examples of mollusca.
Answer: Pila and Oyster

Question 32. Name the organ of echinoderms which helps in respiration and locomotion.
Answer: Tube feet.

Question 33. Give one example of
Answer:

• Cartilaginous fish
• Scoliodon (dog-fish)
• Bony fish.
• Rohu

Question 34. Name two classes of chordates in which clawed digits are present.
Answer: Reptilia and Aves

Question 35. Mention one unique feature of mammals.
Answer: Presence of diaphragm

Question 36. Name two classes having cold-blooded animals.
Answer: Amphibia and pisces

Question 37. Name the following:
Answer:

1. Organism in which external ear (pinna) is present.
Answer: Man

2. Organism in which nictitating membrane is present.
Answer: Frog.

Question 38. Name the reptile in which heart is four-chambered.
Answer: Crocodile

Question 39. What is the position of notochord in

1. Urochordata
2. Cephalochordata?

Answer:

1. Tail region
2. Notochord extends up to anterior end of the body.

Question 40. How many chambers are present in the heart of

1. Fishes
2. Frogs

Answer:

1. Two chambers
2. Three chambers.

Question 41. Name the phylum in which pharyngeal gill slits are present.
Answer: Chordata

Question 42. What do you mean by the term chondrichthyes?
Answer: Cartilaginous fishes.

Question 43. Which tissue is called loose connective tissue?
Answer: Areolar tissue.

Question 44. Write one important character of permanent tissues.
Answer: They originate from meristematic tissue and become
permanent at field positions in the plant body.

Question 45. Name the components of xylem.
Answer: Tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fires.

Question 46. Which tissue is the principal component of tendons and ligaments?
Answer: Dense regular connective tissue.

Question 47. Name the three parts of a neuron.
Answer: Cyton (cell body), Dendrons and Axon.

Question 48. Where do you find meristematic tissues in plants?
Answer: In apical, intercalary and lateral positions in plants.

Question 49. Name the three types of meristematic tissues.
Answer: Apical meristem, Lateral meristem and Intercalary meristem.

Question 50. Name the complex tissues in plants which help in the

1. Conduction of water and inorganic solutes.
Answer: Xylem

2. Translocation of organic solutes.
Answer: Phloem.

Question 51. What is meant by division of labour?
Answer: It refers to the distribution of different functions among
different parts of the organism’s body which get specialized
for the particular function.

Question 52. Name the muscles of heart.
Answer: Cardiac muscles

Question 53. Identify a plant tissue whose living cells form the mechanical tissue of actively growing organs and whose cell wall show cellulose thickenings often at the corners of cells.
Answer: Collenchyma.

Question 54. Nissl’s granules are present in which cells?
Answer: Neurons.

Question 55. Which cell is attached to the lateral side of sieve tube in phloem?
Answer: Companion cell.

Question 56. Which simple tissue is used for making ropes?
Answer: Sclerenchyma.

Question 57. An organism has actively dividing cells at its growing apices which continue to divide and add new cells throughout the life. To which group it belongs – plants or animals?
Answer: The organism is a plant

Question 58. What is the chief function of collenchyma?
Answer: It provides mechanical strength as well as flexibility to soft parts of plant.

Question 59. Who wrote the book “The Origin of Species”?
Answer: Charles Darwin in 1859.

Question 60. Name the simple division of plant kingdom.
Answer:

Question 61. Name the reproductive organ of plants.
Answer: Flower

Question 62. What are cotyledons?
Answer: Plant embryos in seeds are called cotyledons. They are called so because they look like seed ‘leaves’.

Question 63. Name two mammals that lay eggs.
Answer: Platypus, Echidna.

Question 64. What are Cryptogamae?
Answer: The plants with hidden reproductive organs are called cryptogamae, e.g. fern

Tissues Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Where is chlorenchyma found in plant body?
Answer: Chlorenchyma is found in green parts of plant body like leaves and young stem

Question 2. Why does a thin and delicate layer of squamous epithelium line blood capillaries?
Answer: To allow easy exchange of materials between blood and body tissues.

Question 3. Which type of blood cells are nucleated at maturity?
Answer: White blood cells or leucocytes

Read And Learn More: NEET Class 9 Biology Very Short Answer Question And Answers

Question 4. Why are skeletal muscles called striated muscles ?
Answer: They have alternate light and dark bands or striations, therefore they are called striated muscles.

Question 5. What other structure is especially abundant in muscle cells?
Answer: Microfilaments.

Question 6. What is the function of a firoblast ?
Answer: To produce various types of connective tissue fibers

Question 7. What is the function of adipose tissue ?
Answer: To store fats, which insulate and protect parts of the body.

Question 8. What might be an advantage in cardiac muscle cells bring branched?
Answer: Gives them greater strength.

Question 9. How is the branched structure of neurons related to their function?
Answer: They serve to establish and operate communication networks

Question 10. What is the function of mitochondria in a muscle cell?
Answer: To provide muscle cells with energy through cellular respiration reactions.

Question 11. What is the source of energy for muscle cell contraction?
Answer: ATP generated from cellular respiration.

Question 12. Which organ is composed of cardiac muscle tissue?
Answer: Only the heart

Question 13. What is the overall purpose of a nervous system?
Answer: The function of the nervous system is to detect and react to changes in the environment to maintain homeostasis of the origanism.

Question 14. Write the four types of animal tissues.
Answer: Epithelial tissue, Muscular tissue, Connective tissue and Nervous tissue

Question 15. Name the three types of simple permanent tissues.
Answer: Parenchyma, Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma.

Question 16. Which tissue is called loose connective tissue?
Answer: Areolar tissue.

Question 17. Name the three parts of a neuron.
Answer: Cyton (cell body), Dendrons and Axon

Question 18. What is meant by division of labour?
Answer: It refers to the distribution of different functions among different parts of the organism’s body which get specialized for the particular function.

Question 19. Which tissue is the principal component of tendons and
ligaments?
Answer: Dense regular connective tissue

Question 20. What is the main function of parenchyma?
Answer: Main function of parenchyma is to store food and provide turgidity to the organ.

Question 21. What are tracheary elements?
Answer: Tracheids and vessels in xylem are called tracheray elements.

Question 22. Name the tissue responsbile for growth in plants.
Answer: Meristematic tissue.

Question 23. What is the chief function of collenchymas?
Answer: It provides mechanical strength as well as flexibility to soft parts of plant.

Question 24. Which type of animal tissue connects muscles to the bone?
Answer: Tendons

Question 25. Which tissue type does protect the animal body?
Answer: Epithelial tissue

Question 26. What is the chief function of

1. R.B.Cs.
2. Blood platelets.

Answer:

• Transport of oxygen
• Platelet plays a role in blood clotting

Question 27. An organism has actively dividing cells at its growing apices which continue to divide and add new cells throughout the life. To which group it belongs-plants or animals?
Answer: The organism is a plant.

Question 28. Name the protein found in white fire and yellow fire.
Answer: Collagen protein is found in white fires whereas elastin protein is found in yellow fires.

Question 29. State the functions of microvilli.
Answer:

• Microvilli have the following main functions:
• They increase the absorptive surface of the intestine
• They increase the surface area available for reactions.

Question 30. What does the root tip contain that helps in root elongation?
Answer: The root tip contains apical meristematic tissues which are responsbile for elongation of roots.

Question 31. Which plant tissue provides both mechanical strength as
well as flexibility?
Answer: Collenchyma provides both mechanical strength as well as flexibility

Question 32. Why is the axon called efferent nerve process?
Answer: Axon is called efferent nerve process because it conducts the impulse away from the cyton.

Question 33. Define arenchyma.
Answer: When the cells have air filed in large cavities ofcell, it is called arenchyma present in aquatic plant to help them in floating.

Question 34. What is differentiation?
Answer: The process of taking up permanent shape, size and function by cells is called differentiation.

Question 35. Name the three types of meristematic tissues.
Answer:

The three types are:

• Apical tissue – tips of root and shoot
• Lateral tissue-sides of stem.
• Intercalary tissue – at nodes.

Question 36. Which tissues are present at the nodes of the plants.
Answer: Intercalary tissue

Question 37. What are the various types of blood cells?
Answer:

There are three types:

1. RBCs.
2. WBCs and
3. Platelets.

Question 38. Name the following:

1. Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth.
Answer: Epithelial tissue

2. Tissue that connects muscle to bone in humans.
Answer: Tendon

3. Tissue that transports food in plants.
Answer: Phloem

4. Tissue that stores fat in our body.
Answer: Adipose tissue

5. Connective tissue with a flied matrix.
Answer: Blood

6. Tissue present in the brain.
Answer: Nervous tissue.

Question 39. Name the tissue responsbile for movement of our body. What does a neuron look-like?
Answer: Muscular tissue

Question 41. Where is apical meristem found?
Answer: A miniature tree with thin hair-like parts arising from its ends.

Question 42. Give one example of
Answer:

• Apical meristem and
• Lateral meristem.
• Answer: One example of
• Apical meristem-Shoot apex
• Lateral meristem – Cambium.

Question 43. Define permanent tissues.
Answer: A group of cells that have lost their ability to divide and have assumed a definite form and size is known as permanent tissue.

Question 44. Which chemical is deposited at the corner of cells in
collenchyma?
Answer: Pectin and cellulose are deposited at the corner of cells in collenchyma

Question 45. Which chemical is deposited in the cell wall of
sclerenchyma?
Answer: Lignin is deposited in the cell wall of sclerenchyma

Question 46. What is the common name of the following?

1. Xylem
2. Phloem

Answer: Wood

Question 47. Which type of simple tissue is used for making ropes?
Answer: Sclerenchyma is used for making ropes

The Fundamental Unit of Life Very Short Answer Questions

Directions: Give an answer in one word or one sentence.

Question 1. Write the names of the following organelles –

1. Power house of the cell
Answer:

Mitochondria

2. Digestive bag of the cell
Answer:

Lysosome

3. Protein factory of cell
Answer:

Ribosome

Read And Learn More: NEET Class 9 Biology Very Short Answer Question And Answers

4. Head quarter of cell
Answer:

Nucleus

Question 2. Defie cristae?
Answer:

Cristae are the infoldings of inner mitochondrial membrane which contains oxysomes. They are the sites containing respiratory enzymes.

Question 3. Which cell type probably evolved fist?
Answer:

Prokaryotic cell.

Question 4. What is the primary function of the plasma membrane?
Answer:

It regulates the movement of ions and molecules into and out of the cell.

Question 5. Why does water diffuse out of a cell if it is placed in a hypertonic Answer:

The water concentration is more inside the cell than outside the cell hence, and water diffuses down a concentration gradient.

Question 6. What are the structural differences between a prokaryotic cell and a normal eukaryotic cell?
Answer:

Eukaryotic cell contains a true nucleus and various types of membrane-bound organelles whereas prokaryotic cells do not contain these structures.

Question 7. What will happen if all the mitochondria of a cell are destroyed?
Answer:

The cell will die because mitochondria are the sites of respiration and contain various respiratory enzymes.

Question 8. What do you mean by “semi-autonomous genomes system”? In which organelle is it present?
Answer:

The system where there is a presence of replicable DNA molecule constitutes semiautonomous cell system as they themselves can divide and form a new individual of similar type.

Question 9. Name the process by which a cell engulfs its food?
Answer:

Cell engulfs its food by endocytosis.

Question 10. What is the function of ribosomes?
Answer:

Ribosomes help in protein synthesis in the cell.

Question 11. Which type of microscope would you use to study –

1. The changes in shape of a living human white blood cell.
Answer:

Light microscope

2. The first details ofsurface texture ofa human hair.
Answer:

Scanning electron microscope

3. The detailed structure of an organelle in the cytoplasm of a human liver cell.
Answer:

Transmission electron microscope

Question 12. How is the nucleoid region of a prokaryotic cell unlike the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell?
Answer:

There is no membrane enclosing the DNA of the nucleoid region.

Question 13. Why do phospholipids tend to organize into a bilayer in an aqueous environment?
Answer:

This structure shields the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids from water while exposing the hydrophilic heads to water

Question 14. What is the energy source for active transport
Answer:

ATP

Question 15. Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow all contributed to the development of the Cell Theory in the nineteenth century. Formulate two statements that comprise the cell theory of the nineteenth century.
Answer:

1. Cells are the structural and functional units of organisms.
2. All cells come from pre-existing cells.

Question 16. What three features of plant cells distinguish them from animal cells?
Answer:

In contrast to animal cells, plant cells have vacuoles, cell walls, and plastids.

Question 17. Endoplasmic reticulum helps in membrane biogenesis. Explain how?
Answer:

SER helps in synthesis of phospholipids and RER synthesises proteins both of these are membrane forming materials but they are packed inside the golgi body.

Question 18. Give two examples of prokaryotic cell.
Answer:

Bacteria and blue green algae.

Question 19. What is the main function of each of the following organelles?

1. Ribosome
Answer:

Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis.

2. Cell wall
Answer:

Cell wall provides shape, rigidity and protection to the cell.

Question 20. Name the cell organelle in which following structures are present

1. Cristae
Answer:

Mitochondria

2. Stroma
Answer:

Plastid (chloroplast)

3. Centriole
Answer:

Centrosome

4. Chromosome
Answer:

Nucleus.

Question 21. What is the main function of each of the following organelles?

1. Golgi bodies
Answer:

Golgi bodies help in the formation of cell plate (during cell division) and synthesis of lysomes.

2. Vacuole
Answer:

Vacuoles are involved in the maintenance of water balance.

Question 22. Name two cells organelles, which contain their own genetic material.
Answer:

Mitochondria and plastids.

Question 23. Is the plant cell wall living or dead?
Answer:

The cell wall is dead.

Question 24. What is the common name of mitochondria?
Answer:

Mitochondria are commonly known as power house of the cellls.

Question 25. Name the following:

1. Suicide bag of the cell.
Answer:

Lysosome

2. Kitchen of a cell.
Answer:

Chloroplast

Question 26. Name the scientist who fist studied living cell.
Answer:

Living cells were fist studied by A.V. Leeuwenhoek (1674).

Question 27. How many cells are present in human body?
Answer:

100 trillion cells.

Question 28. Name the book in which Robert Hooke published his work.
Answer:

Robert Hooke published his work in ‘Micrographia’ (1665).

Question 29. Name the smallest and the largest cell.
Answer:

The smallest cell is Mycoplasma (PPLO) and the largest cell is Ostrich egg.

Question 30. Name the structure from which all multicellular organisms develop.
Answer:

Zygote.

Question 31. Defie cell.
Answer:

Cell is the structural and functional unit of life.

Question 32. What is protoplasm?
Answer:

Protoplasm or living matter is a complex semiflid mass of various biochemicals that are often compartmentalised to perform different functions of life.

Question 33. What is semipermeable membrane?
Answer:

Semipermeable membrane is a membrane which is permeable to solvent but prevents the passage of all solutes through it, but selectively permit.

Question 34. Name the biochemicals present in cell membrane.
Answer:

Lipid (phospholipids), proteins and small quantity of carbohydrates.

Question 35. What do you mean by selectively permeable membrane?
Answer:

Selectively permeable membrane is the one which allows entry of certain substances, exit of some substances but prevents the passage of other substances.

Question 36. Define diffusion.
Answer:

The process of movement of a substance (solid, liquid or gas) from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration so as to spread uniformly is called diffusion

Question 37. What would happen if plasma membrane ruptures?
Answer:

It generally heals within time but if rupturing does not heal, the cell contents will spill over and the cell is killed.

Question 38. What is osmotic Solution?
Answer:

Osmotic Solution is the one which can cause osmosis if separated from its solvent by a semipermeable membrane.

Question 39. Defie endosmosis.
Answer:

Endosmosis is the osmotic entry of water into a cell or system due to presence of hypotonic Answer: of the outside.

Question 40. What is main function of plasma membrane?
Answer:

The main function of plasma membrane is to insulate the internal environment of the cell from external environment.

Question 41. What is exosmosis?
Answer:

Exosmosis is the osmotic exit of water from a cell or system due to presence of hypertonic Answer: on the outside.

Question 42. Define:
Answer:

Hypertonic Solution:

Hypertonic Solution is the one which has higher solute osmotic concentration and less solvent concentration as compared to another Solution

Hypotonic Solution:

Hypotonic Solution is the Solution that possesses lower (osmotic) concentration and higher solvent concentration as compared to another Solution

Isotonic Solution:

Isotonic Solution is the Solution that has the same concentration, solute (osmotic) as well as solvent, as that of another Solution

Question 43. What is the energy currency in mitochondria?
Answer:

ATP-Adenosine Triphosphate.

Question 44. Name the cell-organelle that helps in packaging?
Answer:

Golgi apparatus.

Question 45. Name the cell-organelle which helps in the transportating of material.
Answer:

Endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 46. Why does mitochondria have largely folded inner membrane?
Answer:

Mitochandria are the sites for cellular respiration and provides energy to the cell. The largely folded inner membrane provides the increase in surface area for ATP-to generate chemical reactions.

Question 47. What are cisterns?
Answer:

The golgi bodies consist of a system of membrane-bound vesicles arranged in stacks called cisterns

Why Do We Fall Ill Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: This section contains multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), and out of which only one is correct.

Question 1. AIDS is caused by

1. Blood cancer
2. HTLV-III
3. Bacterium
4. TMV

Answer: 2. HTLV-III

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. Passive immunity was discovered by

1. Robert Koch
2. L. Pasteur
3. Edward Jenner
4. Eemil Von Behring

Answer: 2. L. Pasteur

Question 3. Vaccines are prepared from immune

1. Vitamins
2. Blood
3. Serum
4. Plasma

Answer: 4. Plasma

Question 4. Which one of the following pairs of diseases can spread through blood transfusion?

1. Cholera and hepatitis
2. Hepatitis and AIDS
3. Diabetes mellitus and malaria
4. Hay fever and AIDS

Answer: 2. Hepatitis and AIDS

Question 5. The term “antibiotic” was coined by

1. Alexander flming
2. Edward Jenner
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Selman Waksman

Answer: 4. Selman waksman

Question 6. Antibodies are produced by

1. Erythrocytes
2. Thrombocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Lymphocytes

Answer: 4. Lymphocytes

Question 7. B.C.G. vaccine is used against

1. T.B.
2. Leprosy
3. Food Poisoning
4. None of these

Answer: 1. T.B.

Question 8. DPT vaccine is given for

1. Tetanus, Polio, Plague
2. Diptheria, Whooping Cough, And Leprosy
3. Diptheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus
4. Diptheria, whooping cough, tetanus

Answer: 4. Diptheria, whooping cough, tetanus

Question 9. Active immunity is obtained by

1. Antibodies
2. Weakened Germs Infection
3. Natural Resistance
4. None Of these

Answer: 2. Weakened Germs Infection

Question 10. Which is an auto-immune disease?

1. Cancer
2. Asthma
3. Erythroblastosis foetalis
4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: 3. Erythroblastosis foetalis

Question 11. ‘Polio’ is caused by

1. A Bacteriophage
2. A Virus With Single Strand Rna
3. A Virus With Single Strand DNA
4. A Virus with double-strand DNA

Answer: 2. A Virus With Single Strand Rna

Question 12. The Jaundice is a physiological liver disease. It is caused by a

1. Bacterium
2. Virus
3. Protozoan
4. Helminth

Answer: 2. Virus

Question 13. Which of the following disease is not transmitted by house flies?

1. Typhoid
2. Yellow fever
3. Cholera
4. Dysentery

Answer: 2. Yellow fever

Question 14. Cholera is caused by

1. Virus
2. Bacteria
3. Fungi
4. Protozoan

Answer: 2. Bacteria

Question 15. The Malignant tertian malaria is caused by

1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Plasmodium falciparum
3. Plasmodium ovale
4. Plasmodium malaria

Answer: 2. Plasmodium falciparum

Question 16. All diseases are spread by housefuls except

1. Leprosy
2. Dysentery
3. Typhoid
4. Sleeping sickness

Answer: 4. Sleeping sickness

Question 17. Kala-azar is used and transmitted respectively by

1. Leishmania and Phlebatomus
2. Trypanosoma and sand fl
3. Leishmania and tsetse fl
4. Trypanosoma and Glossina palpalis

Answer: 1. Leishmania and Phlebatomus

Question 18. Fever in malaria is due to

1. Entry Of Sporozoites Into Blood Capillaries
2. Entry Of Merozoites Into Liver Cells
3. Release Of Merozoites From Red Blood Cells
4. Entry Of Cryptomerozoites Into Red Blood Cells

Answer: 3. Release Of Merozoites From Red Blood Cells

Question 19. Cancer is related to

1. Uncontrolled Growth Of Tissues
2. Non-Malignant Tumor
3. Controlled Division Of Tissues
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Uncontrolled Growth Of Tissues

Question 20. Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide which

1. Reduces The Oxygen-Carrying Capacity Of Blood
2. Causes Gastric Ulcers
3. Raises Blood Pressure
4. Is Carcinogenic

Answer: 1. Reduces The Oxygen-Carrying Capacity Of Blood

Question 21. A group of viral borne disease is

1. Gepatities And Typhoid
2. Polio And Dengue
3. Rabies And Tetanus
4. Measles and cholera

Answer: 2. Polio And Dengue

Question 22. Mosquito is not a vector for a disease in the following

1. Malaria
2. Typhoid
3. Dengu
4. Elephantitis

Answer: 2. Typhoid

Question 23. Health is

1. Complete Physical well-being
2. Mental Well Being
3. Social Well Being
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 24. Community health aims at

1. Better health and family planning
2. Better hygiene and a clean environment
3. Removing communicable diseases
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 25. ‘Pathogens’ were discovered by

1. Edward Jenner
2. William Harvey
3. Pasteur
4. Robert Koch

Answer: 4. Robert Koch

Question 26. A scientist associated with ‘antibiotics’ is

1. Brown
2. Flemming
3. Leeuwenhoek
4. Koch

Answer: 2. Flemming

Question 27. An antibody is

1. Molecule That Specifically Inactivates An Antigen
2. WBC Which Invades Bacteria
3. Secretion Of Mammalian RBC
4. Component of blood

Answer: 1. Molecule That Specifically Inactivates An Antigen

Question 28. ‘AIDS’ stands for

1. Anto immune deficiency syndrome
2. Auto immune deficiency syndrome
3. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
4. Acquired immune disease syndrome

Answer: 3. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

Question 29. The AIDS test is known as

1. ELISA
2. Australian antigen
3. HIV test
4. None of these

Answer: 1. ELISA

Question 30. Which of the following is a communicable disease?

1. Phenylketoneuria
2. Cancer
3. Rabies
4. Alkaptonuria

Answer: 3. Rabies

Question 31. The biological agents of disease included

1. Binerals, Vitamins, Proteins And Carbohydrates
2. Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, Helminths And Other Organisms
3. Heat, Cold, Humidity Pressure, Radiations
4. All The above

Answer: 2. Viruses, Bacteria, Fungi, Helminths And Other Organisms

Question 32. Tuberculosis is caused by

Bacterium

Virus

Protozoan

Malnutrition

Answer: 1. Bacterium

Question 33. ‘Plague’ is transmitted by

1. House fl
2. Tse-tse fl
3. Rat file
4. Mosquito

Answer: 3. Rat file

Question 34. ‘Black Death’ is related with

1. Plague
2. Cancer
3. Tuberculosis
4. Measles

Answer: 1. Plague

Question 35. Cholera, leprosy, and diphtheria are

1. Bacteria Diseases
2. Viral Diseases
3. Fungal Diseases
4. Functional Diseases

Answer: 1. Bacteria Diseases

Question 36. Which disease is caused by a flagellate?

1. Sleeping sickness
2. Dysentery
3. Whooping cough
4. Jaundice

Answer: 1. Sleeping sickness

Question 37. Cancer can be caused by the use of

1. Tobacco
2. Alcohol
3. Opium
4. LSD

Answer: 1. Tobacco

Question 38. Dilation of blood vessels, increase in fat synthesis, low blood sugar, and inflammation of stomach are due to the consumption of

1. Tobacco
2. Drug Addition
3. Alcohol
4. Tobacco and drug addiction

Answer: 3. Alcohol

Question 39. Which of the following are intimately related?

1. Disease and health
2. Body and health
3. Body and mind
4. Body and spiritual values

Answer: 3. Body and mind

Question 40. The group of diseases spread by houseflies is

1. Malaria, Cholera, Scabies
2. Abies, Rickets, Diarrhoea
3. Typhoid, Dysentery, Tuberculosis
4. Ingworm, Scurvy, Vomiting

Answer: 3. Yphoid, Dysentery, Tuberculosis

Question 41. In order to prevent the spreading of a communicable disease like Cholera it is necessary to

1. Control The Population Of Mosquitoes
2. Ry Up All Ponds In The Neighborhood
3. Educate People To Drink Boiled Water And Not To Eat Exposed Food
4. Prevent Others From Coming In Contact With The Diseased Person

Answer: 3. Educate People To Drink Boiled Water And Not To Eat Exposed Food

Question 42. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

1. Tuberculosis
2. Mallpox
3. Owl Cholera
4. Alf diphtheria

Answer: 2. Mallpox

Question 43. Tuberculosis is a disease caused by

1. Acteria
2. Irus
3. Protozoan
4. Malnutrition

Answer: 1. Acteria

Question 44. Which of the following can be used for the biological control of mosquitoes?

1. Oil
2. Ointments
3. DDT
4. Gambusia

Answer: 4. Gambusia

Question 45. Fevers

1. Decrease Interferon Production.
2. Decrease The Concentration Of Iron In The Blood.
3. Decrease The Activity Of Phagocytes.
4. Increase the reproduction rate of invading bacteria.

Answer: 2. Decrease The Concentration Of Iron In The Blood.

Question 46. ‘Smallpox’ (Variola) disease is caused by

1. Virus
2. Bacterium
3. Protozoan
4. Mosquito

Answer: 1. Virus

Question 47. Pulse-Polio programme is organised in our country

1. To Cure Polio
2. To Eradicate Polio
3. To Spread Polio
4. None Of these.

Answer: 2. To Eradicate Polio

Question 48. The vector for causing sleeping sickness in men is

1. House Fl
2. Mosquito
3. Tse-Tse Fl
4. Butter fl

Answer: 3. Tse-Tse Fl

Question 49. Examples of congenital diseases are

1. Alkaptonuria, albinism
2. Albinism, sickle cell anemia
3. Hemophilia
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Question 50. Arteether is the latest drug for

1. Polio
2. Malaria
3. Diarrhea
4. Common cold

Answer: 2. Malaria

Question 51. Hydrophobia occurs during

1. Tetanus
2. Rabies
3. Polio
4. Cholera

Answer: 2. Rabies

Question 52. The primary organ affected by tuberculosis is

1. Bone Marrow
2. Spleen
3. Intestine
4. Lungs

Answer: 4. Lungs

Question 53. The diseases that can be transmitted through body fluid only are

1. TB and cholera
2. Typhoid And Cholera
3. Cholera And Rabies
4. AIDS and hepatitis B

Answer: 4. AIDS and hepatitis B

Question 54. BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against

1. Tuberculosis
2. Typhoid
3. AIDS
4. Cholera

Answer: 1. Tuberculosis

Question 55. World AIDS Day is celebrated on

1. 5th June
2. 1st October
3. 11th July
4. 1st December

Answer: 4. 1st December

Question 56. If you live in an overcrowded and poorly ventilated house, it is possible that you may suffer from which of the following diseases

1. Cancer
2. AIDS
3. Air Borne Diseases
4. Cholera

Answer: 3. Air Borne Diseases

Question 57. The interval between infection and the appearance of a disease is known as

1. Inoculation
2. Penetration
3. Infection Period
4. Incubation period

Answer: 4. Incubation period

Question 58. Microbes that generally enter the body through the nose are likely to affect

1. Gut
2. Lungs
3. Liver
4. Lymph nodes

Answer: 2. Lungs

Question 59. Which of the following is a mismatch?

1. AIDS – Bacterial infection
2. Polio – Viral infection
3. Malaria – Protozoan infection
4. Elephantiasis – Helminth infection

Answer: 1. AIDS – Bacterial infection

Question 60. The type of disease that begins abruptly, affects a patient’s normal functioning but lasts for a short duration is termed as

1. Chronic Disease
2. Acute Disease
3. Hormonal Disease
4. Deficiency disease

Answer: 2. Acute Disease

Question 61. Goitre is related with

1. Vitamin A
2. Florine
3. Iodine
4. Pancreas

Answer: 3. Iodine

Question 62. An animal that transmits a disease from an infected person or its stools etc. to another potential host is called

1. Primary Host
2. Secondary Host
3. Parasite
4. Vector

Answer: 4. Vector

Question 63. Which one of the following has a long-term effect on the health of an individual?

1. Common cold
2. Chickenpox
3. Chewing tobacco
4. Stress.

Answer: 3. Chewing tobacco

Question 64. We should not allow mosquitoes to breed in our surroundings because they

1. Multiply Very Fast And Cause Pollution
2. Are Vectors For Many Diseases
3. Bite And Cause Skin Diseases
4. Are Not important insects

Answer: 2. Are Vectors For Many Diseases

Question 65. Making anti-viral drugs is more difficult than making antibacterial medicines because

1. Virus Make Use Of Host Machinery
2. Viruses Are On The Border Line Of Living And Nonliving
3. Viruses Have Few Biochemical Mechanisms Of Their Own
4. Viruses Have A Protein Coat

Answer: 3. Viruses Have Few Biochemical Mechanisms Of Their Own

Question 66. Which one of the following diseases is caused by protozoans?

1. Malaria
2. Influenza
3. AIDS
4. Cholera

Answer: 1. Malaria

Question 67. Which one of the following is not important for individual health?

1. Living in a clean space
2. Good economic condition
3. Social equality and harmony
4. Living in a large and well-furnished house

Answer: 4. Living in a large and well-furnished house

Question 68. Vectors can be defined as

1. Animals Carry The Infecting Agents From a Sick Person To Another Healthy Person
2. Microorganisms That Cause Many Diseases
3. Infected Person
4. Diseased plants

Answer: 1. Animals Carry The Infecting Agents From Sick Person To Another Healthy Person

Question 69. The disease caused due to worms is

1. Tetanus
2. Rabies
3. Sleeping Sickness
4. Fiariasis

Answer: 4. Fiariasis

Question 70. Penicillin is a drug that can

1. Interfere In The Biological Pathway Of Bacteria
2. An Antibiotic That Can Kill Bacteria
3. Interfere In The Biological Pathways Of Virus
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Interfere In The Biological Pathways Of Virus

Question 71. Which one of the following is attacked by the HIV virus?

1. Red-blood cell
2. White-blood cells
3. Liver cell
4. Long cell

Answer: 2. Liver cell

Question 72. Trypanosoma, Leishmania, and Plasmodium are the examples of

1. Virus
2. Bacteria
3. Protozoa
4. Worm

Answer: 3. Protozoa

Question 73. The pathogens of disease are

1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Protozoa
4. All Of the above

Answer: 4. All Of the above

Question 74. Diarrhea, cholera, and typhoid, are diseases that have one thing in common, that is

1. All Of Them Are Caused By Bacteria
2. All Of Them Are Transmitted By Contaminated Food And Water.
3. All Of Them Are Cure By Antibiotics
4. All Of the above

Answer: 4. All Of the above

Question 75. The commonest antimalarial drug is obtained from

1. Roots Of Cinchona Tree
2. Bark Of Cinchona Tree
3. Leaf Of Cinchona Tree
4. Any Part Of The Plant.

Answer: 2. Bark Of Cinchona Tree

Question 76. The vaccine is not available against which of the following diseases?

1. Polio
2. Tuberculosis
3. Diphtheria
4. Malaria

Answer: 4. Malaria

Question 77. In chronic disease-patient suffers from

1. Poor Appetite
2. Short Breath
3. Tiredness
4. All The above.

Answer: 4. All The above

Question 78. Tuberculosis can be prevented through vaccination with

1. MMR
2. BCG
3. Hib
4. TAB

Answer: 2. BCG

Question 79. Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?

1. Allergy
2. Malaria
3. Diarrhea
4. Tuberculosis.

Answer: 1. Allergy

Question 80. Ascaris lumbricoides is a common roundworm of

1. Large Intestine
2. Liver
3. Bile Duct
4. Small Intestine

Answer: 4. Small Intestine

Question 81. The droplet method of transmission of the disease is found in

1. Common cold
2. AIDS
3. Hepatitis
4. Syphilis

Answer: 1. Common cold

Question 82. A chronic disease is

1. Hypertension
2. Typhoid
3. Diarrhea
4. Kala-Azar

Answer: 1. Hypertension

Diversity in Living Organism Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: This section contains multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices , , and out of which Only One is correct.

Question 1. Species is

1. Not Related To Evolution
2. Specific Class Ofevolution
3. Specific Unit Ofevolution
4. Fertile specific unit in the evolutionary history ofa race

Answer: 4. Fertile specific unit in the evolutionary history ofa race

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. Binomial system refers to

1. One Name
2. One International Name
3. One Generic And One Specific Name
4. None above

Answer: 3. One Generic And One Specific Name

Question 3. Two words comprising binomial nomenclature are

1. Family And Genus
2. Order And Family
3. Genus And Species
4. Species And Variety

Answer: 3. Genus And Species

Question 4. Maximum diversity is seen amongst

1. Monera
2. Animalia
3. Plantae
4. Protista

Answer: 2. Animalia

Question 5. System of classification used by Linnaeus was

1. Natural System
2. Artifiial System
3. Phylogeneric System
4. Asexual system

Answer: 2. Artifiial System

Question 6. The book ‘Origin of Species’ was written by

1. Lamarck
2. Darwin
3. Wallace
4. Oparin

Answer: 2. Darwin

Question 7.Which one of the following phyla has maximum species?

1. Annelida
2. Mollusca
3. Arthropoda
4. Echinodermata

Answer: 3. Arthropoda

Question 8. The latest classification of biological kingdom has been contributed by

1. Whittaker
2. Darwin
3. Haeckel
4. Linnaeus

Answer: 1. Whittaker

Question 9. Which of the followings are correct order of hierarchy?

1. Kingdom, division, phylum, genus and species
2. Phylum, division, genus, and class
3. Kingdom, genus, class, phylum, and division
4. Phylum, kingdom, genus, species and class

Answer: 1. Kingdom, division, phylum, genus, and species

Question 10. The five kingdom classification was given by

1. Whittaker (1969)
2. Linnaeus (1758)
3. Copeland (1966)
4. Haeckel (1866)

Answer: 1. Whittaker (1969)

Question 11. Who was the first to describe that species is the unit of classification?

1. John Ray
2. Huxley
3. Linnaeus
4. Candolle

Answer: 1. John Ray

Question 12. Species are considered as

1. Real Basic Units Of classification
2. The Lowest Units Of classification
3. Artifiial Concept Of Human Mind Which Cannot Be Defined In Absolute Terms
4. Real units of classification devised by taxonomists

Answer: 1. Real Basic Units Of classification

Question 13. Mitochondria are absent in

1. Green Algae
2. Brown Algae
3. Cynobacteria And Bacteria
4. All above

Answer: 3. Cynobacteria And Bacteria

Question 14. Spirogyra is found in

1. Stagnant Fresh Water
2. Fresh Running Water
3. Salty Water
4. Sea

Answer: 1. Stagnant Fresh Water

Question 15. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in having

1. Archegonia
2. Motile Sperms
3. Vascular Tissues
4. Antheridia

Answer: 3. Vascular Tissues

Question 16. Bryopytes differ from algae in having

1. Archegonium
2. Thalloid Body
3. Chlorophyll A
4. Carotenoids

Answer: 1. Archegonium

Question 17. Bryophytes are dependent on water because

1. Archegonium Has To Remain Filled With Water For Fertilization.
2. Water Is Essential For Fertilization For Their Homosporous Nature.
3. Water Is Essential For Their Vegetative Progagation.
4. The sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium.

Answer: 4. The sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium.

Question 18. Bryophytes are characterized by

1. Multicellular Jacketed Archegonia.
2. Thalloid Body.
3. Dominant Gametophyte And Partial Parasitic Sporophytic.
4. All above

Answer: 4. All above

Question 19. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the

1. Cytoplasm Of Chlorella
2. Mycelium Of A Green Mould Such As Aspergillus
3. Spore Capsule Of A Moss
4. Pollen tube of pinus

Answer: 3. Spore Capsule Of A Moss

Question 20. ‘Sanjeevani booti’ is

1. Selaginella kraussiana
2. Selaginella chrysocaulos
3. Selaginella bryopteris
4. None above

Answer: 3. Selaginella bryopteris

Question 21. Which of the following are absent in gymnosperms?

1. Xylem vessels
2. Xylem fires
3. Tracheids and fires
4. All of these

Answer: 1. Xylem vessels

Question 22. Angiosperms have

1. Tracheids And Vessels
2. Tracheids Only
3. Vessels Only
4. Tracheids and albuminous cells

Answer: 1. Tracheids And Vessels

Question 23. Botanical name of tea is

1. Piper nigrum
2. Thea/Camellia sinensis
3. Coffea arabica
4. Tectona grandis

Answer: 2. Thea/Camellia sinensis

Question 24. Venus flower basket belongs to

1. Arthropoda
2. Cnidaria
3. Porifera
4. Archelminthes

Answer: 3. Porifera

Question 25. Sponges have originated from

1. Ciliate Protozoans
2. Sporozoan Protozoans
3. Sarcodine Protozoans
4. Choanoflagellates protozoans

Answer: 4. Choanoflgellate protozoans

Question 26. Porifers are

1. Generally Marine, But Few Are Found In Fresh Water.
2. Generally Found In Fresh Water, But Few Are Marine
3. All Are Marine
4. All Are Found In Fresh Water

Answer: 1. Generally Marine, But Few Are Found In Fresh Water.

Question 27. Cavity that helps circulation and digestion is found in

1. Sponges
2. Cnidarians
3. Annelida
4. Round-worms

Answer: 2. Cnidarians

Question 28. Chenopodium oil is most successfully used for the expulsion of

1. Tape Worm
2. Live Flkes
3. Flt Worms
4. Round-worms

Answer: 4. Round-worms

Question 29. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

1. Water-vascular system – sponge
2. Flame cell – flt worm
3. Bludder – kangroo
4. Marsupium – platypus

Answer: 2. Flame cell – flt worm

Question 30. Which is not a feature of Annelida?

1. Metameric segmentation
2. Nephridia
3. Pseudocoelom
4. Clitellum

Answer: 3. Pseudocoelom

Question 31. Bacteria flgella is made up of

1. Protein
2. Amines
3. Lipids
4. Carbohydrates

Answer: 1. Protein

Question 32.Which of the following is an edible ‘Fungi’?

1. Mucor
2. Penicellium
3. Agaricus
4. Rhizopus

Answer: 3. Agaricus

Question 33. Symmetry in Cnidaria is

1. Radial
2. Bilateral
3. Pentamerous
4. Spherical

Answer: 1. Radial

Question 34. The group of animals belonging to phylum protozoa is

1. Paramaecium and Leucosolenia
2. Hydra and Amoeba
3. Euglena and Ascaris
4. Paramaecium and Plasmodium

Answer: 4. Paramaecium and Plasmodium

Question 35. Plants that grow in the desert are called

1. Hydrophytes
2. Mesophytes
3. Xerophytes
4. Epiphytes

Answer: 3. Xerophytes

Question 36. Which one of the following is a basic unit of classification?

1. Genus
2. Species
3. Both Genus And Species
4. None Of The Above

Answer: 2. Species

Question 37. The generic name of mango is

1. Magnifera indica
2. Helminthosporium oryzae
3. Solanum tuberosum
4. Lycopersicon esculentum

Answer: 1. Magnifera indica

Question 38. The main plant body of pteridophytes is

1. Sporophyte
2. Epiphyte
3. Saprophyte
4. Gametophyte

Answer: 1. Sporophyte

Question 39. Which of the following groups of plants produce seeds but lacks fruits?

1. Fungi
2. Bryophytes
3. Pteridophytes
4. Gymnosperms

Answer: 4. Gymnosperms

Question 40. Contractile vacuole in Amoeba is analogous to the

1. Gastro Vascular Cavity Of Hydra
2. Sweal Glands Of Mammals
3. Uriniferous Tubules Of Frog
4. Typosole of earthworm

Answer: 3. Uriniferous Tubules Of Frog

Question 41. Which one of the following statements is true about sponges?

1. One mouth and innumerable exits
2. Innumerable mouths and one exit
3. A large spacious stomach
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Innumerable mouths and one exit

Question 42. The First Segment Of Earthworm, In Which The Mouth Is Situated, Is Called

1. Stomium
2. Peistomeum
3. Protostomium
4. Periosteum

Answer: 2. Peistomeum

Question 43. The body cavity of cockroach is a

1. Paragastric Cavity
2. Pseudocoelom
3. Coelom
4. Haemocoel

Answer: 4. Haemocoel

Question 44. Most primitive vascular plants are

1. Bacteria
2. Mosses
3. Ferns
4. Pines

Answer: 3. Ferns

Question 45. Radial symmetry is best seen in

1. Fishes
2. Starfish
3. Jellyfish
4. Sponges

Answer: 2. Starfish

Question 46. Presence of chitinous exoskeleton is an identifying feature of

1. Corals
2. Molluscs
3. Coelenterates
4. Arthropods

Answer: 4. Arthropods

Question 47. Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?

1. Arthropod
2. Insect
3. Invertebrate
4. Arachnid

Answer: 3. Invertebrate

Question 48. It is possible to imagine the various levels of taxonomic classification as a kind of “family tree” for an organism. If the kingdom is analogous to the trunk of the tree, which taxonomic category would be analogous to the large limbs coming off that trunk?

1. Class
2. Family
3. Order
4. Phylum

Answer: 4. Phylum

Question 49. An organism is described to you as having many nuclei containing cells, each surrounded by a cell wall of chitin and absorbing its food. In which kingdom or domain would you place it?

1. Plantae
2. Protista
3. Animalia
4. Fungi

Answer: 4. Fungi

Question 50. Classification places emphasis on

1. Similarities
2. Differences
3. Similarities And Differences
4. Color

Answer: 3. Similarities And Differences

Question 51. The kingdom Protista is primarily made up of organisms that are

1. Eukaryotic And Multicellular
2. Prokaryotic And Multicellular
3. Prokaryotic And Single-Celled
4. Eukaryotic and single-celled

Answer: 4. Eukaryotic and single-celled

Question 52. While collecting animals in a tidepool, you find an animal that looks like a cnidarian medusa; however, it lacks stinging cells. In all probability, the animal belongs to the phylum or is a(n)

Ctenophora

Planula larvae

Porifera

Cnidaria

Answer: 1. Ctenophora

Question 53. The two major evolutionary lines of animals, the protostomes and deuterostomes, are classified on the basis of

1. Nature Of Embryonic Development
2. Formation Of The Mouth And Anus
3. Cleavage Patterns
4. All Of the above

Answer: 4. All Of the above

Question 54. The arthropods are the most successful animal group on earth, and they share all the following characteristics except

1. Endoskeleton
2. Exoskeleton
3. Jointed Appendages
4. Complex nervous system

Answer: 1. Endoskeleton

Question 55. Generally speaking, fungi are

1. Saprophytes
2. Autotrophs
3. Prokaryotic
4. All of these are correct

Answer: 1. Saprophytes

Question 56. Compared to bryophytes, ferns are more advanced from an evolutionary perspective because they

1. A Produce Spores
2. Produce Windborne Pollen
3. Have Vascular Tissue
4. Do Not Require Water For Reproduction

Answer: 3. Have Vascular Tissue

Question 57. Which of the following groups contains organisms that represent early stages in the evolution of the eukaryotic cell?

1. Archaea
2. Protista
3. Fungi
4. Animalia

Answer: 2. Protista

Question 58. Fungi grow using

1. Hyphae
2. Chloroplasts
3. Angiosperms
4. Prokaryotes

Answer: 1. Hyphae

Question 59. Which of the following is the largest phylum?

1. Arthropoda
2. Annelida
3. Mollusca
4. Coelenterata.

Answer: 1. Arthropoda

Question 60. Basic taxonomic category is

1. Population
2. Species
3. Variety
4. Breed

Answer: 2. Species

Question 61. Male Ascaris can be distinguished from female Ascaris by

1. Curved Posterior End
2. Round Shape
3. Presence Of Penial Setae
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 62. Natural system of classification employs

1. Complexity Of Cell Structure
2. Complexity Of Body Structure
3. Organization
4. All The Above

Answer: 4. All The Above

Question 63. Mammals

1. Lay Eggs
2. Possess Body Hair
3. Have A Skin With Scales
4. All the above

Answer: 2. Possess Body Hair

Question 64. Sex organs are unicellular and non-jacked in

1. Algae
2. Bryophyta
3. Pteridophyta
4. Gymnosperms

Answer: 1. Algae

Question 65. Canal system is present in phylum

1. Protozoa
2. Porifera
3. Coelenterata
4. Echinodermata

Answer: 2. Porifera

Question 66. Placoid scales are present in

1. Lizard
2. Scoliodon
3. Anabas
4. Crocodile

Answer: 2. Scoliodon

Question 67. Which of the following has a chambered heart?

1. Toad
2. Lizard
3. Ostrich
4. Rohu

Answer: 4. Rohu

Question 68. Which one is a true fish?

1. Jellyfish
2. Starfish
3. Dogfish
4. Silverfish

Answer: 3. Dogfish

Question 69. Elephantiasis is caused by

1. Wuchereria
2. Pinworm
3. Planarians
4. Liver flukes

Answer: 1. Wuchereria

Question 70. Pteridophytes do not have

1. Root
2. System
3. Flowers
4. Leaves

Answer: 3. Flowers

Question 71. Corals are

1. Poriferans attached to some solid support
2. Cnidarians that are solitary living
3. Poriferans present at the sea bed
4. Cnidarians that live in colonies

Answer: 4. Cnidarians that live in colonies

Question 72. The skeleton is made entirely of cartilage in

1. Sharks
2. Tuna
3. Rohu
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Sharks

Question 73. Spirogyra is also called

1. Pond scum
2. Pond silk
3. Fairy ring
4. Both (1) and (2)

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2)

Question 74. Nutritionally Agaricus is

1. Parasitic
2. Autotroph
3. Saprophytic
4. Detrivores

Answer: 3. Saprophytic

Question 75. Funaria has

1. Two Shoots, Male And Female
2. Many Shoots
3. One Shoot
4. Flt thallus

Answer: 1. Two Shoots, Male And Female

Question 76. In moss, the sporophyte is

1. Small And Independent
2. Large And Independent
3. Small And Dependent Upon Gametophyte
4. Stalked and dependent upon gametophyte.

Answer: 4. Stalked and dependent upon gametophyte.

Question 77. Fronds are

1. Fern Leaves
2. Fern Sporangia
3. Fern Scales
4. Fern Rhizomes

Answer: 1. Fern Leaves

Question 78. Fern differs from moss in having

1. Independent Gemetophyte
2. Parasitic Gametophyte
3. Independent Sporophyte
4. Dependent sporophyte

Answer: 3. Independent Sporophyte

Question 79. Fern leaves bearing spores are called

1. Sporangia
2. Sori
3. Sporophylls
4. Fronds

Answer: 3. Sporophylls

Question 80. Male cones of Pinus occur

1. Single On Top Branches
2. In Whorls Over Top Branches
3. In Clusters Subapically Over Lower Branches
4. In clusters over top branches.

Answer: 3. In Clusters Subapically Over Lower Branches

Question 81. In angiosperms, megasporophyll is specialized to form

1. Stamen
2. Petal
3. Carpel
4. Sepal

Answer: 3. Carpel

Question 82. Earthworm has an unsegmented band called

1. Clitellum
2. Cephalothorax
3. Thorax
4. Metathorax

Answer: 1. Clitellum

Question 83. Clitellum occurs in segments

1. 8-10
2. 10-12
3. 14-15
4. 16-18

Answer: 3. 14-15

Question 84. Mouth parts of Cockroach are of type

1. Biting And Chewing
2. Piercing And Sucking
3. Siphoning
4. Sponging

Answer: 1. Biting And Chewing

Question 85. An important character of chordata is presence of

1. Dorsal Notochord
2. Dorsal Hollow Nerve Cord
3. Post-Anal Tail
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

Tissues Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: This section contains multiple-choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)  out of which only one is correct.

Question 1. Simple tissues are:

1. Parenchyma, Xylem, And Collenchyma
2. Parenchyma, Collenchyma, And Sclerenchyma
3. Parenchyma, Xylem, And Sclerenchyma
4. Parenchyma, xylem, and phloem

Answer: 2. Parenchyma, Collenchyma And Sclerenchyma

Read And Learn More: NEET Biology Class 9 Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Question 2. Meristematic tissues are found in

1. Only Stems Of The Plants
2. Both Roots And Stems
3. In All Growing Tips Of The Plant Body
4. Only roots of the plants

Answer: 3. In All Growing Tips Of The Plant Body

Question 3. Aerenchyma is formed by

1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Scelerechyma
4. Xylem

Answer: 1. Parenchyma

Question 4. The living cells providing tensile strength are

1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Sclerenchyma
4. Sclerotic Cells

Answer: 2. Collenchyma

Question 5. The characteristics feature of water storage tissue is

1. Large Sized Cells
2. Thin Cell Walls
3. Presence Of Mucliage
4. Presence of vacuoles

Answer: 4. Presence of vacuoles

Question 6. Unthickened areas present in the walls of sclerenchyma are

1. Pits
2. Plasmodesmata
3. Junctions
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 1. Pits

Question 7. The conducting cells of xylem are

1. Tracheary Elements
2. Sieve Elements
3. Companion Cells
4. All above

Answer: 1. Tracheary Elements

Question 8. Parenchyma has

1. Intercellular Spaces And Uniform Thickening
2. Deposition On Corners
3. Deposition On Angles
4. Deposition In Form Of Bands

Answer: 1. Intercellular Spaces And Uniform Thickening

Question 9. Which of the following helps in translocation of food is plants

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Sclerenchyma
4. Collenchyma

Answer: 2. Phloem

Question 10. The chief function of vessels in the plant body is

1. To Translocate Food Material
2. To Conduct Water And Mineral Salts
3. To Support Living Cells
4. All above

Answer: 2. To Conduct Water And Mineral Salts

Question 11. Tracheids and vessels are associated with

1. Xylem Of Pteridophytes
2. Xylem Of Angiosperms
3. Xylem Of Gymnosperms
4. All above

Answer: 2. Xylem Of Angiosperms

Question 12. Undifferentiated ground tissue is met with in

1. Cucurbita Stem
2. Maize Stem
3. Pea Stem
4. Sunflower stems

Answer: 2. Maize Stem

Question 13. Which of the following is an epidermal cell

1. Guard cells
2. Root hairs
3. Trichome
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 14. Vascular tissue system in root is

1. Collateral
2. Radial
3. Concentric
4. Biocollateral

Answer: 2. Radial

Question 15. Inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchi and bronchioles are lined by

1. Squamous epithelium
2. Ciliated epithelium
3. Columnar epithelium
4. Cubical epithelium

Answer: 2. Ciliated epithelium

Question 16. The average life span of human R.B.C. is

1. 100 days
2. 90 days
3. 120 days
4. None

Answer: 3. 120 days

Question 17. Blood cells which show phagocytosis is

1. Platelet
2. Eosinophil
3. Basophil
4. Monocyte

Answer: 4. Monocyte

Question 18. The process of formation of blood corpuscles is called

1. Haemopoiesis
2. Hemolysis
3. Heamozoin
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Haemopoiesis

Question 19. Which set does clearly identifies striated muscles?

1. Cylindrical, syncytial, and unbranched
2. Spindle, unbranched, and uninucleated
3. Cylindrical, striped, and nucleated
4. Cylindrical, striped, and branched

Answer: 1. Cylindrical, syncytial and unbranched

Question 20. Cavity or lumen is narrow in

1. Sclerenchyma
2. Parenchyma
3. Collenchyma
4. Tracheids

Answer: 1. Sclerenchyma

Question 21. Cell wall in cork is impervious to water and gases due to presence of

1. Lignin
2. Pectin
3. Suberin
4. Cellulose

Answer: 3. Suberin

Question 22. Cardiac muscle cells are cylindrical branched

1. Uninucleate and voluntary
2. Uninucleate and involuntary
3. Multimtcleate and voluntary
4. Multinucleate and involuntary

Answer: 2. Uninucleate and involuntary

Question 23. Striped muscle fires possess

1. Longitudnal Striations
2. Oblique Striations
3. Transverse Striations
4. No Striations

Answer: 3. Transverse Striations

Question 24. Simple epithelium is

1. One Cell Thick
2. Two Cells Thick
3. Two Or Three Cells Thick
4. All are correct

Answer: 1. One Cell Thick

Question 25. Which part of body’s weight is formed by connective tissue

1. 40%
2. 30%
3. 20%
4. 60%

Answer: 2. 30%

Question 26. The firous tissue which connects the two bone is

1. Connective Tissue
2. Tendon
3. Ligament
4. Adipose tissue

Answer: 3. Ligament

Question 27. The largest number of cell bodies of neuron in our body are found in

1. Retina
2. Spinal Cord
3. Brain
4. Tongue

Answer: 3. Brain

Question 28. Longest cell in human body may be

1. Nerve Cell
2. Leg Muscle Cell
3. Bone Cell
4. Heart muscle cell

Answer: 1. Nerve Cell

Question 29. Nervous are classifid on the basis of

1. Number Of Nucleus Present
2. Number Of Processes Arising From The Cell Body
3. Number Of Dendrites Present
4. Number Of Axons Present

Answer: 2. Number Of Processes Arising From The Cell Body

Question 30. Nucleated part of nerve cell is called

1. Axon
2. Dendrites
3. Cyton
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Cyton

Question 31. Pigment tissue are present in

1. Skin
2. Liver
3. Heart
4. Ear

Answer: 1. Skin

Question 32. Which of the following tissues is found under the category of simple connective tissue?

1. White fibrous tissue
2. Areolar tissue
3. Yellow fibrous tissue
4. Cartilage tissue

Answer: 2. Areolar tissue

Question 33. Muscular tissues are formed by

1. Ectoderm Cells
2. Endoderm Cells
3. Mesoderm cells
4. All the above three

Answer: 3. Mesoderm cells

Question 34. Synapse in the junction of

1. Dendrites
2. Simply Nerves
3. Nucleus
4. Axon

Answer: 2. Simply Nerves

Question 35. Sieve tubes are associated with

1. Xylem Tissue
2. Cambium
3. Phloem
4. Cortex

Answer: 3. Phloem

Question 36. Cells which takes part in secondary growth are named as

1. Phloem
2. Xylem
3. Cambium
4. Medullary ray

Answer: 3. Cambium

Question 37. The trunks of trees increase in girth because of mitotic activing in the

1. Vascular Tissue
2. Epidermis
3. Meristematic Tissue
4. Pith

Answer: 3. Meristematic Tissue

Question 38. Commercial cork is a derivative of the

1. Xylem
2. Vascular Cambium
3. Phellogen
4. Phloem

Answer: 3. Phellogen

Question 39. Thin filaments in my fails consist of

1. Actin And Accessory Proteins
2. Sarcomeres
3. Cross-Bridges
4. Z lines

Answer: 1. Actin And Accessory Proteins

Question 40. The force of muscle contraction depends on the

1. Number Of muscle Fibers Stimulated
2. Number Of Motor Units Stimulated
3. Frequency Of Action Potentials In Each Motor Unit
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 41. The mesophyll of a leaf consists of

1. Spongy Parenchyma Cells
2. Palisade Parenchyma Cells
3. Both Spongy And Palisade Parenchyma Cells
4. Pith cells

Answer: 3. Both Spongy And Palisade Parenchyma Cells

Question 42. A plant shoot’s growth in length is due to cell division in
the

1. Vascular Cambium
2. Apical Meristem
3. Cortex
4. Cork cambium

Answer: 2. Apical Meristem

Question 43. The vascular tissues of the plant function in

1. Support
2. Support And Transport Of Materials
3. Secretion Of Plant Hormones
4. All of the above

Answer: 2. Support And Transport Of Materials

Question 44. Nerve fire is

1. A Thin Nerve
2. Fire Formed By Many Axons
3. Fire Formed By Ensheathing Ofaxon
4. Fire formed by ensheathing of a dendrite

Answer: 3. Fire Formed By Ensheathing Ofaxon

Question 45. The layer of skin that wrinkles as a person gets older

1. Epidermis
2. Dermis
3. Connective Tissue
4. Epidermis and dermis

Answer: 2. Dermis

Question 46. Which tissue does lack blood supply and heals slowly?

1. Nervous
2. Muscle
3. Cartilage
4. Bone

Answer: 3. Cartilage

Question 47. Which cell does not have a perforated cell wall?

1. Tracheids
2. Companion cells
3. Sieve tubes
4. Vessels

Answer: 2. Companion cells

Question 48. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of a hand were dislocated. Which among the following may be the possible?

1. Tendon break
2. Break of skeletal muscle
3. Ligament break
4. Areolar tissue break

Answer: 3. Ligament break

Question 49. Contractile proteins are found in

1. Bones
2. Blood
3. Muscles
4. Cartilage

Answer: 3. Muscles

Question 50. Nervous tissue is not found in

1. Brain
2. Spinal Cord
3. Tendons
4. Nerves

Answer: 3. Tendons

Question 51. Which of the following does help in repair of tissue and fils up the space inside the organ?

1. Tendon
2. Adipose tissue
3. Areolar
4. Cartilage

Answer: 3. Areolar

Question 52. The dead element present in the phloem is

1. Companion Cells
2. Phloem Fires
3. Phloem Parenchyma
4. Sieve tube

Answer: 2. Phloem Fires

Question 53. Which of the following does not lose their nucleus at maturity?

1. Companion cells
2. Red blood cells
3. Vessel
4. Sieve tube cells

Answer: 1. Companion cells

Question 54. A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the ground level. After 3 years the nail will

1. Move Downwards
2. Move Upwards
3. Remain At The Same Position
4. Move sideways

Answer: 3. Remain At The Same Position

Question 55. Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of

1. Intercalary Meristem
2. Conducting Tissue
3. Apical Meristem
4. Parenchymatous tissue

Answer: 2. Conducting Tissue

Question 56. The water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperm is

1. Vessels
2. Sieve Tube
3. Tracheids
4. Xylem fires

Answer: 3. Tracheids

Question 57. If you observe the muscular tissue of urinary bladder, you will observe

1. Striated
2. Unstriated Muscle
3. Ligament
4. Tendon

Answer: 2. Unstriated Muscle

Question 58. Which one ofthe following is modification of parenchyma?

1. Fires Found In Phloem
2. Tracheids
3. Vessel
4. Chlorenchyma

Answer: 4. Chlorenchyma

Question 59. Along fire like process coming out ofthe cyton ofa nerve cell is

1. Axon
2. Dendron
3. Neurolemma
4. Neurofibrils

Answer: 1. Axon

Question 60. Striated muscles

1. Are Spindle Shaped
2. Get Tired And Need Rest
3. Never Get Tired
4. Are also called involuntary muscles

Answer: 3. Never Get Tired

Question 61. Striations appear in striped muscles due to

1. Presence of alternate light and dark banks
2. Dispersion of pigments
3. Presence of intercalated discs
4. Occurrence of actin strands

Answer: 1. Presence of alternate light and dark banks

Question 62. Haversian canal occurs in

1. Cartilage
2. Bone
3. Internal Ear
4. Liver

Answer: 2. Bone

Question 63. Which type of tissue forms glands?

1. Epithelial
2. Connective
3. Muscular
4. Nervous

Answer: 1. Epithelial

Question 64. Which one of the followings is not the true blood cell?

1. Monocytes
2. Red Blood Corpuscles
3. Neutrophils
4. Platelets

Answer: 4. Platelets

Question 65. Companion cells are found in

1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Intercalary Tissues
4. Collenchyma

Answer: 2. Phloem

Question 66. Pores of sieve plates

1. Connect Cytoplasmic Strands Of Adjacent Sieve Cells
2. Connect Companion Cell With Adjacent Sieve Cell
3. Connect Parenchyma Cells With Adjacent Sieve Tube Cells
4. All the above

Answer: 1. Connect Cytoplasmic Strands Of Adjacent Sieve Cells

Question 67. The food in plant is stored in

1. Sclerenchyma
2. Parenchyma
3. Collenchyma
4. None of them

Answer: 2. Parenchyma

Question 68. Bone matrix is rich in

1. Floride And Calcium
2. Calcium And Phosphorus
3. Calcium And Potassium
4. Phosphorus and potassium

Answer: 2. Calcium And Phosphorus

Question 69. Which of the following cells is found in the cartilaginous tissue of the body?

1. Mast cells
2. Basophils
3. Osteocytes
4. Chondrocytes

Answer: 4. Chondrocytes

Question 70. If the tip of sugarcane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the presence of

1. Cambium
2. Apical Meristem
3. Lateral Meristem
4. Intercalary meristem

Answer: 4. Intercalary meristem

Question 71. Survival of plants in terrestrial environments has been made possible by the presence of

1. Intercalary Meristem
2. Conducting Tissue
3. Apical Meristem
4. Parenchymatous tissue

Answer: 2. Conducting Tissue

Question 72. The tissue present in the living of kidney tubules and ducts of salivary glands is

1. Squamous Epithelial Tissue
2. Glandular Epithelium
3. Cuboidal Epithelium
4. Columnar epithelium

Answer: 3. Cuboidal Epithelium

Question 73. The tissue that helps in the movement of our body are

1. Muscular Tissue
2. Skeletal Tissue
3. Nervous Tissue
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 74. Blood and lymph are types of

1. Muscular Tissue
2. Epithelial Tissue
3. Connective
4. Permanent tissue

Answer: 3. Connective

Question 75. Squamous epithelium is found in

1. Lung Alveoli
2. Trachea
3. Alimentary Canal
4. Oviduct

Answer: 1. Lung Alveoli

Question 76. The connective tissue that connects muscle to bone is called

1. Ligament
2. Tendon
3. Cartilage
4. Areolar

Answer: 2. Tendon

Question 77. The spindle shaped cells, uninucleated and unbranched are present in muscular tissue of

1. Strated Muscles
2. Smooth Muscles
3. Cardiac Muscle
4. Both 1 and 2

Answer: 2. Smooth Muscles

Question 78. Cartilage and bone are types of

1. Muscular Tissue
2. Connective Tissue
3. Skeletal Tissue
4. Epithelial tissue

Answer: 2. Connective Tissue

Question 79. The intercalated disc is present in

1. Striated Muscle
2. Smooth Muscle
3. Cardiac Muscle
4. Both 2 And 3

Answer: 3. Cardiac Muscle

Question 80. Fibrinogen is absent in

1. Blood
2. Serum
3. Plasma
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. Serum